Answer: C. Very Effective
Explanation:
which statement about deuterostomes is false? group of answer choices three distinct layers of tissue are present during development. if a coelom is present, it formed within the embryonic mesoderm. its early embryonic cleavage pattern is radial. it is diploblastic. gastrulation occurs during development.
It is diploblastic. This is the false statement about deuterostomes.
Protostomes and the Deuterostomes both are triploblastic and not diploblastic. Deuterostomes coelom forms through a process known as enterocoely, the mesoderm develops as pouches that are pinched off from the endoderm tissue. This pouches fuse to form the mesoderm, which gives rise to the coelom. Its early embryonic cleavage pattern is radial and gastrulation occurs during development. During development the deuterostomes's mouth develops from an opening into the embryonic gut other than the blastopore, and develops into the anus.
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Do we need to be concerned with the wave nature of the blood cells when we describe the flow of blood in the body?.
Blood is evacuated when the heart beats, creating a pulse wave that moves through the circulatory system. This wave's measurement, which we refer to as the blood pulse wave (BPw), describes both the wave's form and rhythm.
Why does the blood flow differ?Circulation problems can result from plaque buildup, blood clots, or constricted blood vessels. Your body struggles to efficiently distribute blood to every part of your body when impediments or congested areas restrict blood flow.
What does a blood flow that is turbulent mean?Laminar flow is a characteristic of a healthy artery, such as the femoral artery. When the flow channel becomes disordered, layers fail to form, and eddy currents develop, the scenario is referred to as turbulent flow.
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grasslands that contain some trees, occur in regions where a relatively cool, dry season is followed by a hot, rainy season are known as
Grasslands that contain some trees, occur in regions where a relatively cool, dry season is followed by a hot, rainy season are known as Savannas.
A savanna, also known as a savannah, is a mixed woodland-grassland ecosystem distinguished by trees that are sufficiently spaced so that the canopy does not close. The open canopy allows enough light to reach the ground to support an unbroken herbaceous layer dominated by grasses.
Savannas are a transitional biome, not quite a forest or a desert, but somewhere in between. This habitat is home to many different species of plants and animals all over the world, including Africa's largest land mammal, the African elephant.
Savanna is grassland with a few scattered trees. Savannas of one kind or another cover nearly half of Africa (about five million square miles, mostly in central Africa) as well as large areas of Australia, South America, and India.
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how does meiosis generate genetic diversity? answer homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase i, and during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly. during prophase ii, chromosomes exchange material. during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly, and during prophase ii, chromosomes exchange material. homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase i. during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly. i don't know yet
Homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase I, and during metaphase I, chromosomes align randomly.
Three separate mechanisms, including the crossing over of homologous chromosomes in prophase I, are used by meiosis to produce genetic variation. The second method involves the chromosomes' random arrangement (not alignment) during metaphase I.
Last but not least, meiosis II's random distribution of sister chromatids will further boost genetic variety. Given that genetic variety is not produced by random alignment, the optimal response is crossing over. Synapsis, or the merging of homologous chromosomes, also has little impact on genetic diversity.
Independent segregation describes how homologous chromosomes are organized. As a result of the homologous chromosomes aligning randomly on the metaphase plate during metaphase I, genetic diversity is increased. As a result, the offspring cells will have unique chromosome arrangements.
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which type of mutation changes the genotype but cannot change the phenotype of a microbial organism?
DNA changes known as silent mutations do not manifest themselves in the phenotypic of the organism. They represent a particular kind of neutral mutation.
Mutations may have an impact on an organism by altering its phenotype, or they may have an impact on the way DNA codes the genetic information (genotype). When mutations take place, they may be completely fatal or they may result in the termination (death) of an organism. The bulk of base pair modifications (particularly substitutions) after mutagen treatment have no impact on the phenotype. This frequently happens because the DNA sequence of a non-coding section of the DNA, such as a region between genes or an intron region, changes, they do not alter the amino acids in the proteins they encode, they are neutral. Numerous other mutations are fixed before protein synthesis takes place, therefore they have no impact on the organism. Cells contain a variety of DNA repair methods to correct mutations.
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A relatively small area with numerous endemic species and a large number of endangered or threatened species is called a _________.
A relatively small area with numerous endemic species and a large number of endangered or threatened species is called a Biodiversity hotspot.
A biogeographic area with high levels of biodiversity that is threatened by habitation is known as a biodiversity hotspot. In biology, the term "endemism" refers to the geographic distribution of a taxon that is only present naturally in a narrow geographic area.
A species that is threatened with extinction in the near future, either globally or within a specific political jurisdiction, is known as an endangered species. Invasive species, habitat loss, poaching, and other issues may put endangered species in danger.
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in a bacterium, there is a mutation in the gene for the repressor protein of the lac operon. the mutation has changed a codon in the mrna from ucu to ucc. when lactose is present, how would this mutation affect the function of the lac operon?
The phenotypic effect would be that the lactase structural enzymes would be produced uncontrollably (wouldn't be able to stop the transcription) if the repressor gene underwent a mutation that prevented the repressor protein from binding to the operator.
Constitutive expression results from mutations in the repressor that prevent it from binding to the operator. A non-inducible phenotype results from mutations that block the inducer's ability to bind without affecting the operator's ability to bind.
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Approximately one out of every 2,500 caucasians in the united states is born with the recessive disease cystic fibrosis. According to the hardy-weinberg equilibrium equation, approximately how many people are carriers?.
P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 is the Hardy-Weinberg equation used to calculate genotype frequencies .The homozygous dominant genotype (AA) frequency is represented by "p2," the heterozygous genotype (Aa), by "2pq," and the homozygous recessive genotype, by "q2."
What is an example of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?The population is in a condition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium because the frequency of the recessive allele () has stayed constant. Instance 2a Finches have a perfect dominance connection between their beak colors, with black beaks dominating yellow beaks.
What are the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium's four requirements?
The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium cannot survive in the absence of mutation, gene flow, a sizable population, random mating, and natural selection.
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the algorithms are of your choice. for example, you may use any of the general purpose heuristic optimization algorithms from the course material, including, but not limited to, branch and bound, simulated annealing, greedy local search, tabu search, genetic algorithm etc. or, you can use any other algorithm that you may find by searching the literature, or you may create your own heuristic algorithms.
An algorithm is a set of rules or instructions which used to solve complex problems. In many STEM fields, algorithms are used by laptop programs to streamline processes.
Example :Typical addition algorithm: Align numbers vertically along corresponding position values. Add numbers along the shared place value columns. Write the sum of each position value under each position value column. If the sum of the place value columns exceeds nine, carry the tens digit to the next column to the left. Once all place-valued columns have been added, the addition is complete and the algorithm terminates.
Here is an example that demonstrates this algorithm:
123+456=579
Notice that the numbers are aligned vertically along the position values. Each column of place value is then added and the result is written below the horizontal line.
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Students are comparing the functions of carbohydrates and lipids. Which cellular function would be shared between carbohydrates and lipids?.
The cellular function that would be shared among carbohydrates and lipids is energy storage. The correct answer is a
Since both carbohydrates and lipids are made up of long chains of monomers, vast amounts of energy are stored between the bonds of the monomers that make them up.
Both carbohydrates and fats are used by the body to store energy. When the monomer chains that make up carbohydrates and lipids are cleaved, energy is released in the form of ATP, which the cell uses to carry out its basic functions.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
Students are comparing the functions of carbohydrates and lipids. Which cellular function would be shared between carbohydrates and lipids?
a) energy storage
b) protein formation
c) energy consumption
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Select all of the correct statements. (Choose all that apply) Complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds. Complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by covalent bonds. Nucleotides of a single DNA strand are held together by covalent bonds. Nucleotides of a single DNA strand are held together by hydrogen bonds.
The complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds is true statement.
The higher strand of DNA is the "mRNA-like" strand. The decrease strand is the strand this is complementary to the mRNA.You can decide the series of a complementary strand in case you are given the series of the template strand.
These strands are complementary, with every base in a single sticking to its companion at the other. The A-T pairs are related with the aid of using hydrogen bonds, at the same time as the G-C pairs are related with the aid of using 3 hydrogen bonds.
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when organism in a ecosphere die they are broken down by bacteria. why is this necessary for the survival of the organism in the ecosphere?
Shrimp waste is decomposed by bacteria. The breakdown byproducts give algae and bacteria, which are the shrimp's primary food sources, nutrients.
Shrimp are known to live over 12 years and spend an average of two to three years in the EcoSphere, according to the manufacturer. Through the use of sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide, they can produce their own food. Additionally, they require phosphorus and nitrogen (NOx) for growth and survival.
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She forgot to write the name of the cell structure that her class was studying that day. What structure is described in her notes?.
The cell membrane assists the cell by performing certain tasks, just like the other organelles of cells do. Controlling what enters and leaves the cell is one of its duties in order to keep the cell safe
What jobs do the organelles perform?Small cytoplasmic structures known as organelles perform tasks required to keep the cell's homeostasis in check. They play a role in a variety of functions, including the synthesis of proteins and secretions, the removal of toxins, and the processing of outside signals.
What are the byproducts of cellular energy production?Glycolysis is the oxidation of glucose to pyruvic acid while also producing some ATP and NADH. 2. Acetyl is oxidized to carbon dioxide during the citric acid cycle, producing some ATP, NADH, and FADH2.
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The cell membrane assists the cell by performing certain tasks, just like the other organelles of cells do. Controlling what enters and leaves the cell is one of its duties in order to keep the cell safe.
What jobs do the organelles perform?Small cytoplasmic structures known as organelles perform tasks required to keep the cell's homeostasis in check. They play a role in a variety of functions, including the synthesis of proteins and secretions, the removal of toxins, and the processing of outside signals.
What are the byproducts of cellular energy production?Glycolysis is the oxidation of glucose to pyruvic acid while also producing some ATP and NADH. 2. Acetyl is oxidized to carbon dioxide during the citric acid cycle, producing some ATP, NADH, and FADH2.
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which is the most likely outcome we would see if the virus that causes avian flu were to somehow combine with the human flu virus?
Viruses that cause the flu can change are influenza virus . Because of this, persons who contract these viruses may experience worsening health conditions of our immune systems.
If the H5N1 avian flu virus mixed with a human influenza virus, the resulting "combined" virus might produce a novel, quickly contagious human influenza virus. a widespread viral infection that, especially in high-risk populations, can be fatal. Throat, nose, and lungs are all affected by the flu. Individuals with chronic illnesses or weakened immune systems, young children, elderly people, pregnant women, and older adults are at a higher risk. The list of symptoms also includes fatigue, headaches, chills, muscle aches, cough, congestion, and a runny nose. To help the body fight the infection on its own, rest and fluid consumption are the main treatments for flu. Taking paracetamol might help with the symptoms.
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a client’s antibody test for hiv showed no antibodies. for which reason would the client need to have a nucleic acid test completed before being told that testing for hiv is negative?
The patient might be at stage 0 of the illness.
What is an HIV infection?
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that weakens your immune system's defenses against common infections and disease .A range of potentially fatal infections and disorders are referred to as AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome) when your immune system has been badly harmed by the HIV virus.
The three different forms of HIV diagnostic tests include nucleic acid (RNA), antigen/antibody, and antibody testing. Antigen and RNA testing can directly detect HIV, however antibody tests only find antibodies, not the virus itself. The CDC advises testing for HIV antigens and HIV nucleic acid because research on high-risk groups indicated that antibody testing alone can miss a significant portion of HIV infections that can be detected by virologic tests, particularly during stage 0. The HIV antibody test is sensitive and specific to antibodies, but further tests should be run to get a firm diagnosis. Due to their participation in high risk conduct, the customer does not require a second test. Not every client must undergo two tests.
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the external urethral sphincter is a circular muscle band that relaxes to allow urine to pass. this exemplifies what property of skeletal muscle tissue?
The external urethral sphincter is a circular muscle band that relaxes to allow urine to pass. This exemplifies what property of skeletal muscle regulation of elimination.
In women, the external urethral sphincter, which is made of striated muscle and is near the vaginal orifice, is located distally and inferiorly to the bladder neck.
The muscular structure known as the urethral sphincter controls the flow of urine from the bladder into the urethra. Because it is made of skeletal muscle, the somatic nervous system can control the external sphincter on its own. Both the external urethral sphincter and the internal urethral sphincter control the flow of urine through the muscles.
Therefore, regulation of elimination is the solution.
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removing the terminal bud of a plant that shows apical dominance will cause a) an increase in the growth of the root system. b) increased growth of the terminal bud. c) an immediate flowering of the plant. d) increased growth of the axillary buds.
Removing the terminal bud of a plant that shows apical dominance will cause an immediate flowering of the plant so the option c is correct
Apical dominance is the process by which shoot tips inhibit the growth of axillary buds further down the trunk in order to control the number of growing shoot tips and branches. Shoot apical dominance occurs when the shoot tip inhibits the growth of lateral buds, allowing the plant to grow vertically. It is important that the plant expends energy growing upwards in order for the plant to obtain more light for photosynthesis. Auxin produced at the top (or upper) growth tip of the plant stem causes the stem to grow upward and also stops the growth of lateral buds (lateral buds). This is called leading edge dominance.
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explain how the biodiversity found on earth is demonstrated through the winogradsky column in terms of the niches they occupy.
The Winogradsky column is a long glass column that is used to grow different microorganisms. Different Microbes will be formed in different layers in this column, a layer in which a microbe formed resembles the environmental niche of that microbe.
Several layers of microbes are found in the column each has a different microorganism. Hence biodiversity found on earth can be demonstrated in terms of the niche they occupy using winogradsky column.
To grow microbes a long glass column is filled with pond mud, water, egg shells and egg yolk, and paper. After filling the column it should be placed in a natural light source for several months. This process creates an aerobic/anaerobic gradient in the column. The top region of the column will be aerobic bottom of the column will be more anaerobic. Usually, anaerobic bacteria will be found in the lower region of the column where mud is settled and aerobic bacteria will be in the upper layer. Hence different layers with different environmental conditions are developed inside the column. Microbes will only be in the layer which matches their natural niche.
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a certain culture of the bacterium streptococcus a initially has 9 bacteria and is observed to double every 1.4 hours. (a) estimate the number of bacteria after 28 hours. (round your answer to the nearest whole number.) bacteria (b) after how many hours will the bacteria count reach 10,000? (round your answer to one decimal place.) t
The number of bacteria after 28 hours is 9437184. It will take 14.1 hours to reach 10000 bacteria.
a) estimate the number of bacteria after 28 hours.
N(t) = [tex]9*2[/tex]^[tex]\frac{28}{1.4}[/tex]
using the calculations
N(t) =[tex]9 * 1048576[/tex]
N(t) = 9437184 bacteria in 28 hours.
b) after how many hours will the bacteria count reach 10,000?
[tex]9*2^{(t/1.4)}[/tex] = 10000
find t
[tex]2^{(t/1.4)}[/tex] = 10000/9
[tex]2^{(t/1.4)}[/tex] = 1111.1
Using nat logs,
[tex]\frac{t}{1.4}[/tex]ln(2) = ln(1111.1)
[tex]\frac{t}{1.4}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{ln(1111.1)}{In2}[/tex]
using calculations
[tex]\frac{t}{1.4}[/tex] = 10.1178
t = 10.1178 * 1.4
t = 14.1 hours to reach 10000 bacteria
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Everyone is exposed regularly to ionizing radiation found in the soil, water, and air and from cosmic rays. In fact, 80% of the ionizing radiation people are exposed to comes from naturally occurring sources. Ionizing radiation can cause double-strand breaks in the DNA. Often, the DNA breaks have missing nucleotides at the broken ends. What type of repair would likely be used, and what would be the result of repairing this type of damage?
A. Nonhomologous end joining would be used and would lead to properly repaired DNA.
B. Direct repair would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.
C. Nonhomologous end joining would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.
D. Direct repair would be used and would lead to properly repaired DNA.
C
The result of repairing this type of damage would be d. Non-homologous end joining would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.
Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) without a homologous sequence is used to fix the double-strand breaks.
DNA ligase IV binds the two ends after the double-strand break removes some nucleotides from them. First, Ku proteins bind to the ends and recruit DNA-PKcs, which in turn recruits Artemis, a nuclease, to get rid of any single-stranded DNA in that area.
The DNA would be joined using non-homologous end joining (NHEJ), but there would still be errors because NHEJ only deletes a small number of nucleotides. Therefore, this is a blunder-inclined fix system.
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which chamber of the heart contracts to send oxygenated blood through the aortic valve and out to the body's cells?
The left ventricle pumps the oxygen-rich blood through the aortic valve into the aorta , the main artery that takes oxygen-rich blood out to the rest of the body
Heart:
Your cardiovascular system, which consists of a network of blood vessels that pumps blood throughout your body, is primarily composed of your heart. It also interacts with other bodily systems to regulate your blood, pressure and heart rate.Blood circulation throughout your body is the heart's primary duty. Moreover, your heart:
regulates the temperature rhythm of your heartbeat.keeps your blood pressure steady.The heart has four chambers in total:
Right atrial: Your right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from two big veins. Your upper body's blood is carried via the superior vena cava. Blood from the lower body is brought up by the inferior vena cava. The blood is then pumped to your right ventricle by the right atrium.
Right ventricle: Through the pulmonary artery, the lower right chamber transports oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. The blood is oxygenated again by the lungs.
Left atrium: The pulmonary veins deliver blood to the left atrium after the lungs have infused it with oxygen. Your left ventricle receives blood through its higher chamber.
Left ventricle: Compared to the right, the left ventricle is a little bigger. It transfers blood enriched in oxygen to the rest of your body.
Hence, left ventricle send oxygenated blood through the aortic valve and out of the body cell.
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If you made a big deletion of DNA in the promoter sequence of a gene, which of the following is likely to happen? The gene would not be transcribed The mutation of the DNA would be copied to the RNA sequence None of these answers are correct DNA polymerase would no longer be able to bind and carry out transcription The promoter is not transcribed, therefore RNA would be made as usual The transcription factors will recognize and bind the DNA, initiating transcription
If you made a big deletion of DNA in the promoter sequence of a gene then, the gene would not be transcribed.
What is DNA?
Humans and nearly all other species carry their genetic information in DNA, also known as deoxyribonucleic acid. The DNA of an individual can be found in almost all of their cells.
The information molecule is DNA. It provides the knowledge required to produce proteins, another type of substantial molecule. Each of your cells contains 46 substantial structures called chromosomes that are distributed throughout these instructions. These chromosomes are made up of numerous smaller segments of DNA, called genes.
Therefore, Option A is correct.
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digeorge's syndrome is a developmental defect that prevents the maturation of the thymus. what cell type would be reduced by this condition?
Due to decreased maturation numbers and dysfunctional peripheral T cells, infants born with improper thymus development (caused by DiGeorge syndrome or FoxN1 mutations) experience life-threatening infections that cause early mortality during the first year of life 5-7.
Prevention and Mitigation.
DiGeorge syndrome (DGS) is a primary maturation immunodeficiency disease (PIDD) characterised by impaired thymocyte development and function, which increases vulnerability to infections. T-cells are taught in the thymus how to combat infection and stave off autoimmune disease. Primary immunodeficiency known as DiGeorge Syndrome (DGS) is characterised by cellular (T-cell) deficit, distinctive facial features, congenital cardiac disease, and hypocalcemia.Due to a comparative decrease in naive CD4+ T-cells, patients with DiGeorge syndrome have high memory CD4+ T-cell counts. Low absolute T cell lymphopenia is frequent in our sample of DiGeorge syndrome individuals, and it gets less severe with age.
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The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that.
The plant generation that carries out the majority of photosynthesis is considered the dominant generation.
Photosynthesis is an important process that occurs in plants and blue-green algae for the production of organic substances or carbohydrates using water and carbon dioxide. This process releases oxygen as a byproduct. Since they prepare their own foods, they are considered autotrophs.
Therefore, the generation of plants that are more obvious, more independent, and more photosynthetic is referred to as the "dominant generation of plants." This dominance helps plants survive and evolve from one generation to the next.
Therefore, the correct option is option c.
The complete question is -
The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that
a) is diploid
b) is haploid
c) carries out the majority of photosynthesis
d) produces the most gametes
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camels live in very dry habitats and do not need to consume water as frequently as animals in wetter habitats. what is a partial reason for this?
In relation to their position in a food chain, what do plants and photosynthetic algae have in common?.
Kettlewell's experiment is included in most biology texts as an example of evolution occurring.
The moths once resided in a clean environment. Dark moths became rare as a result.
All members of the order Lepidoptera that are not butterflies are grouped together as moths, a paraphyletic group of insects, with caterpillars constituting the great bulk of the order. According to one estimate, there are over 160,000 different species of moth, many of which are still unnamed. Although there are some daytime and crepuscular moth species, nocturnal species predominate. There are some moths that can be serious agricultural pests all over the world, especially their caterpillars. Examples include bollworms and crop borers. In the northeastern United States, where it is an invasive species, the larva of the spongy moth (Lymantria dispar) seriously harms forests. in climatic conditions that are moderate.
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primates are distinguished by characteristics that were shaped by the demands of living in trees. what were these 4 characteristics?
Key ideas. All primates are descended from creatures who lived in trees, and they all possess adaptations that make it possible for them to climb trees, such as a rotating shoulder joint, separated large toes and thumbs for grabbing, and stereoscopic vision.
The opposable thumb and big toe, prehensile hands and feet, nails rather than claws on the digits, the ability to sit for long periods of time in an upright position without using the upper limbs for balance, dependence on vision, and diminished sense of smell are all characteristics that are derived from primates.
A short muzzle, a relatively poor sense of smell, prehensile five-digit hands and feet with flat nails instead of claws, acute vision with depth perception from forward-facing eyes are just a few of the characteristics that set primates apart from other mammals.
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which extinction period results in the evolution of the first mammals and dinosaurs appearing and forests of conifers and cycades dominate the land?
It was a life changing event. Around 66 million years ago, at the end of the Cretaceous period, an asteroid struck Earth, triggering a mass extinction that wiped out the dinosaurs and around 75% of all species.
Dinosaurs roamed the Earth in the Mesozoic Era, which is divided into the Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous periods. They first arose during the Triassic period about 245 million years ago. Dinosaurs first appeared in the Middle Triassic and became the dominant terrestrial vertebrate in the Late Triassic or Early Jurassic, occupying this position for about 150 to 135 million years until their demise at the end of the Cretaceous. This era is popularly known as the "Age of Reptiles" and for good reason: reptiles, and particularly dinosaurs, were the dominant terrestrial vertebrate animals at the time. The PT extinction was the most severe in Earth's history, and was likely driven by intense volcanic eruptions and associated rapid climate change. This extinction decimated many early groups of reptiles and amphibians, and may have created environmental space for dinosaurs and other new groups to evolve.
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upon closer inspection of the leaves of flower of stone, one can observe tiny, cone-like structures. each cone-like structure emits spores of two different sizes. consequently, flower of stone should be expected to possess which other characteristics?
Flower of stone should be expected to posses other characteristics like - It is heterosporous, It is a lycophyte and It has separate male and female gametophytes.
Heterosporous are plants which produce different types of spores that are different in size, structure and function. They produce two kinds of spores, smaller microspores and larger megaspore. Lycophytes are seedless and vascular plants with sporophytes. Sporophytes have microphylls and branch dichotomously. Leaves are called microphylls, this is a type of plantleaf with one single, unbranched leaf vein. Some lycophytes are homosporous while some are heterosporous. Flower of stone has seperate male and female gametophyte.
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Complete question- Upon closer inspection of the leaves of flower of stone, one can observe tiny, cone-like structures. Each cone-like structure emits spores of two different sizes. Further investigation also reveals that the roots of flower of stone branch only at the growing tip of the root, forming a Y-shaped structure. Based on these additional observations which of the following can be properly inferred about "flower of stones?