One strand of DNA is read from 5' to 3' when you read it left to right. Its complement would be D Hint: draw this on paper if the wording is confusing you. O read 5' to 3' from RIGHT to LEFT and not identical in sequence O identical but reversed in sequence when read 5' to 3¹ O read 5' to 3' from LEFT to RIGHT and not identical in sequence

Answers

Answer 1

The complement of a DNA strand is identical but reversed in sequence when read from 5' to 3'. It is read from right to left, and the sequence is not identical to the original strand.

DNA is composed of two complementary strands that are held together by hydrogen bonds between their base pairs. The base pairs in DNA consist of adenine (A) paired with thymine (T), and guanine (G) paired with cytosine (C). The orientation of DNA is described by the numbering of its carbon atoms, with the 5' carbon at one end palindromic sequences and the 3' carbon at the other end.

When we read a DNA strand from 5' to 3' in the left-to-right direction, the complementary strand is read from right to left. This means that the order of the bases is reversed, but the base pairing rules remain the same. For example, if the original strand reads 5'-ATCG-3', its complement will be 3'-TAGC-5'. The complementarity ensures that the two strands can bind together and maintain the double helical structure of DNA.

In summary, the complement of a DNA strand is formed by reversing the sequence when read from 5' to 3'. It is read from right to left, and although the sequence is not identical to the original strand, the complementary base pairing is maintained.

Learn more about palindromic sequences here

https://brainly.com/question/32346211

#SPJ11


Related Questions

Disorders of the Ear
Describe otitis media and its cause, pathophysiology, and
signs
Describe the pathophysiology and signs of otosclerosis and of
Meniere’s syndrome
Explain how permanent hearing l

Answers

Otitis Media: Cause: Otitis media refers to inflammation or infection of the middle ear. It is commonly caused by a bacterial or viral infection that spreads from the upper respiratory tract or Eustachian tube dysfunction.

Pathophysiology: In otitis media, the Eustachian tube, which connects the middle ear to the back of the throat, becomes blocked or dysfunctional. This leads to the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, providing a suitable environment for bacteria or viruses to grow and cause infection. The inflammation and fluid buildup can result in pain, pressure, and impaired hearing.

Signs: Common signs of otitis media include ear pain, hearing loss, feeling of fullness or pressure in the ear, fever, fluid draining from the ear, and sometimes redness or swelling of the ear.

Otosclerosis:  Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, specifically around the stapes bone, which impairs its ability to transmit sound waves to the inner ear. This abnormal bone growth restricts the movement of the stapes, resulting in conductive hearing loss.

Signs: Signs of otosclerosis include progressive hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), dizziness or imbalance, and sometimes a family history of the condition.

Meniere's Syndrome: Meniere's syndrome is a disorder of the inner ear that affects balance and hearing. It is believed to be caused by an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the inner ear, known as endolymphatic hydrops. The exact cause of this fluid buildup is not fully understood, but it may be related to factors such as fluid regulation disturbances, allergies, or autoimmune reactions.

Signs: Meniere's syndrome is characterized by episodes of vertigo (intense spinning sensation), fluctuating hearing loss (usually in one ear), tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the affected ear. These episodes can last for several hours to a whole day and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting.

Permanent Hearing Loss:Permanent hearing loss can occur due to various factors, including damage to the hair cells in the inner ear, damage to the auditory nerve, or structural abnormalities in the ear.

Exposure to loud noises, certain medications, aging, infections, genetic factors, and other medical conditions can contribute to permanent hearing loss.

Once the delicate structures involved in hearing are damaged or impaired, they cannot be regenerated or repaired, leading to permanent hearing loss. Treatment options for permanent hearing loss often involve the use of hearing aids or cochlear implants to amplify sound and improve hearing.

To know more about Otitis Media :

https://brainly.com/question/9877636

#SPJ11

To which phylum do cephalopods belong, Mollusca, Nematoda, or Annelida? What is an identifying characteristic of ce Select one: a. None of these. b. Mollusca. They have a mantle. c. Mollusca. They have two shells. d. Nematoda. They have a "pen." e. Annelida. They have bristles (setae). f. Annelida. They have a modified foot. g. Nematoda. They have a pseudocoelom.

Answers

Mollusca. Cephalopods, including squids, octopuses, and cuttlefish, belong to the phylum Mollusca. One identifying characteristic of cephalopods is that they have a mantle.  The correct answer is b.

The mantle is a specialized tissue that surrounds the body and is responsible for various functions, including the secretion of the shell in some mollusks.

However, unlike other mollusks such as snails and clams, many cephalopods either have a reduced or completely absent external shell. Instead, they may possess an internal shell or no shell at all. This adaptation allows for greater mobility and flexibility.

Cephalopods are further characterized by their well-developed nervous system, complex behaviors, and highly developed sensory organs, including large eyes. They also have a unique body structure with tentacles or arms that are used for capturing prey and locomotion.

Cephalopods belong to the phylum Mollusca, and their identifying characteristic is the presence of a mantle, although the presence of an external shell varies among species.

Learn more about locomotion

https://brainly.com/question/13343069

#SPJ11

QUESTION 2
Describe the role of carbohydrates, lipids and proteins in living organisms. (AC 1.1, 1.2) QUESTION 3
i. Explain the mechanism of enzyme action in cells. ii. Describe the role of enzymes in metabolism. (AC 2.1) QUESTION
i. Compare the processes of aerobic and anaerobic respiration ii. Outline the biochemical pathways which enable cells to produce energy using glucose and oxygen. (AC 3.1, 3.2)

Answers

Question 2: Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins play essential roles in living organisms. Carbohydrates are a major source of energy and provide structural support.

They are broken down into glucose molecules, which are used in cellular respiration to generate ATP, the energy currency of cells. Additionally, carbohydrates can be converted into storage forms like glycogen or starch for future energy needs.

Lipids serve as a concentrated energy source and insulation, and they form the structural basis of cell membranes. They are composed of fatty acids and glycerol. Lipids can be oxidized to produce ATP and also act as an important component of hormones and signaling molecules.

Proteins are involved in various functions within cells. They are composed of amino acids and play crucial roles in enzyme catalysis, cell signaling, transport of molecules, immune response, and structural support. Proteins can be broken down into amino acids and used for energy, but their primary role is in the regulation and maintenance of cellular processes. In summary, carbohydrates provide energy and structural support, lipids serve as an energy source and form cell membranes, and proteins have diverse functions including enzyme catalysis, signaling, and structural support.

learn more about Carbohydrates here:

https://brainly.com/question/21664740

#SPJ11

Fill in the complementary DNA strand (template strand). Then transcribe \& translate these bacterial ORFs (open reading frame) from DNA sequence into mRNA / polypeptide. These are the non-template strands. 5'TCAATGGAACGCGCTACCCGGAGCTCTGGGCCCAAATTTCATTGACACT 3 ' 5′GGGATCGATGCCCCTTAAAGAGTTTACATATTGCTGGAGGCGTtAACCCCGGA 3 ′

Answers

Complementary DNA strand:3' AGTTACCTTGCGCGATGGGCCTCGAGACCCGGGTTAAAAGTAACGTGTG 5'Transcription is the process of producing an RNA molecule from a DNA template, while translation is the process of producing a polypeptide chain from an RNA molecule.

Transcription:5' UGAAUGGAACGCGCUACCCGGAGCUCUGGGCCCAAUUUCAUUGACACU 3'3' ACUUACCUUGCGCGAUGGGCCAGAGACCCGGGUUAAAAGUAAUGUGACUGAAUGUUAGGCGCGCUGACCCUGGUUGACU 5'mRNA:5' UGAAUGGAACGCGCUACCCGGAGCUCUGGGCCCAAUUUCAUUGACACU 3'3' ACUUACCUUGCGCGAUGGGCCAGAGACCCGGGUUAAAAGUAAUGUGACUGAAUGUUAGGCGCGCUGACCCUGGUUGACU 5'Polypeptide chain:5' Methionine-Asp-Asn-Cys-Ala-Cys-Lys-Thr-Pro 3'.

To find the complementary DNA strand (template strand), we can simply replace each nucleotide with its complementary base:

5' TCAATGGAACGCGCTACCCGGAGCTCTGGGCCCAAATTTCATTGACACT 3'

3' AGTTACCTTGCGCGATGGGCCTCGAGACCCGGGTTTAAAGTAACTGTGAA 5'

Now, let's transcribe each of the open reading frames (ORFs) into mRNA and translate them into polypeptides.

ORF 1 (Starting from the first AUG codon):

DNA: 5' TCAATGGAACGCGCTACCCGGAGCTCTGGGCCCAAATTTCATTGACACT 3'

mRNA: 3' AGUUAUCCUUGCUCGAUGGGCCUCGAGACCCGGGUUAAAUAAUGACACU 5'

Polypeptide: Ser-Tyr-Pro-Cys-Arg-Val-Ser-Asp-Pro-Gly-Phe-Lys-Ile-Cys-Th

ORF 2 (Starting from the second AUG codon):

DNA: 5' GGATCGATGCCCCTTAAAGAGTTTACATATTGCTGGAGGCGTtAACCCCGGA 3'

mRNA: 3' CCAUAGCUACGGGAUUUUCUCAAUUGUAUAACGACCUCCGCAttUUGGGGCCU 5'

Polypeptide: Pro-Tyr-Leu-Arg-Asp-Phe-Ser-Asn-Val-Asn-Asp-Pro-His-Leu-Gly-Pro

Please note that the lowercase "t" in the DNA sequence represents a potential mutation and should be interpreted as "T" when transcribing and translating.

learn more about DNA

https://brainly.com/question/32072734

#SPJ11

What is the definition of tissue? What is the definition of organ? Give an example? What is the definition of system? Give an example? Look at these slides under 4X, 10X and 40X. There are 4 different types of Human tissue: 1. Epithelial tissue Have different shapes: they are either columnar, cuboidal, or squamous (look at the models). Observe the slides of human skin, lung, kidney and intestine Look at the model of human skin
What are the functions of epithelial tissue? 2. Nervous tissue are different types: but the ones that you should recognize are the neurons, which have: axons, dendrite, and cell body. Observe the slides and model of the neurons. What are the functions of nervous tissue? 3. Connective tissue are different than the rest of the tissues. They either have living cells or they are just a structure like the bone Observe the slide of the bone, you should be able to see: osteocytes, canaliculi. Haversian canals, Yolkmann's canal, and matrix. Look at the slide of skin and under epidermis and see the connective tissue (dermis layer). Can you find the adipocytes in the slide of skin? How many different tissue can you identify in the skin slide? Identify, epithelial tissue, adipocytes, connective tissue, epidermis and dermis.
Look at the slide of blood and models of blood. The red blood cells are called erythrocytes. White blood cells are referred to as leukocytes. Identify neutrophils, basophils, cosinophils monocytes, and lymphocytes. Also look at the models of neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils and lymphocytes. What are the functions of connective tissue?
Look at this slide under 10X and 40X. 4. Muscular tissue There are three different types of muscles:
A. cardiac muscle: make sure you see striation and intercalated discs. The cardiac muscles are connected to each other by these discs. B. smooth muscles are NOT striated. They are our involuntary muscles. Where do you find smooth muscles in our body?
C. Skeletal muscle which are striated. They are found in our voluntary muscles. One cell can have several nuclei. Observe the slide of the three different types of muscle. Be able to tell them apart.
What are the functions of muscular tissue?
Look at the models of skeletal tissue and smooth muscle tissue. There is not a model of cardiac muscle. Look at the slide of intestine and locate the smooth muscle? How many different types tissue can you identify in the slide of intestine? 28

Answers

Tissue is defined as a group of cells that have similar structures and functions. An organ is a structure made up of different types of tissues that work together to perform a specific function in the body.

A system is a group of organs that work together to perform a specific function in the body.
Examples of tissues, organs, and systems:
Tissue: Epithelial tissue - Function: Protects the body's surfaces, absorbs nutrients, and secretes substances. Example: Skin tissue, Lung tissue, Kidney tissue, and Intestinal tissue.
Tissue: Nervous tissue - Function: Communicates messages throughout the body. Example: Neurons.
Tissue: Connective tissue - Function: Provides support and structure to the body. Example: Bone, skin (dermis layer), and Adipose tissue.
Tissue: Muscular tissue - Function: Movement of the body. Example: Cardiac muscle, Smooth muscle (found in organs and blood vessels), and Skeletal muscle.
Epithelial tissue functions:
- Protecting the body from external factors such as microorganisms, chemical substances, and mechanical stress.
- Absorbing nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract and reabsorbing substances from the kidneys.
- Secreting hormones, enzymes, and mucus.
Nervous tissue functions:
- Responding to stimuli.
- Transmitting and processing information.
- Controlling and coordinating body functions.
Connective tissue functions:
- Supporting and protecting body tissues.
- Providing structural support to the body.
- Connecting body parts.
Muscular tissue functions:
- Generating body heat.
- Moving the body and body parts.
- Pumping blood through the heart.
In the slide of the intestine, three types of tissues can be identified - epithelial tissue, connective tissue, and smooth muscle tissue.

learn more about tissue

https://brainly.com/question/32246268

#SPJ11

Rates of calcification in the Corallinales are highest when pH
is a) low b) neutral c) high

Answers

The rates of calcification in the Corallinales are highest when pH is high. The Corallinales is an order of red algae.

They are found in marine environments worldwide, including the deep sea and the intertidal zone. They have a calcified skeleton that makes them important reef-building organisms, and they are frequently found in coral reefs. These organisms are also used as food in some cultures, and they are sometimes used in traditional medicine.

The Corallinales has a calcified skeleton that makes them important reef-building organisms. Calcification is the process by which organisms such as Corallinales secrete calcium carbonate to form a hard, protective structure around themselves.

The rates of calcification in the Corallinales are influenced by a variety of factors, including pH. Research has shown that the rates of calcification in the Corallinales are highest when pH is high. When the pH is low, the Corallinales experience a decrease in calcification rates, which can have negative consequences for their survival and the ecosystem they are a part of.In conclusion, the rates of calcification in the Corallinales are highest when pH is high.

To know more about pH visit:

https://brainly.com/question/2288405

#SPJ11

Which statement is FALSE about regulatory enzymes that are controlled allosterically?
a) They are less active when a allosteric inhibitor is bound to them.
b) They are often larger than other enzymes.
c) They have one binding site.
d) They often catalyze the first step in a reaction pathway.

Answers

The statement that is FALSE about regulatory enzymes that are controlled allosterically is "They often catalyze the first step in a reaction pathway."What is an enzyme?Enzymes are biological molecules that catalyze (increase the rate of) chemical reactions.

In metabolic pathways, they frequently serve as a means of controlling the chemical transformations that occur. There are a few different types of enzymes, but regulatory enzymes are one type that is involved in the process of metabolic regulation.What are regulatory enzymes?Regulatory enzymes, also known as regulated enzymes, are enzymes that regulate the rate of a metabolic pathway. In metabolic pathways, they serve as a means of controlling the chemical reactions that occur. They function as an on/off switch, allowing or preventing a reaction from occurring. Regulatory enzymes are usually controlled allosterically.

To know more about biological visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28584322

#SPJ11

D) the regulating agencies for prescription and over-the-counter medications. 12. Which of the following substances is most likely to cause foodborne illness? A) intentional and unintentional additive

Answers

The regulating agencies for prescription and over-the-counter medications are the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the European Medicines Agency (EMA).

The FDA regulates prescription drugs, over-the-counter medications, and biologics, while the EMA regulates medicines for human and veterinary use. These agencies ensure that drugs and medications are safe, effective, and accurately labeled. They also monitor drug recalls and work to prevent medication errors. In addition, they provide guidance to healthcare professionals and the general public on the use of medications and potential side effects.
The substance that is most likely to cause foodborne illness is intentional and unintentional additive.

Additives are used in food processing to enhance the flavor, texture, or appearance of food. Intentional additives are added intentionally, while unintentional additives can be introduced through contamination during food processing. Common intentional additives include preservatives, sweeteners, and artificial flavors, while common unintentional additives include bacteria, viruses, and toxins produced by microorganisms.

To prevent foodborne illness, it is important to follow proper food handling and storage procedures, and to thoroughly cook foods to kill any potential contaminants.

To know more about European Medicines Agency visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28040099

#SPJ11

A microbe that has the ability to grow in the presence of O2 or in the absence of O2, and uses O2 when it is available, is called a(n) ___________.
a.archaean
b.virus
c.gram negative bacterium
d.eukaryote
e.gram positive bacterium

Answers

A microbe that has the ability to grow in the presence of [tex]O_{2}[/tex] or in the absence of [tex]O_{2}[/tex], and uses [tex]O_{2}[/tex] when it is available, is called a facultative anaerobe.

The correct answer is not among the options you provided. The correct answer is an option that was not provided in your question. A microbe that has the ability to grow in the presence of [tex]O_{2}[/tex] or in the absence of [tex]O_{2}[/tex], and uses [tex]O_{2}[/tex] when it is available, is called a facultative anaerobe. A facultative anaerobe is an organism that can survive in an environment with or without oxygen. It grows well in oxygenated environments but can also survive without oxygen through fermentation or anaerobic respiration. It uses the oxygen that is present when it is available in respiration.

This is a type of metabolism in which oxygen is used to generate energy. Facultative anaerobes have the ability to shift between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism. They have a flexible metabolic system that enables them to grow and survive in diverse environments. They contain enzymes that are capable of switching between oxygen-dependent and oxygen-independent metabolic pathways. An example of a facultative anaerobe is Escherichia coli, a gram-negative bacterium. It is a common gut inhabitant in humans and animals and can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments. It can also ferment glucose in the absence of oxygen, producing lactic acid or ethanol.

learn more about microbe

https://brainly.com/question/30450246

#SPJ11

Macrophages and dendritic cells are: 1. T cells. 2. B cells. 3. antigen-presenting cells. 4. antibody-producing cells.

Answers

Correct option is 3. Macrophages and dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells. Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are immune cells that process and present antigens to T cells for activation.

APCs are critical in initiating and regulating immune responses.Macrophages are large immune cells that reside in tissues throughout the body, including the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and lungs. They are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest foreign particles, dead cells, and cellular debris.Dendritic cells are specialized immune cells that patrol the body looking for antigens.

They are located in tissues that are in contact with the external environment, such as the skin and mucosa, where they capture and process antigens from invading pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses.When an antigen is presented to a T cell by an APC, the T cell becomes activated and starts to divide. Activated T cells can then differentiate into effector cells that eliminate the antigen or into memory cells that remember the antigen for future encounters. Therefore, antigen presentation is a critical step in the development of adaptive immunity against pathogens.

To know more about Macrophages visit-

brainly.com/question/3179051

#SPJ11

should we exclude the use of peaticides in the future? (5
marks)

Answers

Pesticides are synthetic substances used to control pests that can harm or damage crops, humans, and other living creatures.

Some people believe that we should exclude the use of pesticides in the future. Others believe that pesticides are necessary to protect crops and ensure that enough food is produced to feed the world's population.Both views have some merit. Pesticides have helped farmers increase their yields by protecting crops from pests, diseases, and weeds. This has helped to feed a growing population.

However, pesticides also have some negative effects. They can harm wildlife, contaminate water sources, and even cause cancer in humans.Therefore, the use of pesticides should be reduced. The focus should be on developing new and safer pest control methods. This includes using biological controls, crop rotation, and other methods that are less harmful to the environment.

In addition, farmers can be educated on how to use pesticides more efficiently and safely. They can also be encouraged to use organic farming methods that do not rely on pesticides.Pesticides should not be excluded altogether because they have played an important role in increasing food production. However, their use should be minimized, and safer alternatives should be developed.

This will help to protect the environment and ensure that the food we eat is safe and healthy for everyone.

Learn more about pesticides

https://brainly.com/question/30295459

#SPJ11

7-
The three masters of the High Renaissance are Leonardo da Vinci, Raphael Sanzio and Michelangelo Buonarroti. True False

Answers

It is true that The three masters of the High Renaissance are Leonardo da Vinci, Raphael Sanzio and Michelangelo Buonarroti.

Although  numerous artists  fought for status and commissions during the High Renaissance, Leonardo da Vinci, Michelangelo, Raphael, and  mastermind Donato Bramante are  really the period's most notable legends who  illustrate the term" Renaissance" man in their proficiency and mastery of multiple subjects and interests.  During this period, a artistic movement toward Humanism arose, compelling artists to return to Classical Roman and Greek  doctrines concerning universal man and his place in the world. This was a departure from the medieval  period's idealized religious iconography and redounded in fresh  delineations of  godly subjects  invested with a  further  reverberative and  mortal emotionality and expression.

To know more about Leonardo da Vinci:

https://brainly.com/question/26946545

#SPJ4

Factors of nonspecific protection of the organism against microorganisms?

Answers

Nonspecific protection, also known as innate immunity, is the first line of defense against microorganisms in the body. It is characterized by immediate and generalized responses that are not specific to a particular pathogen.

Physical Barriers: The human body has various physical barriers that help prevent the entry of microorganisms. These include the skin, which acts as a physical barrier, and mucous membranes in the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary tracts that secrete mucus to trap and expel pathogens.

Chemical Barriers: Several chemical substances in the body possess antimicrobial properties and help defend against pathogens. Examples include enzymes found in tears, saliva, and respiratory secretions, such as lysozyme, which can destroy the cell walls of bacteria. Phagocytic Cells: Certain white blood cells, such as neutrophil ls and macrophages, are capable of engulfing and destroying microorganisms through a process called phagocytosis. Inflammation: Inflammation is a nonspecific immune response triggered by tissue damage or the presence of microorganisms. It helps localize and eliminate the pathogens, and it also attracts immune cells to the site of infection.

Interferons: Interferons are proteins produced by cells in response to viral infections. They interfere with viral replication and help prevent the spread of viruses to neighboring cells. Complement System: The complement system consists of a group of proteins in the blood that can be activated by the presence of microorganisms.

To learn more about innate immunity follow:

https://brainly.com/question/28902396

#SPJ11

(0)
#1 Mutations were mentioned only briefly in lecture. Read about it in your text in Chapter 10, and briefly explain the following kinds of mutations.
Base/Letter Substitution: ____ ____
Base/Letter Addition: ____ ____
Nucleotide/Codon Deletion: ____ ____
#2 Explain why a mutation of Base/Letter Substitution or Addition would have a larger effect on the resulting protein than a mutation of Nucleotide/Codon Deletion or Insertion. ____ ____
Nucleotide/Codon Insertion: ____ ____
Nucleotide/Codon Jumping: ____ ____

Answers

Base/Letter Substitution: A single nucleotide base is replaced by another base, resulting in a change in the corresponding amino acid during protein synthesis.

Base/Letter Addition: An extra nucleotide base is inserted into the DNA sequence, leading to a shift in the reading frame and a different sequence of amino acids in the resulting protein.

Nucleotide/Codon Deletion: One or more nucleotide bases are removed from the DNA mutation, causing a shift in the reading frame and a different amino acid sequence in the resulting protein.

Mutation Effect: Base/Letter Substitution or Addition mutations have a larger impact on the resulting protein because they alter the reading frame and can introduce a completely different sequence of amino acids. In contrast, Nucleotide/Codon Deletion or Insertion mutations can cause a frame shift but may not completely change the sequence of amino acids.

Base/Letter Substitution: In this type of mutation, a single nucleotide base is substituted with another base. The altered DNA sequence will code for a different amino acid during protein synthesis, potentially leading to a different protein structure and function. The effect of this mutation depends on the specific substitution and its impact on the resulting amino acid sequence.

Base/Letter Addition: This mutation involves the insertion of an extra nucleotide base into the DNA sequence. As a result, the reading frame shifts, and the subsequent codons are read differently during protein synthesis. This alteration in the reading frame can significantly change the amino acid sequence, potentially leading to a completely different protein structure and function.

Nucleotide/Codon Deletion: In this mutation, one or more nucleotide bases are deleted from the DNA sequence. This causes a shift in the reading frame, leading to a different grouping of codons during protein synthesis. As a result, the amino acid sequence is altered, which can affect the structure and function of the resulting protein.

Mutation Effect: Base/Letter Substitution or Addition mutations have a larger impact on the resulting protein because they can introduce significant changes in the amino acid sequence. These mutations can disrupt the reading frame and potentially produce a completely different protein sequence. In contrast, Nucleotide/Codon Deletion or Insertion mutations may cause a frame shift, but the impact on the resulting protein can vary depending on the specific sequence affected. The magnitude of the effect also depends on the position of the mutation within the gene and the functional importance of the affected region.

Learn more about DNA mutation here

https://brainly.com/question/29430287

#SPJ11

(Q008) Part iii. Choose one gracile australopith species and one robust australopith species, and list at least two traits that distinguish them. Also list at least two things they have in common. What do your answers suggest about their classification and relationship to each other?

Answers

The Gracile Australopith and the Robust Australopith are the two main types of australopiths, and they are both important for understanding the history of hominins.

These hominids had some common features, such as upright bipedalism, but they also had a few notable distinctions that set them apart. This response will outline the differences and similarities between the Gracile Australopith and the Robust Australopith, as well as what they suggest about their classification and connection to one another. Australopithecus afarensis and Australopithecus boisei are two of the most well-known members of these two australopith types. Gracile Australopiths are a group of early hominins that were characterised by their light, slender skulls and smaller, more pointed teeth. This group's primary representative is Australopithecus afarensis, which lived between 3.85 and 2.95 million years ago.

These hominids had more prominent canine teeth than later hominins but smaller molar teeth. Their skulls were more ape-like, with a low forehead and a sloping face. These hominids had an average height of about 1.2 m and walked upright on two feet, but their bones reveal that they still spent much of their time in trees. Robust Australopiths were a group of hominids that lived in East Africa between 2.6 million and 1.1 million years ago, and they were characterised by their powerful teeth, jaws, and chewing muscles. Australopithecus boisei, also known as "Nutcracker Man," is the group's most well-known member. This hominid had a wide skull with a flat, wide face and large molars and premolars, as well as no forehead. The jaws and teeth of this hominid were also notably powerful, and scientists believe it ate a plant-based diet that was difficult to chew.

The Gracile Australopith and the Robust Australopith have several similarities. Both lived in East Africa and exhibited bipedalism, which was a significant turning point in hominid evolution. Furthermore, both hominids had a brain size of 400 to 500 cc. This similarity indicates that these early hominids were not particularly bright and that human intelligence evolved later. The primary distinguishing feature between these two groups is their dental structure. Gracile australopiths had smaller, more pointed teeth, while Robust australopiths had more massive molars and premolars. In addition, robust australopiths had more pronounced and thicker skulls.

Learn more about australopiths here:

https://brainly.com/question/29733271

#SPJ11

G proteins A. bind GTP. B. dephosphrylate ITAMs. c. are transcription factors. D. downmodulate immune responses. E. are adhesion molecules.

Answers

G proteins bind GTP.

The correct answer to the question is option A.

The G protein hydrolyzes the bound GTP to GDP, inactivating itself and allowing the cycle to begin again.

Learn more about GTP:

https://brainly.com/question/14868565

#SPJ11

i. Summarize how ThrR$ recognizes tRNA thr and then accurately "translates" the genetic code using the double-sieve mechanism to aminoacylate tRNA thr with high fidelity

Answers

ThrR$ is an enzyme that recognizes tRNA^Thr, specific to the amino acid threonine, and accurately translates the genetic code using the double-sieve mechanism.

It first identifies unique nucleotide sequences and structural motifs in tRNA^Thr. The enzyme binds to the acceptor stem and recognizes the anticodon sequence within the anticodon loop. The double-sieve mechanism ensures high fidelity in threonine attachment. The first sieve filters amino acids based on size, accommodating only the threonine side chain.

The second sieve discriminates based on the shape of threonine, preventing structurally similar amino acids from attaching. Once recognized, ThrR$ catalyzes the attachment of threonine to tRNA^Thr, forming a threonyl-adenylate intermediate, which is then transferred to the tRNA  molecule. This process ensures accurate threonylation of tRNA^Thr, facilitating precise protein synthesis during translation.

Learn more about anticodon

https://brainly.com/question/16552442

#SPJ11

You are a researcher trying to produce bone growth in tissue culture as part of an experiment you are working on. You placed bones in the culture the metabolites the bone would need in order to grow. You then added growth hormone to the culture media, but the bone tissue did not grow. Which something you should add to the culture and why it would work to generate the bone growth you we lookirus for as a result of arom home culture You should add insulin-like growth factors to your culture media because mulle like gowth factoes stimulate bone tissues to mano adenocorticotrope hormone which an turn causes bone to produce growth hormone which then directly stimolates bone growth You should add some liver tissue to your culture. Growth Hormone Indirectly causes bone rowenty directly stimulating the liver to relate inulle like growth octors.lt the insulin-like growth factors whose release is stimulated by Browth hormonal that then bind to bone and stimulate it to go Growth hormone stimulates the growth of many things in the body both directly and indirectly but not hone. You should add prolactin to vou media if you desirebon growth in your culture Growth hormone does directly stimulate bone growth but only when the hormone somatostatin is also present. You should therefore also a somatostatin to your culture None of these answers are correct.

Answers

As a researcher trying to produce bone growth in tissue culture, if the bone tissue did not grow despite the placement of bones in the culture, the addition of insulin-like growth factors to the culture media will generate the bone growth. This answer would explain why it is necessary to add insulin-like growth factors in the culture media and how it would work to produce the desired result of bone growth in tissue culture in

:Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are the hormones that stimulate bone growth in tissue culture. They are naturally produced by bone tissues and liver cells and promote the differentiation and proliferation of osteoblasts and chondrocytes, which are the cells responsible for bone formation.

When IGFs are present in the culture media, they bind to their receptors on bone tissues and stimulate them to grow.IGFs release is stimulated by growth hormone, which indirectly causes bone growth by stimulating the liver to produce IGFs. However, IGFs can also be added to the culture media to directly stimulate bone growth without requiring the presence of growth hormone. Therefore, if bone tissue did not grow in the culture despite the addition of growth hormone, adding IGFs to the culture media will generate the bone growth needed.

To know more about bone visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32176125


#SPJ11

mRNA isolation strategies rely on the ____________
A. consistent shearing of RNA into small, even-sized fragments
B. separation of unbroken nuclei from cytoplasmic contents
C. hybridization of poly A tails to oligo dT beads
D. selective binding of ribosomal RNA and tRNA to silica matrix
Analysis of synteny is based on ______
A. the comparison of protein domains across paralogs
B. comparison of protein domains across orthologs
C. the relative position in the genome of orthologs
D. the relative contribution of gene splicing in creating isoform diversity

Answers

MRNA isolation strategies rely on the hybridization of poly A tails to oligo dT beads.

Analysis of synteny is based on the relative position in the genome of orthologs.

Poly A tails are present at the 3' end of mRNA molecules, and they can be specifically targeted using oligo dT beads, which have complementary sequences to the poly A tails. By binding to the poly A tails, mRNA molecules can be selectively isolated from the total RNA mixture, which may also contain other types of RNA such as ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA. This allows for the enrichment and isolation of mRNA for further analysis and study.

Synteny refers to the conservation of the relative order of genes or genetic loci between different organisms or within the genome of a single organism. By comparing the positions of orthologous genes, which are genes in different species that share a common ancestor, scientists can determine the degree of synteny and identify genomic regions that have been conserved over evolutionary time. This information can provide insights into gene function, evolutionary relationships, and the organization of genetic material within genomes.

To know more about MRNA isolation

brainly.com/question/31981713

#SPJ11

You examine sperm removed from the lumen of the epididymis. What
will you find?
a. Sperm undergoing meiotic cell divisions
b. Sperm undergoing mitotic cell divisions
c. Sperm in which cholesterol is b

Answers

Examining sperm removed from the lumen of the epididymis would reveal sperm in which cholesterol is present.

The epididymis is a coiled tube located in the male reproductive system, where sperm cells mature and acquire certain characteristics necessary for successful fertilization. One of these characteristics is the incorporation of cholesterol into the sperm membrane. Cholesterol plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and fluidity of the sperm cell membrane.

When examining sperm removed from the lumen of the epididymis, one would find sperm cells that have undergone maturation processes, including the incorporation of cholesterol into their membranes. This cholesterol helps to stabilize the structure of the sperm cell, ensuring that it maintains its viability and functional abilities during the journey through the female reproductive tract.

Therefore, the correct answer is c. Sperm in which cholesterol is present. The presence of cholesterol in the sperm membranes is a characteristic feature of mature sperm cells that have completed their development within the epididymis.

Learn more sperm:

https://brainly.com/question/6503970

#SPJ11

"4. Mainly, stress effect (2 Points) a.Circadian rhythm b.Emotion c,All d.Heart Rate
5. Which of the following is does not considered to be design principles in ergonomic (2 Points) a.Make it adjustable b.Custom fit each individual c.None d.Have several fixed sizes

Answers

Stress can have a significant impact on various aspects of human physiology and psychology, including circadian rhythm and emotions.

Stress has a broad range of effects on the human body and mind. One of the areas affected by stress is the circadian rhythm, which refers to the body's internal clock that regulates sleep-wake cycles and other physiological processes. Chronic stress can disrupt the circadian rhythm, leading to sleep disturbances, irregular energy levels, and difficulties in maintaining a consistent daily routine.

Emotions are also strongly influenced by stress. Stressful situations can trigger emotional responses such as anxiety, fear, anger, and sadness. Moreover, prolonged or intense stress can contribute to the development of mental health issues such as depression and anxiety disorders. Stress affects the production and regulation of various neurotransmitters and hormones in the brain, which in turn influence emotional states and overall well-being.

In terms of heart rate, stress can significantly impact cardiovascular function. When a person experiences stress, the body activates the "fight-or-flight" response, leading to an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. These physiological changes prepare the body to deal with perceived threats. However, chronic or excessive stress can place strain on the cardiovascular system and contribute to the development of heart disease and other cardiovascular disorders.

In conclusion, stress has a widespread impact on human physiology and psychology. It can disrupt circadian rhythms, trigger emotional responses, and affect heart rate and cardiovascular health. Managing stress through various strategies such as relaxation techniques, exercise, and seeking support can help mitigate these effects and promote overall well-being.

Learn more about human physiology:

https://brainly.com/question/4970523

#SPJ11

--> What proportion of the offspring resulting from the cross Aa Bb x aa bb is expected to be heterozygous for both gene pairs? Selected Answer: G a. 1/4 Answers: a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. All are heter

Answers

1/4 proportion of the offspring resulting from the cross is expected to be heterozygous for both gene pairs.

The cross Aa Bb x aa bb means that each parent has one dominant allele (A and B) and one recessive allele (a and b). So the possible gametes that the Aa Bb parent can produce are AB, Ab, aB, and ab, whereas the aa bb parent can only produce gametes containing a and b.The Punnett square of this cross would be:
A  a
B |AB|aB|
b |Ab|ab|
So, the possible genotypes of the offspring are: ABAbAbaaab. The proportion of offspring that are heterozygous for both gene pairs (AaBb) is 1/4 because only one of the four possible genotypes is AaBb (heterozygous for both genes).

learn more about heterozygous

https://brainly.com/question/30156782

#SPJ11

FACS analyses of metastatic cancers showed that, in a given tumor, a. the cells are heterogeneous in telomere length b. most cells have amplifications and/or deletions of genomic DNA c. most of the cells no longer have anaphase bridges. d. the cells are not all equally tumorigenic.

Answers

The correct statement among the given options is: a. the cells are heterogeneous in telomere length. FACS (Fluorescence-Activated Cell Sorting) analyses of metastatic cancers have shown that tumor cells can exhibit heterogeneity in various aspects. One of these aspects is telomere length.

Telomeres are protective structures at the ends of chromosomes that shorten with each cell division. In cancer cells, abnormalities in telomere maintenance can lead to heterogeneity in telomere length among different cells within a tumor. This heterogeneity can contribute to tumor progression and the development of more aggressive cancer phenotypes.

In cancer research, the analysis of tumor heterogeneity is a crucial aspect to understand the complex nature of tumors and develop effective treatment strategies. Here is some additional information about the other options:

b. Most cells have amplifications and/or deletions of genomic DNA: Genomic instability is a hallmark of cancer, and it often leads to amplifications (extra copies) or deletions (loss) of DNA segments in cancer cells. These genomic alterations can contribute to the development and progression of tumors by affecting critical genes involved in cell growth, survival, and other cellular processes.

c. Most of the cells no longer have anaphase bridges: Anaphase bridges are structural abnormalities observed during cell division, where DNA strands from different chromosomes remain connected. They are often associated with genomic instability and can be observed in certain types of cancer cells. However, this statement does not accurately reflect the FACS analyses of metastatic cancers.

d. The cells are not all equally tumorigenic: Tumorigenicity refers to the ability of cells to form tumors. In cancer, not all cells within a tumor possess the same tumorigenic potential. Some cells may have acquired genetic or epigenetic changes that enhance their ability to initiate and sustain tumor growth, while others may have reduced tumorigenicity. The presence of subpopulations with varying tumorigenic potential is an important consideration in cancer biology and treatment.

Understanding the heterogeneity of cancer cells at the molecular, genetic, and phenotypic levels is crucial for developing personalized and targeted therapies. It allows researchers and clinicians to identify key drivers of tumor growth, metastasis, and therapeutic resistance, ultimately leading to improved patient outcomes.

To know more about Telomeres

brainly.com/question/30669390

#SPJ11

A Lactobacillus strain is growing in milk. At 5 hours the cell concentration is 5 x 10 CFU/ml whereas at 10 hours the cell concentration is 4 x 108 CFU/ml. Assuming that the cells are growing exponentially during this period, calculate the maximum specific growth rate (max) (30 marks)

Answers

To calculate the maximum specific growth rate, we can use the following formula:

[tex]μmax = ln(N2/N1)/t2-t1[/tex]

where N1 is the cell concentration at time 1, N2 is the cell concentration at time 2, t1 is the time at time 1, and t2 is the time at time 2.

Using the given data, we can plug in the values:

[tex]μmax = ln(4 x 108/5 x 105)/(10-5)μ[/tex]

[tex]max = ln(8 x 103)/5μmax[/tex]

[tex]= 5.66 x 10-4 per hour or 0.566 per day[/tex]

the maximum specific growth rate is [tex]5.66 x 10-4[/tex] per hour or 0.566 per day.

Now, we can substitute these values into the equation:

[tex]μmax = 9.08 / 5 ≈ 1.82 CFU/ml/hour[/tex]

 the maximum specific growth rate (μmax) of the Lactobacillus strain is approximately [tex]1.82 CFU/ml/hour[/tex].

To know more about growth visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28789953

#SPJ11

Which statement(s) about bacterial ribosomes are correct? They have a sedimentation coefficient of 80S They are composed of RNA and protein They are found in the nucleus They have two subunits called

Answers

The statement that bacterial ribosomes are composed of RNA and protein is correct. Ribosomes are small, spherical, non-membranous organelles found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes that play a crucial role in protein synthesis by decoding the genetic code.

The statement that bacterial ribosomes are composed of RNA and protein is correct. Ribosomes are small, spherical, non-membranous organelles found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes that play a crucial role in protein synthesis by decoding the genetic code. The ribosomes found in bacteria are not identical to those found in eukaryotes, and they are composed of two subunits that have different sedimentation coefficients. There are two subunits, one large and one small, that are found in bacterial ribosomes. They have a sedimentation coefficient of 70S, with a small subunit of 30S and a large subunit of 50S. It's worth noting that S stands for Svedberg units, which are a measure of sedimentation rate and not size.

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and protein molecules make up bacterial ribosomes. The bacterial ribosomes are not found in the nucleus, unlike eukaryotic ribosomes that are. The RNA component of the ribosome is essential for its functionality, and it provides structural support for the protein components to function. In conclusion, the correct statement(s) about bacterial ribosomes are that they are composed of RNA and protein, have a sedimentation coefficient of 70S, and have two subunits called large and small subunits.

To know more about RNA visit:

https://brainly.com/question/4120168

#SPJ11

Which of the following is a property of intraepithelial lymphocytes?
O They include gamma-delta T cells
O They are not activated
O They are CD4+ T cells
O They express the integrin AeB7
O They express receptors with a broad range of specificities

Answers

The following is a property of intraepithelial lymphocytes is they include gamma-delta T cells. The correct answer is a.

Intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs) are a specialized population of lymphocytes found within the epithelial layer of various tissues, particularly the mucosal surfaces of the gastrointestinal tract. One of the distinguishing features of IELs is that they include gamma-delta T cells.

Gamma-delta T cells are a subset of T cells that possess a unique T-cell receptor (TCR) composed of gamma and delta chains. Unlike conventional alpha-beta T cells, which recognize peptide antigens presented by major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, gamma-delta T cells can recognize a wide range of antigens, including microbial products and stress-induced molecules, without the need for MHC presentation.

So, the property of intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs) being highlighted in the given options is that they include gamma-delta T cells.

Therefore, the correct answer is a.

Here you can learn more about intraepithelial lymphocytes

https://brainly.com/question/9399946#

#SPJ11  

with a doubling time of 30 minutes and a starting
population size of 1* 10 cells, how many cells will be present
after two hours, assuming no cell death?

Answers

After two hours, assuming no cell death, there will be approximately 16 million cells present.

The doubling time of 30 minutes means that the population size doubles every 30 minutes. To determine the number of cells after two hours (120 minutes), we need to calculate the number of doubling cycles that occur in that time.

Since each doubling cycle takes 30 minutes, there are 120/30 = 4 doubling cycles in two hours. With each doubling cycle, the population size doubles. Therefore, the final population size can be calculated by multiplying the starting population size by 2 raised to the power of the number of doubling cycles.

Starting with a population size of 1 × [tex]10^{6}[/tex] cells, after four doubling cycles, the final population size is:

Final population size = Starting population size × (2 ^ number of doubling cycles)

= 1 × [tex]10^{6}[/tex] × [tex](2^{4} )[/tex]

= 1 × [tex]10^{6}[/tex] × 16

= 16 × [tex]10^{6}[/tex]

= 16,000,000 cells

Therefore, after two hours, assuming no cell death, there will be approximately 16 million cells present.

Learn more about cells here:

https://brainly.com/question/19853211

#SPJ11

The E. coli chromosome has just one origin of replication, yet
that single 245 bp site initiates two replication forks. How can
this be? Explain in a few sentences.

Answers

The E. coli chromosome has a single origin of replication which initiates two replication forks. This happens due to the formation of bidirectional replication from the origin site.

The E. coli chromosome has a single origin of replication. The single origin of replication is located on the circular E. coli chromosome at a position referred to as oriC. The E. coli chromosome has 4.6 million base pairs and a single oriC site that initiates the initiation of replication. Two replication forks are generated by the oriC site and each fork then proceeds in the direction of the replication. The two replication forks are produced from the site by the formation of bidirectional replication. This means that the replication forks proceed in opposite directions from the origin, with each fork replicating a single strand of the parental DNA. The bidirectional replication proceeds until the two replication forks meet on the opposite side of the E. coli chromosome from the origin.

The E. coli chromosome has a single origin of replication but initiates two replication forks. The two replication forks are produced from the site by the formation of bidirectional replication.

To know more about wavelength visit:

brainly.com/question/28586309

#SPJ11

Why is population level genetic variation important for evolution and what causes genetic variation ? How do we detect if evolution is occurring ? For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac).

Answers

Population-level genetic variation is crucial for evolution because it provides the raw material upon which natural selection acts.

Genetic variation refers to the diversity of genetic traits within a population, including differences in alleles, genes, and genotypes. This variation allows populations to adapt to changing environments over time.

Genetic variation arises through various mechanisms. One major source is mutation, which introduces new genetic variations by altering the DNA sequence. Other sources include genetic recombination during sexual reproduction, gene flow (the movement of genes between populations), and genetic drift (random changes in allele frequencies).

Detecting if evolution is occurring involves examining changes in the genetic composition of a population over time. This can be done through several methods:

Analysis of allele frequencies: By studying the frequencies of specific alleles within a population, researchers can determine if there are changes over generations. Changes in allele frequencies may indicate that evolution is taking place.Genetic diversity: Monitoring changes in the overall genetic diversity of a population can provide insights into evolutionary processes. A decrease in genetic diversity could suggest selective pressures leading to the loss of certain alleles or increased genetic homogeneity.Comparative studies: Comparing genetic data from different populations or across generations can reveal patterns of genetic change and help identify evolutionary processes.Molecular techniques: Molecular markers such as DNA sequencing, genotyping, and gene expression analysis can be used to study genetic variation and detect changes indicative of evolutionary processes.

Learn more about natural selection acts.

https://brainly.com/question/29545526

#SPJ11

1. Explain how a change in transcription factor regulation can cause a homeotic mutation. 2. Describe a potential future selective pressure that will alter the evolutionary fate of Homo sapiens.

Answers

A change in transcription factor regulation can cause a homeotic mutation by disrupting the normal expression pattern of genes involved in body patterning and development. One potential future selective pressure that could alter the evolutionary fate of Homo sapiens is the emergence of new diseases or pandemics.

Homeotic mutations are genetic alterations that result in the transformation of one body part into another. They are often caused by changes in the regulation of transcription factors, which are proteins that control the expression of genes during development.

Transcription factors bind to specific DNA sequences and activate or repress the transcription of target genes.

In a normal developmental process, specific transcription factors are responsible for regulating the expression of genes that determine the identity and fate of different body segments.

However, a change in transcription factor regulation can lead to the misexpression of these genes, causing a body part to develop in an incorrect location or assume the characteristics of another body part.

For example, if a transcription factor that normally regulates the development of a specific body segment is misregulated or absent, it can result in the transformation of that segment into a different segment, leading to a homeotic mutation.

Understanding the intricate regulation of transcription factors and their role in controlling gene expression is crucial for comprehending the mechanisms underlying homeotic mutations.

One potential future selective pressure that could alter the evolutionary fate of Homo sapiens is the emergence of new diseases or pandemics.

Throughout human history, diseases have played a significant role in shaping the course of evolution.

The emergence of new diseases or pandemics can exert selective pressures on populations, favoring individuals with genetic variations that provide resistance or increased immunity against the specific pathogens.

In recent times, we have witnessed the impact of diseases like HIV, SARS, and COVID-19 on human populations. These outbreaks have led to changes in behavior, healthcare practices, and advancements in medical research.

Over time, these selective pressures can result in the evolution of populations with enhanced immune responses, improved genetic defenses, or changes in susceptibility to certain diseases.

Furthermore, the global interconnectedness and increased mobility of populations create opportunities for the rapid spread of infectious diseases. As pathogens evolve, human populations will continually face new challenges, potentially driving evolutionary adaptations in response to these selective pressures.

It is important to note that the future selective pressures on Homo sapiens are unpredictable, and multiple factors, including environmental changes and social dynamics, can also influence the evolutionary trajectory of our species.

To know more about transcription factor regulation, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/12700084#

#SPJ11

Other Questions
A researcher is designing a study where she will compare two group means. From previous research she estimates that her effect size will be medium. How many participants should she include, total, i.e., in both groups, to make sure she has appropriate statistical power for this study? (Answer should be a number.) Annealing refers to a rapid temperature change in the steel to add ductility to the material.1. True2. FalseTool steels by definition are easy to machine.1. True2. FalseThe "stainless" in stainless steels comes from carbon.1. True2. FalseVitrification refers to bonding powders together with glasses.1. True2. FalseGlass is actually in a fluid state (not solid) at ambient temperature.1. True2. False Art and Influence1:The 1p9th century introduces us to the beginnings of modern art. some artists sought to represent real landscape and figures, whereas others more abstract. We see Symbolism, Naturalism, Impressionism, and Realism all within a few decades!2: I choose Symbolism and Impressionism and describe in your own words what it sought to express. please provide one work of art ( any genre, from literature to music) from your chosen movement and explain how it is representative of that movement.3: Finally, please comment on Realism. This is a chance to take an art cruise together there is suposed to be a fourth answer? what is itv. The intestinal enzymes (choose the correct ones) a. Are secreted into the lumen b. Are embedded on the luminal membrane c. Digest within luminal cells not in the lumen d. Digest carbohydrates e. Di Find the maximum or minimum value of f(x) = 2x + 16x - 2 The Select an answer is Question 3 (Module 11) 9 marks a. If a parent knows that they are a carrier for a BRCA1 mutation, which ethical principle is the primary reason that we prevent them from getting their small child tested? Why? b. A genetic test is developed, allowing dramatically better outcomes in pancreatic cancer. The company who developed the test decides to charge $15,000 per test, which is not covered by Medicare. Briefly explain which ethical principle is raised in this situation and why there is a problem. c. Genetic testing is available that reliably predicts Huntingtons' disease. No treatment or prevention is available for those that test positive. Briefly explain which ethical principle could be used to argue against using this test.My guess is:a) BRCA1 is a causative gene for the development of breast cancer. Pediatric genetic testing has been a matter of ethical concern because of the protection of the rights of the children that may get abused by non-other than their parents due to the lack of awareness. Autonomy is the ethical principle that gives the right to the person only to decide what they can do with their body. Also, non-maleficence is the ethical principle that prevents the parents and any other healthcare individual to do any harm to the patient. The parent may not be aware of treatments related to the concerned disease. The genetic test may not be as reliable to determine whether the BRCA1 gene is present in both alleles but is repressed due to some other factors in the child. Identification of different disease genes in the child's DNA or genes that are completely unknown may scare the parents.b) The ethical concern regarding the cost issue of a test is against the company that is withholding the right to treatment for a difficult disease from the ill-fated. In this way, only the rich will survive while the poor perish. Thus, it can be debated that healthcare should be available to all. This falls under the "Justice" ethics principle - not only everyone should get equal help but also, the neediest get the right to be treated first.c) A disease that is incurable hitherto, may cause the decision-makers to do harm to the patient. The ethics principle of beneficence may come into play and prevent the test taker to take the test in the first place, so that the test taker or patient may be safe from any social harm. It is done in the best interest of the patient. (i) Explain in one or two sentences why the opacity of the Sun's atmosphere increases sharply at the wavelength of the first Balmer transition, Ha. (ii) Consider two photons emerging from the photosph 1. We sleep because we need to hide ourselves away from danger. A) True B) False 2. During sexual activity more dopamine is released in the brain. A) True B) False Water at 20C flows with a velocity of 2.10 m/s through a horizontal 1-mm diameter tube to which are attached two pressure taps a distance 1-m apart. What is the maximum pressure drop allowed if the flow is to be laminar? Calculate the urine output for this continuous bladder irrigation Starting credit: 2000mL Bags of sterile water (irrigation solution) added: 3000mL, 3000mL, 3000mL Ending Balance: 2000mL Drainage emptied throughout the shift 1000mL, 2000mL, 3500mL, 800mL, 2000mLUrine output = .........................mL sandy would like to follow a single group of people as they grow up in her research. what type of study is sandy using? (cross-sectional, longitudinal, cross-sequential) The kidney combines carbon dioxide and water to create bicarbonate ions that are released into the blood, and hydrogen ions combine with either phosphate ions or ammonia and are excreted with the filtrate from the... O medulla O nephron O blood vessel O bladder 7. Two blocks (m = 1.0kg and M = 10 kg) and a spring (k = 200) are arranged on a horizontal, frictionless surface as shown in Fig. 4.6. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0.40. What is the maximum possible amplitude of simple harmonic motion of the spring-block system if no slippage is to occur between the blocks? [HRW5 16-25]Previous question A drive for a punch press requires 40 hp with the pinion speed of 800 rpm and the gear speed of 200 rpm. Diametral pitch is 4, the steel pinion has 24 teeth and the steel gear has 95 teeth. Gear teeth are 20, full-depth, involute shape. Calculating the required allowable bending and contact stresses for each gear. Also, select the suitable steel for the pinion and gear and specify it. Use the following parameters and calculate the ones which are not given!Km = 1.22Ks = 1.05 Ko= 1.75KB = 1.00Av = 10SF = 1.25KR = 1.25F = 3.00 inNcp=1.35 10 cycles NCG-3.41 10 cycles A horse breeder has identified that some of their horses produce much more muscle than the others. The heavily muscled horses are all related, leading to the breeder believing the cause is genetic. Suggest an investigation to identify the gene responsible for the phenotype, assuming there is a single gene involved. Take into account both practical and ethical aspects when suggesting an experimental approach. A ball weighing 45 kilograms is suspended on a rope from theceiling of a rocket bus. The bus is suddenly accelerating at4000m/s/s. The rope is 3 feet long. After how long is the rope 37degrees from RNA is typically synthesized in a _ ? direction while it is read in a ? direction. (0.25 pt.) A) 5' to 3'; 5' to 3 B) 5' to 3'; 3' to 5 C) 3' to 5; 5' to 3 D) 3' to 5'; 3' to 5 Examine the response of linear-time invariant (LTI) systems using Fourier, Laplace, and z transforms in MATLAB (C4) For the given difference equations, perform the following tasks using MATLAB: Find the transfer function H(z) in zq format Plot poles and zeros in zplane. Comment on stability of the system Plot impulse response of the system Depending upon the stability, plot the frequency response 1.001y[n-2]+y[n] = -x[n 1] + x[n] Note: Adjust your axis so that plots are clearly visible Which of the following is NOT correct about de novo synthesis of purine biosynthesis? Conversion of IMP to AMP and GMP are ATP dependent reaction. Purine ring is built onto the ribose-5-phosphate by glutamine, glycine, tetrahydrofolate and glutamine. PRPP is synthesized from ribose-5-phosphate by ribose phosphate Precursors for AMP or GMP is IMP. What is the relationship between swelling in a patients ankles andtheir circulation