Option (b) The donar will always possesses defective mismatch kind of repair mechanism, which allowing mutations to gradually try to accumulate.
Mutational inactivation of each copies of a DNA mismatch restore gene effects in a profound restore illness and revolutionary accumulation of mutations all through the genome. The DNA mismatch restore device is a bidirectional excision-resynthesis device this is initiated at a described strand scission this is 3′- or 5′- of a mismatch and this excision will tract extends to any nonspecific factor simply beyond the mismatch.
(MIS-healthy reh-PAYR deh-FIH-shun-see) Describes cells which have mutations (changes) in sure genes which can be worried in correcting errors made while DNA is copied in a cell. Mismatch restore (MMR) poor cells normally have many DNA mutations, which may also cause cancer.
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Correct Question:
Over time with several attempts of passaging, the Donor strain used in this laboratory exercise fails to successfully induce mutagensis in the Recicpient strain and eventually becomes difficult to culture. Based on your understanding of how the PRL27 plasmid behaves in the Donor strain, why do these things eventually occur?
a). The transpson is active in the donor, and mutations gradually accumulate due to continued activity.
b). The donor possesses defective mismatch repair mechanisms, allowing mutations to gradually accumulate.
c). The plasmid eventually integrates into the donor chromosome.
d). Pl protein slowly accumulates through time, resulting in overproduction of the plasmid.
When all the members of a species or population have the same allele for a certain gene, we say that gene is.
If the 2 alleles are the equal, the character is homozygous for that allele. If the alleles are different, the character is heterozygous.
When a populace is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene, it isn't always evolving, and allele frequencies will live the equal throughout generations. There are 5 fundamental Hardy-Weinberg assumptions: no mutation, random mating, no gene flow, limitless populace size, and no selection.
To "fix" an allele method that the allele is gift at a frequency of 1.0, so all people withinside the populace have the equal allele at a locus.
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the population projection technique that allocates a projected population expansion to subregional areas is called:
Answer:
shift-share
Explanation:
hope it helps!
the body color of molly fish is controlled by several different genes. channel catfish homozygous for the recessive pigmentation gene have white coloration. the three-spined stickleback has a gene that controls the development of skeletal plates and the number of sensory cells in the lateral line. damselfish with the genotype bb have the barred color pattern. fish with the bb genotype lack bars. fish with the bb genotype display incomplete bars. in goldfish, the dominant m gene leads to dark coloration. for goldfish with an mm genotype, the s gene leads to a gold-colored fish, but the ss genotype causes albinism. mendelian inheritance press space to open complex inheritance press space to open
We know that complete inheritance refers to a pattern of inheritance in which the exchanging traits individuals are indistinguishable, and the traits are completely masked, whereas Mendelian inheritance is the transfer of certain patterns from parents to offspring.
As a result, we will attempt to state which inheritance examples belong to which inheritance.
1)Mendelian Inheritance in Goldfish ( Here, the observable traits are being inherited, Mendelian Inheritance deals with Autosomal dominance here with the M gene that is resposnsible for dark coloration)
2) Mendelian Inheritance in Damselfish (As the dominant homozygous genotype has a barred colour pattern, the recessive homozygous genotype lacks bars, and the heterozygous genotype has incomplete bars, all of which point to Mendelian Inheritance.)
3)Mendelian Inheritance in Chanel Catfish ( As recessive homozygous gene is responsible for white coloration)
4)Molly fish- Complete ancestry ( Several genes are responsible for the body colour of Molly fish which is single observable trait)
5)Stickleback- Complete Inheritance (The gene is solely responsible for the development of skeletal plats).
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which scenarios describe ecological conditions that are appropriate for exponential growth to occur?
The correct answer is d) A small flock of birds migrates to an unpopulated island with lush vegetation and abundant insect prey.
Birds migrate in order to shift from low-resource areas to high-resource areas or vice versa. The two main items sought after are food and places to build nests. Birds that breed in the Northern Hemisphere typically migrate northward in the spring to take advantage of the abundance of nesting sites, burgeoning insect populations, and budding plants to a suitable ecological condition. The birds once more migrate south as winter draws near and the amount of insects and other food sources decreases. Escape from the cold is a driving force, but many species, including hummingbirds, can withstand subfreezing temperatures provided they have access to enough food.
The complete question is:
Which of the following scenarios describe ecological conditions that are appropriate for exponential growth to occur?
a) People who live in the area surrounding Mombasa, Kenya are at high risk for contracting malaria.
b) A population of antelope in the African plains experiences high levels of predation from lions, cheetahs, and leopards.
c) Herbivores like elephants, giraffes, antelope, and zebras must compete for limited vegetation during drought seasons in the African savannah.
d) A small flock of birds migrates to an unpopulated island with lush vegetation and abundant insect prey.
e) Excessive snow and cold from a blizzard causes many starvation related deaths in a quail population. Only a small portion of the quail survive to spring to raise their young.
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operons are structures in bacterial genomes that organize genes involved in a common metabolic pathway. a specific example is the lac operon, which produces three enzymes involved in the metabolism of lactose (milk sugar) as a food source for escherichia coli. identify the functions of each part of the operon and related structures.
The functions of each part of the Lac operon and related structures are based on the following pairs: (1: E), (2:F), (3:D), (4:B), (5:C), (6:A)
1. The {lacZ} gene encodes the enzyme {β-galactosidase}, which hydrolyzes the disaccharide lactose into two monosaccharides: glucose and galactose.
2. The {lacY} gene encodes the enzyme {permease}, a membrane transport protein that facilitates the movement of lactose into the cell.
3. The {lacA} gene encodes {transacetylase}, an enzyme that detoxifies other molecules that might enter the cell through permease.
4. RNA polymerase binds to the {lac promoter} in order to transcribe the three lac genes.
5. The {lac operator} controls whether or not RNA polymerase can transcribe the genes.
6. The {lacI gene}, which lies just upstream from the lac operon, encodes the {lacI repressor} protein that binds to the operator to regulate the activity of the operon.
The complete question is:
Operons are structures in bacterial genomes that organize genes involved in a common metabolic pathway. A specific example is the lac operon, which produces three enzymes involved in the metabolism of lactose (milk sugar) as a food source for Escherichia coli. Identify the functions of each part of the operon and related structures.
Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Not all terms will be used.
1. The {lacZ}
2. The {lacY}
3. The {lacA}
4. RNA polymerase
5. The {lac operator}
6. The {lacI gene}
Options are:
(A). which lies just upstream from the lac operon, encodes the {lacI repressor} protein that binds to the operator to regulate the activity of the operon.
(B). binds to the {lac promoter} in order to transcribe the three lac genes.
(C) controls whether or not RNA polymerase can transcribe the genes.
(D) the gene encodes {transacetylase}, an enzyme that detoxifies other molecules that might enter the cell through permease.
(E) the gene encodes the enzyme {β-galactosidase}, which hydrolyzes the disaccharide lactose into two monosaccharides: glucose and galactose.
(F) the gene encodes the enzyme {permease}, a membrane transport protein that facilitates the movement of lactose into the cell.
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g to increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will. . . increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasodilate veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, decrease bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins
To increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will d) vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp. So, option d is correct.
Our blood conveys oxygen and significant supplements all through your body, so it's truly critical to have a consistent, solid degree of blood stream to your mind. As a matter of fact, diminished blood stream to your cerebrum is related with various wellbeing concerns, including an expanded gamble of dementia, melancholy, and stroke. Luckily, it's really conceivable to work on your course and increment blood stream for a better cerebrum.
There are certain ways of expanding blood stream in our body parts like muscles and mind.
Eat more dull chocolate.Chew gum.Drink beet juice.Enjoy a lot of berries.Listen to your #1 music.Get a decent night's sleep.Exercise 3-4 times a week.Practice meditation.Stretch over the course of the day.Loosen your bowtie.Hence, option d is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
to increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will. . .
a)increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp,
b)vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasodilate veins increase hr, c)increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries,
d)vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp,
e)vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, decrease bp,
f) vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins.
What is the metabolic process that breaks down organic molecules to release energy to be used by cells?
Answer: Cellular Respiration
Explanation:
individuals from which of the following backgrounds are least likely to experience emerging adulthood? group of answer choices western cultures high ses low ses all of these are equally likely to experience emerging adulthood
Emerging adulthood is predominantly found in developed countries mainly in western cultures. There most young people completing tertiary education, marrying and becoming parents at a median age of about 30.
Adulthood, the period of human lifespan in which people reach full physical and mental maturity. Adulthood is generally considered to begin when he is 20 or he is 21. From around 40 years old to middle age, around 60 years old to reach the old age.
"Emerging adulthood" is a term that describes the stage of development from about 18 to 29 years old, experienced by most people in their 20s in Westernized cultures and perhaps other parts of the world as well.
Growing adults share five traits: self-focus, instability, identity-seeking, in-between, and a sense of possibility. Emerging adulthood occurs in all ethnic, cultural, and socioeconomic groups, but the experience of emerging adulthood varies among groups.
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which structure is highlighted? posterior view of the thigh. the highlighted structure is a bunch of tissue in its lower portion. it branches laterally from a long bunch of tissue lying along the middle back of the thigh.which structure is highlighted? popliteal nerve tibial nerve tendon of semimembranosus common fibular nerve
The structure which is highlighted in the given picture is c)anterior tibial artery. Popliteal artery give rise to anterior tibial artery in Poplitea. So, correct option is c.
The popliteal artery is a profoundly positioned continuation of the femoral course opening in the distal piece of the adductor magnus muscle. It flows through the popliteal fossa and closures at the lower line of the popliteus muscle, where it branches into the front and back tibial courses.
The most profound (generally front) structure in the fossa, the popliteal course runs near the joint container of the knee as it ranges the intercondylar fossa. Five genicular parts of the popliteal vein supply the container and tendons of the knee joint. The genicular veins are the unrivaled sidelong, predominant average, center, mediocre horizontal, and second rate average genicular corridors.
They partake in the development of the periarticular genicular anastomosis, an organization of vessels encompassing the knee that gives guarantee flow fit for keeping up with blood supply to the leg during full knee flexion, which might wrinkle the popliteal vein.
Hence, correct option is c.
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(Complete question) is:
Which structure is highlighted in the given picture?
a)posterior tibial artery
b)femoral artery
c)anterior tibial artery
d)popliteal artery fibular artery
codominance cross with blood types (5 pts) a mother has ab blood and a father has type o blood. what is the probability that their offspring will have type a blood? can they have offspring with type o blood?
blood group Either A or B is the blood group their offspring can have and the probability is 50%.
If the father has the blood group O, his genotype is IOI LO or (ii). Because the mother is of blood type AB, her genotype is IAIB. Combinations of these two groups could result in children with genotypes IAIO or IBIO, giving them blood groups A or B, respectively. Thus, blood group O cannot be found in children if one of the parents is a member of the group. A blood type is a type of blood that is distinguished by the presence or absence of antibodies and inherited antigenic substances on the surface of red blood cells. Depending on the blood group system, these antigens can be proteins, carbohydrates, glycoproteins, or glycolipids.
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Pretend that you are doing a cloning. These are the steps:
1st step: A cloning vector (selective vector: β-Galactosidase/lac-Z) was cut with the restriction endonuclease Sma I, whose restriction site is:
C C C G G G
2nd step: The digested vector was treated with alkaline phosphatase to prevent the relegation of the plasmid.
3rd step: Your synthetic DNA of interest was inserted into the Sma I site in your vector.
Sequence of your fragment of interest:
5' G G A C T T A C T A C C C A A G T A 3'
3' C C T G A A T G A T G G G T T C A T 5'
Vector sequence indicating where the DNA fragment was inserted (Sma I site) in respect to the b-galactosidase gene (this is a blunt-end ligation!)
- ATG | ACC | ATG | ATT ACG | AAT | TCC | C GG | GGA -
↑
Sma I-cut
H3N- Met | Thr | Met | Ile | Thr | Asn | Ser | Arg | Gly --> functional b- galactosidase gene starts here
4th step: the digested vector and DNA fragment were ligated followed by a transformation into E. coli.
RESULTS: In the presence of the indicator X-gal, 52% of the colonies on the plate were blue and 48% were clear. The Blue colonies are not due to the re-ligation of the plasmid!
In this experiment, cloning failed because 52% formed blue colonies because it did not show the presence of the DNA we are interested in. Perhaps due to improper binding of the DNA to the vector, due to the sticky ends produced by the restriction enzymes, causing misfolding of the DNA or causing expression failure. And another reason may be because not every cell that is supposed to change is always changing, of the number of cells saved for transformation, only half of the cells show the transformation.
This problem provides an explanation of the steps for cloning E. Coli bacteria in the presence of an X-gal indicator, resulting in 52% of the colonies on the plate being blue and 48% clear.
In gene cloning, X-gal is used as a visual indication of whether a cell expresses a functional α-galactosidase enzyme in a technique called blue/clear screening. This screening method is an easy way to distinguish successful clones from unsuccessful ones.
Blue and clear selection is a method used to separate cells containing recombinant plasmids from cells containing plasmids without inserted DNA. The purpose of this selection is to find out whether the ligation process was successful or to find out the presence of inserted DNA. Successful ligation produces clear colonies.
Your question is incomplete, but maybe your question is complete "Give the most likely explanation for your result!"
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which hormone released by the highlighted structure stimulates the release of tsh from the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)?
Answer: aTRH hormone
Explanation:
in eukaryotes, there are several different types of rna polymerase. which type is involved in transcription of mrna for a protein?
Transcribing RNA into a protein involves RNA polymerase II. whereas eukaryotes have a variety of RNA polymerase species.
RNA polymerase II, also known as RNAP II or Pol II, is a multiprotein complex that converts DNA into messenger RNA (mRNA), the majority of small nuclear RNA (snRNA), and microRNA precursors. It is one of the three RNAP enzymes that can be found in eukaryotic cells' nuclei. The most researched form of RNA polymerase is RNAP II, a 550 kDa complex with 12 subunits. For it to bind to upstream gene promoters and start transcription, a variety of transcription factors are needed. In eukaryotic genomes, RNA polymerase II (Pol II) transcribes all protein-coding genes and a large number of noncoding RNAs. Though Pol II is complicated.
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you are looking at dna-protein binding data in a 14 kb region of the genome. t/f: this data provides biochemical and evolutionary evidence of functionality for a non-coding region of the genome.
False if findings show biochemical and evolutionary proof that a non-coding portion of the genome functions.
What are the three different genome types?We know from the last example that there are three genome types, AA, AG, and GG, because the mutation is A-G. The GG type of these three genome types has the highest activity against alcohol, whereas the AA type has the lowest activity and can rarely digest alcohol.
What kind of genome is an example of?This same set of instructions can be found in every cell in the body, such as skin cells and liver cells: DNA is the primary component of our genome's instructions. DNA contains a special chemical sequence that directs our growth, development, and health.
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which of the following best describes a typical metabolic pathway? i. a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, most of which are operating near equilibrium, but one or more is highly favorable and irreversible ii. a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, all of which are highly favorable, and irreversible. iii. all of the other options. iv. a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, most of which are highly favorable, but one or more is near equilibrium. v. a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, all of which are operating near equilibrium.
The correct option which best describes a typical metabolic pathway is (i) a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, most of which are operating near equilibrium, but one or more is highly favorable and irreversible.
A metabolic route is a connected chain of chemical events taking place inside a cell. Metabolites are the reactants, products, and intermediates of an enzymatic reaction that are altered by a series of chemical reactions that are catalyzed by enzymes. Typically, the output of one enzyme acts as the substrate for the following one in a metabolic pathway. Side products, on the other hand, are discarded as trash and taken out of the cell. Many times, these enzymes need dietary minerals, vitamins, and other cofactors to work. One metabolic process for carbohydrates, for instance, converts big molecules into glucose. A different metabolic process could transform glucose into substantial carbohydrates for storage. The first of these is referred as be anabolic and requires energy. The second procedure, known as catabolic, results in energy production.
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Given the time period and incident rate indicated by the bracket and question mark, this population is experiencing:
With the time period and incident rate indicated by the bracket and question mark, this population is experiencing an increase in the number and density of susceptible hosts.
Incidence rate or person-time rate may be a degree of the rate that incorporates time straightforwardly into the denominator. A person-time rate is by and large calculated from a long-term cohort follow-up consideration, wherein enrollees are taken after over time and the event of unused cases of infection is documented. A incidence rate depicts how rapidly infection happens in a populace. It is based on person-time, so it has a few preferences over a rate extent. Since person-time is calculated for each subject, it can oblige people coming into and clearing out the study. predominance rate is the extent of people in a populace who have a specific illness or quality at an indicated point in time or over an indicated time period. Predominance varies from the frequency in that predominance incorporates all cases, both modern and preexisting,
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the arrival of children: affects the frequency of sexual relations by increasing it. affects the frequency of sexual relations by decreasing it substantially. does not affect the frequency of sexual relations. affects the frequency of sexual relations only slightly, but there is a substantial increase in sexual satisfaction for mothers.
The arrival of children affects the frequency of sexual relations by decreasing it substantially. Your body needs to restore its hormone levels to those from before pregnancy after giving delivery.
Your sexual desire and sexual reaction may decrease as a result of this modification. For instance, women who breastfeed children may have vaginal dryness because breastfeeding lowers estrogen levels. The type of sexual relations you have and how frequently you have it will probably alter as a result of birth and motherhood. After having a baby, a woman's desire in sexual relations may recover in 1 to 3 months, however it's typical for it to take longer. You are free to resume sexual relations whenever you feel ready, unless your doctor has suggested otherwise. You're not alone if you don't feel particularly lusty after delivering a baby. During the first few months, it's typical for both men's and women's libido to reach its lowest point.
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_________, which is an autoimmune disorder caused by hyperthyroidism, is characterized by goiter and exophthalmos.
Answer:
graves disease
Explanation:
Fungi a. typically reproduce sexually when environmental conditions are poOr: b. typically reproduce sexually when environmental conditions are good. c. always reproduce sexually: d. always reproduce asexually
What are the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of of the following cross: tall, round (TTRR) x short, wrinkled (ttrr)
Phenotypic ratio: 9:3:3:1
Genotypic ratios: 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1.
The following cross: tall, round (TTRR) x short, wrinkled (ttrr)
What is a dihybrid cross?A dihybrid cross is a cross between characters in which 2 different genes are responsible for different traits.
Phenotypic ratio: Tall/Round - 9
Tall/wrinkled - 3
Short/Round - 3
Short/wrinkled - 1
Genotypic ratios: 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1'.
Gametes: RT, Rt, rT, rt
Cross between tall, round (TTRR) x short, wrinkled (ttrr) are attched in image below.
Therefore, the phenotypic ratio: is 9:3:3:1, genotypic ratio: is 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1.
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describe a positive coagulase test and its significance. describe how coagulase is a virulence factor. which pathogen produces coagulase
Staphylococcus aureus can be identified using the tube coagulase test as long as only a solid clot that does not move when the tube is tilted is regarded as a positive coagulation reaction.
Define coagulase test?
The coagulase test determines whether a substance contains the exoenzyme coagulase, which is responsible for causing blood plasma's fibrin to clot. it is done to determine the presence or absence of coagulase protein.
Aureus has a virulence factor called coagulase. This bacteria may shield an infection from phagocytosis by causing a clot to grow around it.
Hence ,Staphylococcus aureus can be distinguished from other coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species with this test.
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will give u brainliest
Question
Hemophilia is a genetic blood disorder that is common in descendants of Queen Victoria. Although several women in the family were carriers of the allele for the disorder, only men ended up actually expressing the disorder.
Which statement is true about the inheritance of hemophilia?
Responses
It's a recessive trait on the X chromosome.
It's a dominant trait on the Y chromosome.
It's a recessive trait on the Y chromosome.
It's a dominant trait on the X chromosome
Answer: Recessive X-linked
Explanation:
Hemophilia is a recessive trait on the X chromosome. The correct option is A.
What is hemophilia?Hemophilia is a basically a genetic bleeding problem of disorder in which the blood fails to clot at it used to do. This can result in both spontaneous and post-injury or surgical bleeding.
Blood contains numerous proteins referred to as clotting factors that can results in the prevention of bleeding.
A mutation or change in one of the genes that provides instructions for making the clotting factor proteins required to form a blood clot causes hemophilia.
This change or mutation can cause the clotting protein to malfunction or go missing entirely. These genes are recessive and are usually found on chromosome X.
It can be carried by either the mother or the father, or by both of them. The likelihood of a child inheriting the haemophilia changed gene is determined by which of their parents has the changed gene.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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which hormone released by the highlighted structure stimulates the release of tsh from the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)?
A The hypothalamic-pituitary axis regulates the release of TSH via hypothalamic neurons that secrete thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH), a hormone that stimulates thyrotrophs in the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH.
TSH synthesis in the anterior pituitary is stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and inhibited by thyroid hormone in a classic endocrine negative feedback loop. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis regulates the release of TSH. Specifically, neurons in the hypothalamus release TRH, or thyroid-releasing hormone, which stimulates the thyrotrophs in the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH. Your hypothalamus releases thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which causes your pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). ), which stimulates the thyroid to release T3 and T4. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH),synthesize and release thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)
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Which proteins lends structural support to the chromosome and helps activate or silence gene expression?.
Histones serve as structural proteins. Histones are encircled by DNA, which gives chromosomes their structure. Histones can be changed by adding or removing chemical groups like methyl or acetyl groups.
What protein helps a chromosome maintain its structural integrity?A chromosome's structural support is provided by a protein called a histone. Each chromosome has a long DNA molecule that must fit into the cell nucleus. By wrapping around histone protein complexes, the DNA achieves this and gives the chromosome a more compact shape.
Who or what is responsible for suppressing gene expression?Posttranscriptional gene silencing (PTGS) and transcriptional gene silencing (TGS) both work to degrade already-existing RNA. Although the outcomes are comparable, TGS's processes are species-specific, as are PTGS. De novo DNA methylation is connected to gene silencing in the majority of eukaryotes.
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Hairston and colleagues argued that terrestrial ecosystems have a _______ proportion of autotroph biomass consumption compared to aquatic ecosystems because _______ is stronger in terrestrial ecosystems.lower; predation
According to Hairston and colleagues, because predation is more intense in terrestrial ecosystems, they consume a smaller percentage of autotroph biomass than aquatic habitats.
In contrast, according to Hairston (1993), the distribution of biomass throughout the trophic levels and the number of them are determined by ecosystems evolutionary features like body size and eating behavior rather than by energetics or nutrition. Only three functioning trophic levels are present in terrestrial ecosystems food webs, biomass according to Hairston & Hairston (1993). (plants, herbivores and primary predators)
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b cells are induced to switch to alternative immunoglobulin isotypes under the influence of which component?
B cells are induced to switch to alternative immunoglobulin isotypes under the influence cytokines made by TFH.
What are the functions of B cells?B cell also called B lymphocyte is a key player of the adaptive immune response that is responsible for humoral immunity in the mammals. Production of B cell in humans is a lifelong process that starts in the fetal liver intrauterine and bone marrow after birth and their development is from hematopoietic stem cells.
B - cells create a type of protein called antibody. These antibodies bind to pathogens such as toxins to neutralize them. For example, antibody can bind to a virus that prevents it from entering a normal cell and causing infection.
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male-only care is rare in birds but relatively common in fish. what two factors are hypothesized to explain this difference?
Plant growth and fertilization mode in which the main stem continues to extend indefinitely without being constrained by a terminal inflorescence or other reproductive structure.
Also known as determinate growth, it is characterized by successive flowering from the lateral or base buds to the central or highest buds.
Snakes have indeterminate growth, which indicates that there is no end point in time or size for their growth during their lives, but they can continue to expand in length until they die. Many snakes attain sexual maturity in roughly two years.
Here are a few examples of hypotheses: A straightforward hypothesis: A simple hypothesis predicts a link between two variables, one independent and one dependent.
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when butterflies visit a corpse, which occurs very late in the succession of insects that arrive at a corpse, what are they looking to feed on?
Butterflies visit a corpse, which occurs very late in the succession of insects that arrive at a corpse, what are they looking to feed on salt
Butterflies are fantastic for your garden since they are drawn to vivid flowers and require nectar to survive. Their bodies gather pollen as a result and transport it to other plants. Fruits, vegetables, and flowers can generate more seeds because to this.Plants are not specifically harmed by butterflies. Cabbage moths and white cabbage butterflies are the primary offenders (which we describe below). The majority of butterflies are essentially unharmful.Butterflies, like honeybees, pollinate plants and serve as a food source for birds and other species. They also assist in gauging environmental conditions. This final task is crucial since native pollinators are responsible for one-third of the food generated for human use.
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to test the service brake on a hydraulic system you push down the pedel firmly to see if the braking action is correct where and when should u do this
You should test the service brake on a hydraulic system you push down the pedel firmly to see if the braking action is correct while during your pre-trip.
Three brake pedal pumps are required. Next, press firmly and hold the pedal position for five seconds. The pedal must not be pressed. If so, there might be a leak or another issue.
What is hydraulic system?
Hydraulic systems use a pressured fluid to operate and carry out duties. Another way to put it is that everything is propelled by a fluid under pressure. Heavy machinery typically employs hydraulics because of how much liquid fuel affects hydraulics.
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moist heat methods have to operate at higher temperatures and longer exposure times as compared to dry heat methods to kill microbes. a. true b. false
Moist heat methods have to operate at higher temperatures and longer exposure times as compared to dry heat methods to kill microbes. This statement is false.
Moist heat sterilization is the use of heated, high-pressure steam to sterilize an object. This sterilization method uses no toxic liquids or fumes and is relatively cheap, quick, and effective in killing and eliminating potentially infectious bacteria, viruses, and spores.
Autoclaving, pasteurization, boiling, and tyndallization are all examples of moist heat sterilization (intermittent sterilization). Autoclaving is the most effective moist heat sterilization method because it kills microorganisms and their spores. It also makes use of autoclave equipment.
Heat conduction is used to achieve dry heat sterilization. Heat is absorbed by the device's outside surface and transferred throughout the device until the target temperature is reached. By oxidizing molecules, dry heat kills microorganisms.
Dry heat sterilization can take much longer than steam, flaming, chemical sterilization, or radiation sterilization. Heat can cause sensitive materials or thin sheets to warp. Because high temperatures can permanently damage plastics and rubber, they are not suitable for dry heat.
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