ok y’all help ʜᴇʟᴘᴘᴘᴘᴘ ndjd d dndkdjdjdkdnfn dkcn

Step-by-step explanation:

We use tangent because it uses opposite over adjacent.

So,

tan 33 = x/46

or

46 * tan 33 = x

Type this into the calculator and you get around 29.87

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

we can find x/y by multiply 3a/b * 3a/b

x/y = 9a^2/b^2

Answer: One

Step-by-step explanation: Recall that intersecting lines have one solution and therefore the system is consistent. Because the lines are not the same, the equations are independent.

Answer:

c) 10

Step-by-step explanation:

you need to add the white and red marbles which would be 14.

then you subtract 14 by the amount of blue marbles.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

According to Math.way C would be the correct answer :)

Answer:

0.6808 = 68.08% probability that it will rain on at least 3 of the next 5 days.

0.9898 = 98.98% probability it will rain on at least 1 of the next 5 days.

0.84 = 84% probability it will rain on at least 1 of the next 2 days.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each day, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it rains, or it does not. The probability of raining on a day is independent of any other day. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

There is a 60% probability of rain each of the next 5 days.

This means that [tex]p = 0.6, n = 5[/tex]

Probability it will rain on at least 3 of the next 5 days:

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{5,0}.(0.6)^{0}.(0.4)^{5} = 0.0102[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{5,1}.(0.6)^{1}.(0.4)^{4} = 0.0768[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{5,2}.(0.6)^{2}.(0.4)^{3} = 0.2304[/tex]

So

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0120 + 0.0768 + 0.2304 = 0.3192[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3) = 1 - 0.3192 = 0.6808[/tex]

0.6808 = 68.08% probability that it will rain on at least 3 of the next 5 days.

Probability it will rain on at least 1 of the next 5 days:

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

From the above item, we have that [tex]P(X = 0) = 0.0102[/tex]. So

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.0102 = 0.9898[/tex]

0.9898 = 98.98% probability it will rain on at least 1 of the next 5 days.

Probability it will rain on at least 1 of the next 2 days:

Two days means that [tex]n = 2[/tex].

The probability is:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{2,0}.(0.6)^{0}.(0.4)^{2} = 0.16[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.16 = 0.84[/tex]

0.84 = 84% probability it will rain on at least 1 of the next 2 days.

Answer:

I don't know I'm sorry.............

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  15

Step-by-step explanation:

Your calculator can tell you √230 ≈ 15.17. The closest integer is 15.

__

If you have memorized the squares of small integers, you know that 15² = 225 and 16² = 256. 230 is closer to 225 than to 256, so √230 will be closer to 15.

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

(20 + 1 + 14 + 14 + 9 + 8) / 6

= 66 / 6

= 11

Answer:

what angles

Step-by-step explanation:

i do not see anything to solve

Answer:

$415.63

Step-by-step explanation:

it would have been 393.75, but he worked 5 hours overtime and got paid time and a half for it, meaning his normal pay plus half of it. (only for overtime tho).

so first calculate his normal pay:

40 × 8.75 = 350

then add overtime to it

8.75 × 5 = 43.75

43.75 × 1.5 = 65.625

65.625 + 350 = 415.625

round that and its 415.63!

Answer: 0.45 < 0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The second answer choice

Step-by-step explanation:

The pyramid shown is a triangular pyramid. A triangular pyramid consist of 4 faces; 1 triangular base and 3 triangular lateral faces.

Hence, the correct answer would be the second choice.

Answer: 24 in.²

Step-by-step explanation: Since the base of the triangle has a length of 8 inches and the height of the triangle has a length of 6 inches, the area of the triangle is 1/2(8)(6) or 1/2(48) which is 24.

So the area of this triangle is 24 in².

Answer:

24 in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug known values into the equation for triangle area: [tex]A=\frac{bh}{2}[/tex] and solve.

Another way to think of this is to multiply the base value and height value together (which is how you get area of a rectangle) and divide by two because triangles are essentially rectangles cut in half.

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

So, the little arow underneath lim that says x>1, this means that the qiuestion is asking:

What is the limit when x gets to 1?

We can use the quadratic they give us to solve this. Now, if you are doing this, you should know how to make a quadratic equation. So instead of making this long and tedious for you, I will use a graphing calculator.

So lets look at the graph below, specificly where x=1

as x reaches 1, what does the y coordinates look to be about? 3.

So we can conclude that the answer is that when x→1, y=3

I hope this helps!

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  no

Step-by-step explanation:

Put 2 where x is and see if you get a true statement.

  1/2(2) -4 = 5

  1 -4 = 5

  -3 = 5 . . . . . . False

2 is not a solution to the equation.

__

The solution is x=18.

Answer:9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think it's either A or D

Answer:

HOPE THIS HELPSS!!!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

So the exact value of the area is A=100π A = 100 π square inches. To approximate the area, we would substitute π≈3.

Answer:

C. 6

Step-by-step explanation:

ΔADC and ΔACB are similar because two of their angles are congruent (∠ACD and ∠ABC, and ∠DAC and ∠CAB)

Because the sides are similar, you can create a proportion

[tex]\frac{AC}{AD}=\frac{AB}{AC}[/tex]

substitute the given values for the sides. AD=4 and AB=4+5=9

[tex]\frac{AC}{4}=\frac{9}{AC}[/tex]

cross multiply

[tex]AC^{2} =36[/tex]

take the square root of both sides

AC=6

Answer:

$10.50

Step-by-step explanation:

$39.90 ÷ 3.8 pounds

= 10.50263157894735

after rounding, your answer must be 10.50

hope this helps.

Answer:

The answer is all real numbers is smaller than 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (a)  a squared + 15 squared = 17 squared

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pythagorean theorem tells you the sum of the squares of the sides is equal to the square of the hypotenuse.

  a^2 + 15^2 = 17^2 . . . . . . matches the first choice

Answer:

We know that

Base² + Length ² = Hypotenuse²

(a)² + (15)² = 17²

So,

Option A is correct

If we solve it

(a)² + 225 = 289

(a)² = 289 - 225

(a)² = 64

a = √{64}

a = 8

[tex] \\ [/tex]

Answer:

The anwser is number 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3.03 (if you're rounding to nearest hundredth, 3 if nearest whole/tenth.

Answer: 13/24

Step-by-step explanation:

The experiment occurred 24 times orange or lime was selected 10+3=13

Probability the next chew will be orange or lime: 13/24

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

3075 ÷ 15 = 205

3000 ÷ 15 = 200

75 ÷ 15 = 5

200 + 5 = 205

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