Answer:
the amount of loss is $19,000
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of the gain or loss is shown below:
Old equipment cost is
= Initial cost of the equipment - accumulated depreciation
= $215,000 - $185,000
= $30,000
Now the gain or loss is
= Book value of an equipment - trade in allowance
= $30,000 - $11,000
= $19,000
hence, the amount of loss is $19,000
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come
And, the same is to be considered
Orlando Company, which applies overhead to production on the basis of machine hours, reported the following data for the period just ended: Actual units produced: 12,000 Actual variable overhead incurred: $77,700 Actual machine hours worked: 18,800 Standard variable overhead cost per machine hour: $4.50 If Orlando estimates 1.5 hours to manufacture a completed unit, the company's variable-overhead spending variance is:
Answer:
$37,600 favorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance can be computed as;
= (Actual hours worked × Actual variable overhead rate) - ( Actual hours worked - Standard variable overhead rate)
= ( 18,800 hours × $77,700/12,000) - (18,800 hours × $4.5)
= [(18,800 × $6.5) - (18,800 × $4.5)]
= $122,200 - $84,600
= $37,600 favorable
Grey, Inc., uses a predetermined rate to apply overhead. At the beginning of the year, Grey budgeted its overhead costs at $220,000, direct labor hours at 55,000, and machine hours at 20,000. Actual overhead costs incurred were $233,250, actual direct labor hours were 62,000, and actual machine hours were 15,000. If the PDOH rate uses machine hours as the cost driver, what is the total amount credited to the overhead account control account
Answer:
$165,000
Explanation:
Calculation for what is the total amount credited to the manufacturing overhead account for the year for Grey
First step is to calculate Predetermined overhead rate using this formula
Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated overhead costs / Estimated machine hours
Let plug in the formula
Predetermined overhead rate = $220,000 / 20,000 machine hours
Predetermined overhead rate= $11
Second step is to calculate Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey
Using this formula
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual machine hours
Let plug in the formula
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey= $11 × 15,000 machine hours
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey = $165,000
Therefore the Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey will be $165,000
Dragon makes all sales on account, subject to the following collection pattern: 30% are collected in the month of sale; 60% are collected in the first month after sale; and 10% are collected in the second month after sale. If sales for June, July, and August were $120,000, $160,000, and $220,000, respectively, what were the firm's budgeted collections for August and the company's budgeted receivables balance on August 31?
Answer: $174000
Explanation:
The firm's budgeted collections for August and the company's budgeted receivables balance on August 31 would be calculated as:
= (30% × $220,000) + (60% × $160,000) + (10% × $120,000)
= (0.3 × $220,000) + (0.6 × $160,000) + (0.1 × $120,000)
= $66000 + $96000 + $12000
= $174000
12.Sunnydale Organics, Inc. harvests crops in roughly 90-day cycles based on a 360-day year. The firm receives payment from its harvests sometime after shipment. Due in part to the firm's rapid growth, it has been borrowing to finance its harvests using 90-day bank notes on which the firm pays 12 percent discount interest. If the firm requires $60,000 in proceeds from each note, what must be the face value of each note
Answer: $61857
Explanation:
Let the face value of each note be represented by y.
We should also note that we are given a time period of 90 days = 3 months.
Discount interest = 12%. This will be 3% for every 3 months.
Face value of each nite will then be:
y = 60000/(100%-3%)
y = 60000 / 97%
y = 60000/0.97
y = 61,856.67
Consider an asset with a beta of 1.2, a risk-free rate of 4.4%, and a market return of 12.4%. What is the reward to risk ratio?
Answer: 8%
Explanation:
Reward to risk ratio = (Expected return - Risk free rate) / Beta
Expected return = Risk free rate + Beta * ( Market return - Risk free rate)
= 4.4% + 1.2 * (12.4% - 4.4%)
= 14%
Reward to risk ratio = (14% - 4.4%) / 1.2
= 8%
Accounts Receivable account has a beginning balance of $52,000 and an ending balance of $69,000. If $47,000 was sold on account during the year, what were the total collections on account
Answer:
$30,000
Explanation:
Total collections on account is computed as;
= Accounts receivable at the beginning + Sales during the year - Accounts receivable at the end
Given that;
Accounts receivable at the beginning = $52,000
Sales during the year = $47,000
Accounts receivable at the end = $69,000
Therefore,
Total collections on account
= [($52,000 + $47,000) - $69,000]
= $30,000
A liquidity ratio measures the :___________.
A) income or operating success of an enterprise over a period of time
B) ability of the enterprise to survive over a long period of time.
C) short-term ability of the enterprise to pay its maturing obligations and to meet unexpected needs for cash.
D) number of times interest is earned.
Answer:
C. Short term ability of the enterprise to pay its maturing obligations and to meet unexpected needs for cash
Explanation:
Oftentimes enterprise need cash to meet its daily financially need or business obligations. The ability to meet such daily or short term need is called liquidity ratio.
The primary purpose why enterprises are in business is to make profit, however, its daily operations must continue which will be financed with cash. Liquidity ratio shows that an enterprise is financially buoyant to meet its unexpected needs for cash and also to pay its occurring business obligation.
Jessica retired at age 65. On the date of her retirement, the balance in her traditional IRA was $218,000. Over the years, Jessica had made $21,800 of nondeductible contributions and $69,000 of deductible contributions to the account. If Jessica receives a $68,000 distribution from the IRA on the date of retirement, what amount of the distribution is taxable?
and its not 51000
Answer:
The amount of the distribution that is taxable is $61,200.
Explanation:
The following are given in the question:
Balance in IRA = $218,000
Nondeductible contributions = $21,800
Amount of distribution received = $68,000
Therefore, we have:
Nondeductible portion = Nondeductible contributions / Balance in IRA = $21,800 / $218,000 = 0.10
Taxable portion = 1 - Nondeductible portion = 1 - 0.10 = 0.90
Taxable amount = Taxable portion * Amount of distribution received = 0.90 * $68,000 = $61,200
Therefore, the amount of the distribution that is taxable is $61,200.
A portfolio has 225 shares of Stock C that sells for $42 and 190 shares of Stock D that sells for $33. What is Stock C's weight?
Answer:
60.11%
Explanation:
Weight of stock C = Value of stock C / total value of portfolio
225 x $42 / (225 x $42) + (190 x $33) = $9450 /15720 = 60.11%
Sandra goes into her favorite shoe store where they are holding a special sales promotion. The salesperson explains to Sandra that if she purchases one pair of shoes, she would receive a free pair of socks. Which type of sales
promotion is this?
NEED ASAPPP ITS AN EXAM..
Answer:
Premium
Explanation:
A premium type of sales promotion is this. Thus, option B is correct.
Who is a salesperson?
The salesman is in charge of welcoming clients, guiding them toward the merchandise they need, and counting up transactions. You need to be a great communicator if you want to succeed in sales. A successful salesman achieves sales goals while being courteous and helpful to consumers.
The salesman is in charge of welcoming clients, guiding them toward the merchandise they need, and counting up transactions. You need to be a great communicator if you want to succeed in sales. A successful salesman achieves sales goals while being courteous and helpful to consumers.
With the confirmation of purchase, you can receive a reward for nothing or for minimal shipping as well as a handling fee. Therefore, option B is the correct option.
Learn more about salesperson, here:
https://brainly.com/question/1175840
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Net capital outflow measures the imbalance between the amount of a. foreign assets held by domestic residents and domestic assets held by foreign residents. b. foreign assets bought by domestic residents and the amount of domestic assets bought by foreigners. c. foreign assets bought by domestic residents and the amount of domestic goods and services sold to foreigners. d. None of the above is correct
Answer:
b) the imbalance between the amount of foreign assets bought by domestic residents and the amount of domestic assets bought by foreigners.
Explanation:
Net capital outflow can be regarded as net flow of invested funds in country abroad by a home country during a particular period of time. It should be noted that the Net capital outflow measures the imbalance between the amount of the imbalance between the amount of foreign assets bought by domestic residents and the amount of domestic assets bought by foreigners.
During the 1970s, some economists argued that the cause of the woes of the economy were due to __________. g
Explanation:
Stagflation. Which is stagnant growth combined with inflation. Which was caused in large part by repeated disruptions to global oil supplies, which led to soaring prices and gasoline shortages in the United States.
About the Lagrangian method, select the correct statement: We can use it to solve consumer's utility maximization problems, but not firm's cost minimization problems. We can use it to solve both consumer's utility maximization and firm's cost minimization problems. We can use it to solve firm's cost minimization problems, but not consumer's utility maximization problems. We cannot use it to solve any kind of optimization problem.
Answer:
About the Lagrangian method,
We can use it to solve both consumer's utility maximization and firm's cost minimization problems.
Explanation:
Lagrangian method is a mathematical strategy for finding the maxima and the minima of a function subject to equality constraints. Equality constraints mean that one or more equations have to be satisfied exactly by the chosen values of the variables. Named after the mathematician, Joseph-Louis Lagrange, the basic idea behind the Lagrangian method is to convert a constrained problem into a Lagrangian function.
Beacon Industries,Inc. thinking about having one of its products manufactured by a subcontractor.Currently , the cost of manufacturing 1,000 units follows :
Direct material $45,000
Direct labor 30,000
Factory overhead (30 % is variable ) 98,000
If Beacon can buy 1,000 units from a subcontractor for $ 100,000 , it should:_______
Answer:
It is cheaper to buy the product.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Production:
Direct material $45,000
Direct labor 30,000
Factory overhead (30 % is variable ) 98,000
Buy:
Total cost= $100,000
I will assume that none of the fixed overhead avoidable. Therefore, we will take into account only the variable overhead.
Total variable production cost= 45,000 + 30,000 + (98,000*0.3)
Total variable production cost= $104,400
It is cheaper to buy the product.
In ________, salespeople are independent contractors who not only sell the product, but also recruit additional salespeople.
Answer:
Multi-level marketing.
Explanation:
A business organization that is run with multi-level marketing strategy typically has 3 sources of income:
- The amount of money that each person have to pay in order to gain the membership status.
- The amount of money that memberships owners have to pay to be a distributor of their product
- The amount of money that they get from the sales of their product.
Most multi-level marketing companies will provide their members with some sort of 'Reward' if they managed to convert other people into purchasing memberships to organization. So, the more their members convert other people, the more wealthy that members will be. This will create a hierarchy like within an organization where the members who bring the most memberships place at the top of the hierarchy.
Susan won $2,000 at the blackjack tables on her birthday. Her winnings are an example of:________.
a. an in-kind transfer.
b. transitory income.
c. life-cycle income.
d. permanent income.
Answer:
B. Transitory income.
Explanation:
As the name sounds, it is seen to be a form of income that is said to be anticipated. This form of income does not play key roles in the standard of living of the said person. This income is clearly a short-lived kind as it cannot hold a person or family towards a certified period of time. Also in many cases, economists are seen to believe that people base their consumption on their permanent income, therefore, inequality in consumption is one gauge of inequality of permanent income; making consumption less effectective, as transitory changes in income, they are more equally is current income.
The Treasury bill rate is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. According to the capital asset pricing model:________
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
Your question is not complete. Here is the completed question:
The Treasury bill rate is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. According to the capital asset pricing model, what is the risk premium?
The risk premium will be the difference between the market portfolio and the treasury bill rate. This will be:
= 10% - 6%
= 4%
A firm has a tax burden of 0.6, a leverage ratio of 1.2, an interest burden of 0.7, and a return-on-sales ratio of 14%. The firm generates $2.64 in sales per dollar of assets. What is the firm's ROE
Answer:
18.63%
Explanation:
Calculation for the firm's ROE
Using this formula for
ROE=(Tax burden)(Leverage ratio)(Interest burden)(Return-on-sales ratio)(Sales per dollar of assets)
Let plug in the formula
ROE = (.6)(1.2)(.7)(.14)(2.64)
ROE=18.63%
Therefore the firm's ROE is 18.63%
Short Company purchased land by paying $22,000 cash on the purchase date and agreed to pay $22,000 for each of the next seven years beginning one-year from the purchase date. Short's incremental borrowing rate is 10%. On the balance sheet as of the purchase date, after the initial $22,000 payment was made, the liability reported is closest to: (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, and PVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)
Answer:
The liability reported is closest to $107,105.21.
Explanation:
This can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:
PV = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)
Where;
PV = Present value or the the liability reported =?
P = Annuity payment = $22,000
r = Student's desired return rate = 10%, or 0.10
n = number of years = 7
Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:
PV = $22,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10))^7) / 0.10)
PV = $22,000 * 4.86841881769293
PV = $107,105.21
Therefore, the liability reported is closest to $107,105.21.
Wayfarer Company has no debt, and a value of $70.000 million. Adventures Incorporated is otherwise identical but has $28.000 million of debt in its capital structure. Under the different models, what is the value of Adventures Incorporated if its corporate tax rate is 25%, the personal tax rate on equity is 10%, and the personal tax rate on debt is 26%?
Answer:
Following are the solution to this question:
Explanation:
Please find the complete question in the attachment.
In point 1:
The answer is =70.000
In point 2:
[tex]=70.000+28.000 \times 25\%\\\\=70.000+28.000 \times \frac{25}{100}\\\\=70.000+28.000 \times \frac{1}{4}\\\\=70.000+ 7 \\\\=77.000\\\\=77[/tex]
In point 3:
[tex]=70.000+(1-(1-25 \%) \times \frac{(1-10\%)}{(1-26\%)) \times 28.000}\\\\=70.000+(1-(1- \frac{25}{100}) \times \frac{(1- \frac{10}{100})}{(1-\frac{26}{100})) \times 28.000}\\\\=70.000+(1-1+ \frac{1}{4}) \times \frac{(\frac{ 10-1}{10})}{( \frac{100-26}{100})) \times 28.000}\\\\=70.000+(\frac{1}{4}) \times \frac{(\frac{9}{10})}{(\frac{74}{100})) \times 28.000}\\\\=70.000+(\frac{1}{4}) \times \frac{0.9}{20.72}\\\\=70.000+ \frac{0.9}{82.88}\\\\=70.000+0.01058\\\\=70.01058\\\\[/tex]