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Q3.1. Choose one anterior thigh muscle that crosses two joints. Please list its proximal and distal attachments AND the action its concentric contraction creates at each joint. (5 marks)

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Answer 1

The rectus femoris is an anterior thigh muscle that crosses two joints.

Here are its proximal and distal attachments and the actions it creates at each joint during concentric contraction:

Proximal attachment:

Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)

Upper margin of the acetabulum (hip socket)

Distal attachment:

Quadriceps tendon

Patella

Tibial tuberosity via the patellar ligament

Actions:

Hip joint:

Flexion: Concentric contraction of the rectus femoris assists in flexing the hip joint, bringing the thigh closer to the abdomen.

Knee joint:

Extension: Concentric contraction of the rectus femoris assists in extending the knee joint, straightening the leg.

Please note that while the rectus femoris crosses two joints, it is important to consider that its primary action is at the knee joint, while its contribution to hip flexion is more significant when the hip is already extended.

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Related Questions

Concerning homing of effector T cells to the gut, which of the following is not true?
O Interaction with gut epithelium is enhanced by integrin AEB7 binding to cadherin once in the lamina propria
O Antigen-activated T cells in the GALT effector T cells, enter the blood, and then populate mucosal tissues.
O T cells are guided by chemokine CCR9
O Homing is mediated by an interaction between the integrin A4B7 on the T cell and MACAM1 on the endothelial cell

Answers

Option (B), Antigen-activated T cells in the GALT effector T cells, enter the blood, and then populate mucosal tissues is not true.

Effector T cells are a subtype of T cells that are primarily responsible for the actual immune response to an antigen. Effector T cells can be present in numerous tissues and are often referred to as tissue-specific. These effector T cells are tissue-specific because they are produced and activated in response to antigens in specific tissues.

Homing of effector T cells to the gut is an essential part of the immune response. It is mediated by an interaction between the integrin A4B7 on the T cell and MACAM1 on the endothelial cell. The chemokine CCR9 guides T cells to the small intestine. It was discovered that binding to gut epithelium is improved by integrin AEB7 binding to cadherin once in the lamina propria. Hence, we conclude that antigen-activated T cells in the GALT effector T cells, enter the blood, and then populate mucosal tissues is not true.

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Many females prefer to mate with territorial males and NOT with males that hold no territories. Why?

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Females prefer mating with territorial males due to resource access, genetic superiority, parental care, and a competitive advantage, ensuring higher survival and reproductive success for themselves and their offspring.

The preference of females for mating with territorial males can be attributed to several factors, many of which are rooted in evolutionary biology and reproductive strategies. Here are some reasons why females may show a preference for territorial males:

Resource availability: Territorial males often have access to more resources within their territories, such as food, nesting sites, or shelter. By choosing a territorial male, females can gain access to these resources, which can enhance their own survival and the survival of their offspring.Good genes hypothesis: Territorial males may demonstrate higher genetic quality, indicating their ability to survive and succeed in acquiring and defending a territory. Females can benefit from mating with such males as it increases the likelihood of their offspring inheriting advantageous traits, including better disease resistance, physical prowess, or cognitive abilities.Parental care: Territorial males are more likely to invest in parental care, as they have a stake in protecting and providing for their offspring within their territories. By selecting a territorial male, females increase the chances of receiving support and assistance in raising their young, leading to higher survival rates for their offspring.Competitive advantage: Mating with a territorial male can also confer a competitive advantage to the female. Territorial males often engage in aggressive behaviors to defend their territories from other males, reducing the chances of infidelity and ensuring the offspring's paternity.

It's important to note that while these preferences may be observed in many species, including some primates and birds, mating preferences can vary across different animal groups, and not all females exhibit the same preferences. Additionally, social and ecological factors can influence the extent to which these preferences are expressed in a given population or species.

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For each group of life history classifications below list as many of the characteristics that would been seen for organisms in each group. You may simply write the number of the life history classification and then list as many letters of characteristics that are associated with the life history classification (i.e. 9) a, b, g, i)
Characteristics:
a) Long Life
b) Short Life
c) Rapid Development
d) Slow Development
e) Many potential offspring produced (lifetime)
f) Few potential offspring produced (Lifetime)
g) Large adult size
h) Small adult size
i) Stable habitat (low stress and low disturbance)
Life History classifications:
1) R-strategists
2) K - strategists
3) Ruderal
4) Stress-Tolerant
5) Competitive
6) Opportunistic
7) Equilibrium
8) Periodic

Answers

1.R-strategists: b, c, e, h 2.K-strategists: a, d, f, g 3.Ruderal: b, c, e, h 4.Stress-Tolerant: a, d, f, h 5.Competitive: a, d, f, g 6.Opportunistic: b, c, e, g 7.Equilibrium: a, d, f, g 8.Periodic: a, d, f, h

1.R-strategists are characterized by short life span, rapid development, high reproductive output, and small adult size. They produce many potential offspring during their lifetime, as they invest little energy in individual offspring and rely on quantity over quality to ensure survival.

2.K-strategists have long life spans, slow development, low reproductive output, and large adult size. They produce few potential offspring during their lifetime but invest more energy in each individual offspring, prioritizing quality over quantity.

3.Ruderal organisms have a short life span, rapid development, high reproductive output, and small adult size. They produce many potential offspring during their lifetime and are adapted to disturbed and unpredictable environments.

4.Stress-Tolerant organisms have long life spans, slow development, low reproductive output, and small adult size. They produce few potential offspring during their lifetime and are adapted to stressful and stable habitats.

5.Competitive organisms have long life spans, slow development, low reproductive output, and large adult size. They produce few potential offspring during their lifetime and are adapted to competitive and resource-rich environments.

6.Opportunistic organisms have a short life span, rapid development, high reproductive output, and large adult size. They produce many potential offspring during their lifetime and exploit favorable conditions as they arise.

7.Equilibrium organisms have long life spans, slow development, low reproductive output, and large adult size. They produce few potential offspring during their lifetime and are adapted to stable and predictable habitats.

8.Periodic organisms have long life spans, slow development, low reproductive output, and small adult size. They produce few potential offspring during their lifetime and are adapted to cyclic or periodic environments.

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A student has placed the enzyme lipase in a test tube along with
a solution of hydrochloric acid and a protein. Explain why
digestion will or will not take place.

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The digestion will not take place by the enzyme lipase in a test tube along with a solution of hydrochloric acid and a protein. This is because the enzyme lipase is specific to lipid molecules, not proteins. It breaks down the lipids into fatty acids and glycerol while hydrochloric acid is responsible for denaturing the protein by breaking down its tertiary and quaternary structure.

Furthermore, lipase requires a basic pH to function while the hydrochloric acid creates an acidic environment, thereby not being an ideal condition for the lipase enzyme to perform its activity. In summary, the lipase enzyme and hydrochloric acid in the test tube will result in the denaturation of protein.

The proteins will be destroyed, but not digested. The lipase enzyme, on the other hand, will not be able to perform its function because of the acidic environment created by the hydrochloric acid. Hence, digestion will not take place.

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(Hair color in trolls is only produced when the T allele is present. Individuals of the tt genotype have white hair. If color is present, the color is determined by the P locus. PP or Pp results in purple color, while pp results in pink hair color. What is the expected phenotypic ratio from a cross between a white-haired female troll with the genotype Ttpp and a purple-haired male troll with the genotype TtPp?)

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The expected phenotypic ratio from the cross between a white-haired female troll with genotype Ttpp and a purple-haired male troll with genotype TtPp is 1:1:1:1, meaning an equal number of offspring with purple hair (regardless of genotype) and offspring with pink hair (regardless of genotype). This results in a balanced distribution of hair color phenotypes.

From the given genotypes, we can determine the possible gametes for each parent:

The white-haired female troll with genotype Ttpp can produce gametes Tp and tp.The purple-haired male troll with genotype TtPp can produce gametes TP, Tp, tP, and tp.

Now, let's determine the phenotypic ratio from the cross between these two trolls:

Possible genotypes of the offspring:

1/4 of the offspring will have genotype TTPP and exhibit purple hair color.

1/4 of the offspring will have genotype TTpp and exhibit pink hair color.

1/4 of the offspring will have genotype TtPP and exhibit purple hair color.

1/4 of the offspring will have genotype Ttpp and exhibit pink hair color.

Therefore, the expected phenotypic ratio from this cross is 1:1:1:1, meaning an equal number of trolls with purple hair (regardless of genotype) and trolls with pink hair (regardless of genotype).

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Dragons come in many colors. Purple dragons are dominant over green dragons. Write a genotype of a green dragon. Is another genotype possible? Why or why not?

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The genotype of a green dragon, assuming that purple dragons are dominant over green dragons, would be represented as gg. In this case, the lowercase "g" represents the allele for green color. A green dragon would have two copies of the green allele, one inherited from each parent.

Another genotype for a green dragon is not possible if purple dragons are truly dominant over green dragons. Dominant traits are expressed when at least one copy of the dominant allele is present. Since purple dragons are dominant, a dragon would need at least one copy of the purple allele (denoted by a different letter, such as "P") to exhibit the purple coloration.

Therefore, in a scenario where purple is dominant, a green dragon can only possess the genotype gg, indicating that it has two copies of the recessive green allele. If another genotype were possible, it would imply that green is not completely recessive, and there might be other factors influencing the coloration of dragons. However, based on the information given, with purple dragons being dominant, the only genotype for a green dragon is gg.

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What is the relationship between ΔG and ΔG‡?
What properties distinguish enzymes from other catalysts?

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The relationship between ΔG (free energy change) and ΔG‡ (activation energy) is that ΔG‡ represents the energy barrier that must be overcome for a reaction to proceed, while ΔG represents the overall change in free energy during the reaction.

Enzymes possess specific properties that distinguish them from other catalysts, including their ability to be highly specific, their efficiency in catalyzing reactions, and their regulation through factors like temperature and pH.

The relationship between ΔG and ΔG‡ can be understood in the context of chemical reactions. ΔG represents the difference in free energy between the reactants and products of a reaction. It indicates whether a reaction is thermodynamically favorable (ΔG < 0) or unfavorable (ΔG > 0). On the other hand, ΔG‡, also known as the activation energy, represents the energy barrier that must be overcome for the reaction to occur. It is the energy required to reach the transition state, where the bonds are breaking and forming. ΔG‡ is not directly related to the overall change in free energy (ΔG) but influences the rate at which the reaction proceeds.

Enzymes are specialized catalysts that facilitate biochemical reactions in living organisms. They possess several properties that distinguish them from other catalysts. Firstly, enzymes exhibit high specificity, meaning they can selectively bind to particular substrates and catalyze specific reactions. This specificity is crucial for the regulation of metabolic pathways and cellular processes. Secondly, enzymes are highly efficient, enabling them to catalyze reactions at a faster rate than non-enzymatic catalysts. Their efficiency is due to their ability to lower the activation energy required for the reaction to occur, thus increasing the reaction rate. Lastly, enzymes can be regulated by factors such as temperature and pH, allowing for precise control of biochemical reactions within cells. This regulation ensures that enzymes are active under optimal conditions and can be turned off or modulated as needed.

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6. Kreisler is maintained in its expression in rhombomeres 5 and 6 because of the
_________________ addition site within the _________________ region, which is part of the final ____________
a. PolyA; 3'-Translated; Intron
b. PolyT; 5-Untranslated; Intron
c. PolyA; 3'-Untranscribed; Exon
d. PolyA; 5'-Untranslated; Exon
e. PolyA; 3'-Untranslated; Exon

Answers

Kreisler is maintained in its expression in rhombomeres 5 and 6 because of the PolyA; 3 addition site within the Untranslated region, which is part of the final Exon. Hence option E is correct.

The correct answer to this question is option E: "PolyA; 3'-Untranslated; Exon."Kreisler is maintained in its expression in rhombomeres 5 and 6 because of the polyA addition site within the 3'-untranslated region, which is part of the final exon.What is a poly(A) tail?

A poly(A) tail is a long chain of adenine nucleotides that is added to the 3′ end of mRNA molecules, which stabilizes the RNA molecule. As a result, it protects the mRNA from RNA-degrading enzymes, aids in export of the mature mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, and serves as a binding site for proteins involved in translational initiation.

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About 70% of the salt in our diet typically comes from _______ a. meals prepared at home b. peanut butter, ketchup, mustard, and other condiments c. prepared or processed food from the grocery store or restaurants d. potato chips and similar salty/crunchy snacks

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About 70% of the salt in our diet typically comes from prepared or processed food from the grocery store or restaurants. The correct option is c).

Processed and prepared foods from grocery stores or restaurants contribute to about 70% of the salt in our diet. These foods often contain high amounts of added salt for flavoring and preservation purposes.

Common examples include canned soups, frozen meals, deli meats, bread, and savory snacks. Additionally, condiments like ketchup, mustard, and salad dressings can also add significant salt content to our diet.

It is important to be mindful of our salt intake as excessive consumption can increase the risk of high blood pressure and other related health issues. Therefore, the correct option is c).

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Drs. Tsui and Collins discovered the genetic cause of cystic fibrosis (CF) in 1989. However, life expectancy rates of individuals with CF did not start to improve more significantly until about 2003. What might be plausible explanations for why it took about 14 years from the time of the discovery of the genetic cause of CF to seeing greater increases in life expectancy?

Answers

There could be several plausible explanations for the time gap between the discovery of the genetic cause of cystic fibrosis (CF) in 1989 by Drs.

Tsui and Collins and the significant improvements in life expectancy that were observed around 2003. Some potential explanations include:

1. Translational research and clinical implementation: Discovering the genetic cause of CF is a crucial first step, but translating this knowledge into effective treatments and therapies takes time. It may have taken several years of research, experimentation, and clinical trials to develop and refine therapies that specifically target the underlying genetic defect in CF.

2. Development of targeted therapies: CF is a complex genetic disorder with multiple genetic mutations. Developing targeted therapies to address the specific genetic variations in different individuals with CF can be challenging. It may have taken time to identify and develop effective treatments that work for a broader range of CF patients.

3. Regulatory approval process: Bringing new therapies to market requires rigorous testing and approval from regulatory authorities. The process of conducting clinical trials, collecting data, analyzing results, and obtaining regulatory approval can be time-consuming. Delays in regulatory processes could have contributed to the gap between the genetic discovery and the availability of improved treatments.

4. Accessibility and adoption of treatments: Even after the development and approval of new therapies, there can be delays in widespread access and adoption of these treatments. Factors such as availability, affordability, healthcare infrastructure, and patient awareness may have influenced the time it took for individuals with CF to benefit from the new therapies.

5. Cumulative effect of advancements: Improvements in life expectancy may not occur immediately after the introduction of a new treatment. It often takes time for advancements in medical care, supportive therapies, and overall management of CF to accumulate and have a significant impact on life expectancy rates.

It's important to note that these are speculative explanations, and the actual reasons for the time gap between the genetic discovery of CF and improvements in life expectancy may involve a combination of factors.

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What is the correct ecological term for non-synchronous fluctuations in predator and prey populations?
A. A 'time lag'
B. Predator prey dynamics
C. Oscillations
D. All of the above

Answers

The correct ecological term for non-synchronous fluctuations in predator and prey populations is time lag.

When the fluctuations in predator and prey populations are not synchronous, there is a time lag between the population cycles of the two species. During this time lag, there is a time delay between the population growth of the two species, leading to fluctuations in the population of one species before the other. In this way, ecological time lag is the time difference between the population cycles of different species within an ecosystem. It's crucial to remember that ecological time lags and synchronous fluctuations are related. Synchronous fluctuations refer to the fact that two populations rise and fall in unison over time, while ecological time lags refer to the time differential between these population cycles.

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Which of the statements below best describes the classical pathway of complement?
1) An enzyme expressed by the microbe cleaves a complement protein, which triggers a series of events that lead to C3 cleavage.
2) Antibodies bound to a microbe recruit C1q, which activates a series of events that lead to C3 cleavage.
3) C3 is spontaneously cleaved and remains activated upon interaction with the microbial surface.
4) Lectins bound to a microbe recruit complement proteins, which leads to C3 cleavage.

Answers

The classical pathway of complement is best described by option 2, which states that antibodies bound to a microbe recruit C1q, initiating a series of events that lead to C3 cleavage. Option 2 is correct answer.

The classical pathway of complement is one of the three main activation pathways of the complement system. It is primarily initiated by the binding of antibodies, specifically IgM or IgG, to a microbe's surface. In option 2, it states that antibodies bound to a microbe recruit C1q, which is the first component of the classical pathway. C1q, along with other complement proteins (C1r and C1s), form the C1 complex.

Upon binding to the microbe, the C1 complex becomes activated and initiates a cascade of enzymatic reactions, resulting in the cleavage phagocytes of complement protein C3. The cleavage of C3 leads to the formation of C3b, which opsonizes the microbe for phagocytosis and generates the membrane attack complex (MAC) to lyse the microbe.

Options 1, 3, and 4 do not accurately describe the classical pathway of complement. Option 1 describes the alternative pathway, option 3 describes spontaneous cleavage (which is not a characteristic of the classical pathway), and option 4 describes the lectin pathway. Therefore, option 2 provides the most accurate description of the classical pathway of complement.

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Human genes responsible for producing complex biological molecules such as hormones, enzymes and cytokines can be inserted into bacterial cells. These cells are easily grown to high cell densities in large volumes and the desired therapeutic materials produced on a large scale. Using a human-derived gene of interest; bacterial DNA as a plasmid vector and Escherichia coli as the host bacterium, Outline and discuss, step by step, how you would make use of the host bacterium machinery as a mechanism to produce the desired therapeutic materials from the gene of interest on a large scale. Include all the necessary enzymes involved and materials. Be guided by the following subheadings. Subheadings: The human DNA; Plasmid vector; Host bacterium; Selection; and Screening

Answers

To produce desired therapeutic materials using a human-derived gene of interest in bacterial cells, specifically Escherichia coli, several steps are involved. Let's go through each step in detail:

The Human DNA:

Identify and isolate the human gene of interest responsible for producing the desired therapeutic material. This gene can be obtained from a variety of sources, such as human cells or synthesized artificially.

Plasmid Vector:

Select a suitable plasmid vector, which is a small, circular DNA molecule that can replicate independently within the bacterial cell.

Host Bacterium (Escherichia coli):

Cultivate Escherichia coli cells in a nutrient-rich medium to achieve high cell densities. This can be done by inoculating a small number of E. coli cells into a growth medium and allowing them to multiply under controlled conditions, such as temperature and oxygen availability.

Selection:

Select an appropriate antibiotic for the selective medium that inhibits the growth of E. coli cells lacking the desired plasmid vector.

Screening:

Select colonies from the plates and perform colony PCR or plasmid isolation to confirm the presence of the gene of interest in the transformed E. coli cells.

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1. When you stand on a foam pad with eyes closed in a
BESS test, the primary sensory input for balance is ______ .
a. olfaction
b. vestibular
c. somatosensation
d. vision
2. Olfaction affects the accu

Answers

The BESS test:When standing on a foam pad with closed eyes in the BESS (Balance Error Scoring System) test, the primary sensory input for balance is somatosensation. This is defined as the body’s internal and external sensory systems that help control balance and movement.

The somatosensory system comprises cutaneous and proprioceptive receptors located in the skin, muscles, joints, and bones of the body.

Olfaction affects the accuracy of taste: Olfaction (sense of smell) affects the accuracy of taste. Olfaction and gustation (sense of taste) are interconnected senses that work together to produce the perception of flavor. While the tongue is responsible for detecting taste, the nose is responsible for identifying smells. These two senses work together to produce a complete picture of flavor.

When the olfactory system is damaged, the sense of taste may be compromised, making it difficult to distinguish between different flavors. For example, without olfaction, foods may taste bland, and it may be challenging to differentiate between salty, sweet, bitter, or sour tastes.Hence, we can conclude that somatosensation is the primary sensory input for balance in the BESS test, and olfaction affects the accuracy of taste.

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Discussion Unit 22 A Describe the flow of air from the nose to the alveoli, name all structures in the pathway and one abnormal condition associated with it.

Answers

An abnormal condition associated with this pathway is asthma. Asthma is a chronic respiratory disorder characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways. This can lead to difficulty in breathing, wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness.

The flow of air from the nose to the alveoli involves several structures in the respiratory pathway. It begins with the inhalation of air through the nostrils or nasal passages. The air then passes through the following structures:

Nasal cavity: The nasal cavity is the hollow space behind the nose. It is lined with mucous membranes and contains structures called turbinates that help filter, warm, and moisten the air.

Pharynx: The pharynx, also known as the throat, is a muscular tube located behind the nasal cavity. It serves as a common passage for both air and food.

Larynx: The larynx, or voice box, is located below the pharynx. It contains the vocal cords and plays a role in speech production.

Trachea: The trachea, commonly known as the windpipe, is a tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi. It is lined with ciliated cells and cartilaginous rings, which help maintain its shape and prevent collapse.

Bronchi: The trachea branches into two bronchi, one leading to each lung. The bronchi further divide into smaller bronchioles, which eventually lead to the alveoli.

Alveoli: The alveoli are small air sacs located at the ends of the bronchioles. They are the primary sites of gas exchange in the lungs, where oxygen is taken up by the bloodstream, and carbon dioxide is released.

An abnormal condition associated with this pathway is asthma. Asthma is a chronic respiratory disorder characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways. This can lead to difficulty in breathing, wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness. In individuals with asthma, the airway inflammation and increased sensitivity to certain triggers result in the constriction of the bronchial tubes, making it harder for air to flow freely. Proper management and treatment of asthma are important to maintain normal airflow and prevent respiratory distress.

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13. Which of the following represents the correct order of stages during Drosophila development?
Select one:
a.
zygote, syncytial blastoderm, cellular blastoderm, gastrula, larva, pupa, adult
b.
syncytial blastoderm, cellular blastoderm, zygote, gastrula, larva, pupa, adult
c.
zygote, larva, gastrula, pupa, syncytial blastoderm, cellular blastoderm, adult
d.
cellular blastoderm, syncytial blastoderm, zygote, gastrula, pupa, larva, adult
and.
zygote, cellular blastoderm, syncytial blastoderm, gastrula, larva, pupa, adult
14.The following protein represents an inductive signal for the creation of lens tissue:
Select one:
a.
FGF8
b.
BMP4
c.
crystalline
d.
all of the above
and.
a and b are correct
15.The following molecule acts as a paracrine factor:
Select one:
a.
wnt
b.
hedgehog
c.
Delta
d.
all of the above
and.
a and b are correct

Answers

14. The protein that represents an inductive signal for the creation of lens tissue is: c. crystalline.

15. The molecule that acts as a paracrine factor is: d. all of the above (a. wnt and b. hedgehog).

these are correct answers.

Crystalline is a protein involved in the development and function of the lens in the eye. It plays a crucial role in the formation of lens tissue during development.

Both Wnt and Hedgehog molecules are examples of paracrine factors. Paracrine signaling refers to the release of signaling molecules by one cell to act on nearby cells, affecting their behavior or gene expression. Both Wnt and Hedgehog molecules function as paracrine signals in various developmental processes and tissue homeostasis.

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1. What is the main difference between gymnoperms and angiosperms? What do they have in common? 2. You remove a cell from a four-cell embryo of a roundworm. Explain what you expect to happen. 3. Describe the life cycle of an insect with complete metamorphosis and provide an example. (3.5 marks)
4. Describe the excretory system of insects. (5 marks)

Answers

Here are some facts about plants and animals, including the differences between gymnosperms and angiosperms, the development of roundworms, the life cycle of insects, and the excretory system of insects. Therefore  

1. Gymnosperms: uncovered seeds, angiosperms: seeds in fruit.

2. Roundworms: each cell contains complete info, removing a cell = developmental defect.

3. Insect complete metamorphosis: egg-larva-pupa-adult.

4. Insect excretory system: Malpighian tubules, bladder, anus; efficient waste removal.

1. The main difference between gymnosperms and angiosperms is that gymnosperms have uncovered seeds, while angiosperms have seeds that are enclosed in a fruit. Gymnosperms also have pollen cones, while angiosperms have flowers. Both gymnosperms and angiosperms are vascular plants, which means they have xylem and phloem tissues. They also both reproduce by pollination and seed dispersal.

2. If you remove a cell from a four-cell embryo of a roundworm, the embryo will not develop into a complete organism. This is because each cell in the embryo contains all the information necessary to create a complete organism. If you remove a cell, you are essentially removing some of the information that is needed for development. The remaining cells will try to compensate for the missing information, but they will not be able to do so perfectly. This will result in a developmental defect, and the embryo will not develop into a complete organism.

3. The life cycle of an insect with complete metamorphosis has four stages: egg, larva, pupa, and adult. The egg is laid by the adult insect and hatches into a larva. The larva is a feeding stage and grows rapidly. When the larva is mature, it pupates. The pupa is a resting stage during which the insect undergoes metamorphosis. The adult insect emerges from the pupa and begins the cycle again.

An example of an insect with complete metamorphosis is the butterfly. The butterfly lays its eggs on a plant. The eggs hatch into caterpillars. The caterpillars eat leaves and grow rapidly. When the caterpillars are mature, they pupate. The pupae are attached to a plant or other surface. The adult butterflies emerge from the pupae and begin the cycle again.

4. The excretory system of insects is composed of Malpighian tubules, a bladder, and an anus. Malpighian tubules are blind sacs that are located near the junction of the digestive tract and the intestine. The tubules remove waste products from the blood and transport them to the bladder. The bladder stores the waste products until they are excreted through the anus.

The excretory system of insects is very efficient at removing waste products from the body. This is important for insects because they have a very high metabolic rate. A high metabolic rate produces a lot of waste products, so it is important for insects to have a way to remove these waste products quickly.

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Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? Viruses have a nucleus but no cytoplasm. а Viruses can reproduce only when they are inside a living host cell. Viruses cannot make proteins on their own. Some viruses use RNA rather than DNA as their genetic material.

Answers

The option that is untrue of the ones offered is "Viruses have a nucleus but no cytoplasm."

Acellular infectious organisms with a fairly straightforward structure are viruses. They are made up of genetic material, either DNA or RNA, that is encased in a protein shell called a capsid. A virus's outer envelope may potentially be derived from the membrane of the host cell.However, biological organelles like a nucleus or cytoplasm are absent in viruses. They lack the equipment needed to synthesise proteins or carry out autonomous metabolic processes. In place of doing these things themselves, viruses rely on host cells.

The remaining assertions made are accurate:

- Only when a virus is inside a living host cell can it proliferate. They use the host cell's biological machinery to stealthily copy their genetic material.

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Plants store glucose as starch because ... a. Starch is easier to store because it's insoluble in water b. Starch is more calories per gram than glucose c. Starch is a simpler molecule and therefore easier to store d. All of the above

Answers

Plants store glucose as starch because starch is easier to store because it is insoluble in water. Plants are autotrophic organisms that use photosynthesis to create glucose to store energy. Glucose is the primary source of energy in all living cells.

Plants store glucose as starch because starch is easier to store because it is insoluble in water. Plants are autotrophic organisms that use photosynthesis to create glucose to store energy. Glucose is the primary source of energy in all living cells. However, the glucose produced through photosynthesis is not immediately used. It is stored within the plant cells for later use. Storing glucose as starch is the most common way of preserving it. Starch is a polysaccharide, or a complex carbohydrate that can be found in plants, that is stored as a food reserve in plants, and can also be extracted and used commercially as a thickening agent in cooking.

Plants store glucose as starch for a variety of reasons, including its insolubility in water, which makes it easier to store. Starch is also a more compact form of energy storage since it can store more calories per gram than glucose. Furthermore, it is less reactive than glucose and has a lower osmotic pressure, which can prevent damage to the plant cells. Therefore, plants store glucose as starch because it is easier to store and more convenient for later use.

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How
I can calculated the preload,afterload and contractility ?

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To calculate preload, afterload, and contractility, you need to understand the basic principles underlying each concept. Preload refers to the amount of tension or stretch on the myocardial fibers before contraction. It is determined by factors such as ventricular filling pressure and volume. Afterload, on the other hand, refers to the resistance that the heart must overcome to eject blood during systole. It is influenced by factors such as arterial pressure and vascular resistance.

Contractility, also known as inotropy, is the inherent ability of the myocardium to generate force and contract. It is influenced by factors such as sympathetic stimulation and changes in intracellular calcium levels.

Calculating these parameters requires various techniques and measurements. For preload, common methods include estimating the central venous pressure or using echocardiography to assess left ventricular end-diastolic volume. Afterload can be calculated by measuring arterial pressure or using invasive techniques such as cardiac catheterization.

Contractility is often evaluated through indices such as the ejection fraction, fractional shortening, or the dP/dt max (the rate of pressure increase during systole). These parameters provide insights into the strength of myocardial contraction.

It's important to note that the actual calculations and specific methods used may vary depending on the clinical setting, available resources, and the context in which these parameters are being assessed. Consulting medical textbooks, guidelines, or seeking expert advice would be beneficial in accurately determining preload, afterload, and contractility in a given scenario.

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Conservationists are translocating 250 fi sh (taken at random) from a lake to a smaller pond that has recently been restored after a chemical spill, to repopulate the pond. After two days of the translocating of the fish, conservationists determined that 40 fish have died due to being homozygous for a recessive allele at a detoxify cation gene that has made the fish susceptible to residual pollutants still left in the pond.
QUESTION:
(A) Considering the gene pool, what percentage of the zygotes produced by these translocated fish will be expected not to survive(assume there is random mating amongst surviving fish, they mate monogamously and all mate-pairs produce the same number of fertilised eggs)? (Two decimals)
(B) After 5 generations (assuming the residual level of toxins remains the same), what will the allele frequency of the non-susceptible allele be in the pond population? (Two decimals)

Answers

The frequency of the dominant allele is represented as p and the frequency of the recessive allele is represented as q. According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals is p², the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals is q², and the frequency of heterozygous individuals is 2pq.

Therefore, the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (q²) is equal to 0.25, as we know that 40 fish have died out of 250 translocated fish and the deaths have occurred due to homozygous for a recessive allele at a detoxify cation gene, so 0.16 is the frequency of the recessive allele (q).The frequency of the dominant allele (p) can be calculated by subtracting the recessive allele (q) from one(1), i.e., 1 - 0.16 = 0.84.The frequency of zygotes that will not survive can be found by multiplying the homozygous recessive frequency by itself(q²). Therefore, the percentage of zygotes that will not survive is 0.0256 * 100 = 2.56%.Hence, the answer is 2.56%.B) After 5 generations (assuming the residual level of toxins remains the same), (Two decimals)The frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.16, which was previously calculated.

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can be used to calculate the frequency of the non-susceptible allele.The sum of the frequency of the two alleles is equal to one(1).The frequency of the non-susceptible allele = p= 1-q= 1- 0.16= 0.84.In each generation, the frequency of the non-susceptible allele remains the same, i.e., 0.84.

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1. List sugar, galactose, and glucose in order of
efficiency of fementation. (Describe reasons as well)
2. How temperature can affect ethanol fermentation?

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1. List sugar, galactose, and glucose in order of efficiency of fermentation along with their explanation:Galactose: Galactose is a monosaccharide, similar to glucose, that can be converted to glucose-1-phosphate before being used in glycolysis,

Galactose is converted into glucose-6-phosphate in the liver. The sugar, which is an epimer of glucose, is not a key sugar used in fermentation. The efficiency of fermentation of galactose is less than that of glucose.Glucose: Glucose is the primary fuel for glycolysis, and it has the highest efficiency of fermentation among sugars. Glucose, unlike other sugars, does not need to be converted into a different type of sugar before being used in glycolysis. Glucose is broken down into pyruvate, which is a critical product of glycolysis, during glycolysis. Glucose fermentation is highly efficient.

Sugar: Sugar is a disaccharide consisting of fructose and glucose molecules, which is hydrolyzed into glucose and fructose before being used in fermentation. As a result, fermentation efficiency is less than glucose.2. How temperature can affect ethanol fermentation?Ethanol fermentation, like other enzymatic reactions, is influenced by temperature. Fermentation's optimal temperature range is between 20°C and 35°C. Lower temperatures reduce enzyme activity, and hence fermentation rate, while higher temperatures can cause enzyme denaturation or destruction, which will prevent ethanol fermentation from occurring. Therefore, the temperature can affect the ethanol fermentation.

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Which of the following is a START codon? O O UAA UAG AUG о O AGA Which term refers to animals that maintain their body temperature by internal mechanisms? Oectotherms Opoikilotherms O homeotherms endotherms The central dogma states that... ODNA --> RNA --> polypeptide --> protein ORNA --> DNA --> protein O polypeptide --> protein --> DNA DNA --> RNA --> amino acid --> tRNA Saturated fatty acids... have only double bonds O have a mix of double and single bonds are in a ring-shaped structure have only single bonds Which is FALSE about fecundity? Species like house flies have high fecundity It is defined as the number of offspring an individual can produce over its lifetime O Species with high survivorship have high fecundity Species like humans have low fecundity A cell is in a solution where there is more solute in the solution than there is in the cell. This would be called a/an... Ohypertonic solution hypotonic solution O isotonic solution Onone of the above This type of bond would connect a glucose molecule to a galactose molecule. Phosophodiester linkage O Ester bond Glycosidic linkage Hydrogen bond Which of the following best describes the role of light in photosynthesis? It produces NADPH It splits ribulose bisphosphate into 2 PGAs It causes the CO2 to combine with hydrogen atoms It excites the electrons that leave chlorophyll molecules Enzymes... O are needed in large quantities because they are used up during catalysis are not very specific in their choice of substrates O make endergonic reactions proceed spontaneously O lower the activation energy of a reaction Which would NOT be part of a nucleotide? O Ribose sugar Adenine Phosphate Sulfide

Answers

The start codon is AUG. Endotherms is the term that refers to animals that maintain their body temperature by internal mechanisms. The central dogma states that DNA --> RNA --> polypeptide --> protein. Saturated fatty acids have only single bonds.

Species with high survivorship have high fecundity is false about fecundity. A hypertonic solution is a cell that is in a solution where there is more solute in the solution than there is in the cell. Glycosidic linkage would connect a glucose molecule to a galactose molecule. The role of light in photosynthesis is to excite the electrons that leave chlorophyll molecules. Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction. Sulfide would NOT be part of a nucleotide. A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides that encodes a specific amino acid or terminates translation. AUG is a codon that represents methionine, which is always the first amino acid in the protein chain. Therefore, it is the start codon. Thus, the correct answer is AUG.

Endotherms is a term that refers to animals that maintain their body temperature by internal mechanisms. These animals depend on their metabolism to generate heat to maintain a constant body temperature. Therefore, it is the correct answer.The central dogma describes the flow of genetic information within a biological system. The correct flow of the central dogma is DNA --> RNA --> polypeptide --> protein. Therefore, DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into polypeptides and, ultimately, into proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is DNA --> RNA --> polypeptide --> protein.Saturated fatty acids have only single bonds. Therefore, it is the correct answer. An unsaturated fatty acid, on the other hand, contains one or more double bonds in the hydrocarbon chain.

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Assume that the frequency of gene E in populations Breed-A and Breed-B are 0.9 and 0.1, respectively. Given Genotype Phenotypic Value (kg)
EE 60 Ee 48 ee 10 compute the value of dominance (d), difference of gene frequencies (y) between the parental populations, heterosis in F1, and heterosis in F2.

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Frequency of gene E in populations Breed-A = 0.9Frequency of gene E in populations Breed-B = 0.1Genotype Phenotypic Value (kg)EE60Ee48ee 10Compute:

Dominance difference of gene frequencies between the parental populations, heterosis in F1, and heterosis in F2. Dominance (d)It is given that EE is dominant, therefore the difference in gene frequencies is given  is the gene frequency in and is the gene frequency.

Heterosis in F1Heterosis in F1 is given by: Heterosis mean of parental populations)/mean of parental populations Heterosis mean of parental populations)/mean of parental populations Heterosis Therefore, the values of dominance (d), difference of gene frequencies between the parental populations.

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It is important that cells control the activity of the enzymes within them. How might an enzyme be inhibited. Mark all that apply.
O The cell increases the availability of substrates
O Active site is blocked by a different molecule (not the substrate).
O Allosteric molecule changes the shape of the enzyme so the active site is not available.
O An enzyme is converted by the cell from a pro- enzyme to a ready form of the enzyme
O There is not enough cofactor for the enzyme to work properly
O The substrate binds to the active site, causing the enzyme to change shape.
O The cell decreases the availability of products
O Acidic conditions cause the enzyme to change its shape so the substrate can't bind

Answers

In order to ensure proper control of enzymatic activity within cells, various mechanisms can be employed for enzyme inhibition. The following options can be marked as correct:

- Active site is blocked by a different molecule (not the substrate).

- Allosteric molecule changes the shape of the enzyme so the active site is not available.

- An enzyme is converted by the cell from a pro-enzyme to a ready form of the enzyme.

- There is not enough cofactor for the enzyme to work properly.

- Acidic conditions cause the enzyme to change its shape so the substrate can't bind.

Enzyme inhibition plays a crucial role in regulating biochemical pathways and maintaining cellular homeostasis.

Here's an explanation of each option:

1. Active site is blocked by a different molecule (not the substrate):

  In this case, a molecule other than the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding and inhibiting the enzyme's activity.

2. Allosteric molecule changes the shape of the enzyme so the active site is not available:

  An allosteric molecule binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme, inducing a conformational change that alters the shape of the active site. This prevents the substrate from binding effectively and inhibits the enzyme.

3. An enzyme is converted by the cell from a pro-enzyme to a ready form of the enzyme:

  Some enzymes are synthesized in an inactive form known as a proenzyme or zymogen. Cellular processes can activate these enzymes by cleaving off specific segments, resulting in the conversion to their active form.

4. There is not enough cofactor for the enzyme to work properly:

  Enzymes often require cofactors, such as metal ions or coenzymes, to function properly. Inhibition can occur if there is insufficient availability of the required cofactor.

5. Acidic conditions cause the enzyme to change its shape so the substrate can't bind:

  The pH of the cellular environment can influence enzyme activity. Under highly acidic conditions, the enzyme's structure can be altered, rendering the active site incompatible with substrate binding.

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If you buy some new bull elk with average antler size of 380 inches, and use them as breeders to try to increase antler size in the herd, your selection differential S between these breeders and the rest of the herd will be (Ignore the fact that we are not dealing with female measurements).

Answers

The selection differential (S) between the selected breeders and the rest of the herd, in terms of antler size, is 30 inches.

To calculate the selection differential (S), you need to compare the average antler size of the selected breeders (380 inches) with the average antler size of the rest of the herd. Let's assume the average antler size of the rest of the herd is 350 inches.

The selection differential (S) is calculated by subtracting the average trait value of the unselected group from the average trait value of the selected group. In this case, it would be:

S = Average antler size of selected breeders - Average antler size of the rest of the herd

S = 380 inches - 350 inches

S = 30 inches

This value represents the difference in average antler size between the two groups and can be used to estimate the potential response to selection for increasing antler size in the herd.

The selection differential (S) is the difference in the average trait value between the selected breeders and the rest of the herd. In this case, the average antler size of the rest of the herd is 350 inches, the selection differential would be 30 inches.

A larger selection differential indicates a greater difference in trait value, which can influence the potential for improving antler size through selective breeding.

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Breast cancer involves several proteomic modifications. A surgeon has operated on a breast cancer patient and provided you with a sample from the breast tissue of the patient containing a piece of the tumor to analyze its proteome. Design the experiment. Which method are you going to use and why? which approach and why? Don't forget to mention the controls you will use, and the different steps in your workflow, and where will you deposit your results.

Answers

The experiment involves using mass spectrometry-based proteomics to analyze the proteome of a breast cancer tumor sample.

The chosen method, mass spectrometry-based proteomics, allows for comprehensive analysis of proteins in the tumor sample. Label-free quantitative proteomics approach will be employed to compare protein abundances between the tumor sample and controls. The workflow includes sample preparation, protein digestion, mass spectrometry analysis, data analysis, and potential validation of selected proteins. Controls such as a positive breast cancer control and a negative healthy tissue control will be used for comparison. The results will be deposited in public proteomics databases for accessibility and further research.

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In your study group you are describing the feeding and nutrition profiles of the unicellular eukaryotes. Which of the following are accurate statements? Check All That Apply There are two types of heterotrophs in the unicellular eukaryotes, phagotrophs and osmotrophs. Phagotrophs are heterotrophs that ingest visible particles of food. Osmotrophs are heterotrophs that ingest food in a soluble form Both phagotrophs and osmotrophs are generally parasitic unicellular eukaryotes Contractile vacuoles are prominent features of unicellular eukaryotes living in both freshwater and marine environments. True or False True False In your study group you are considering the unicellular eukaryotes and discussing specific aspects of their biology. Which of the following statements are accurate regarding the role of contractile vacuoles? Check All That Apply Contractile vacuoles are primarily present on freshwater unicellular eukaryotes because they live in a hypoosmotic environment. Contractile vacuoles are primarily present on marine unicellular eukaryotes because they live in a hyperosmotic environment Contractile vacuoles are primarily used to remove excess water from the cytoplasm Contractile vacuoles are only found in multicellular eukaryotes, not in the unicellular eukaryotes Plasmodium reproduction involves a complex series of steps. Which of the following statements are accurate representations of this complex process? Check All That Apply Plasmodium reproduction requires both sexual and asexual phases of the life-cycle. Sexual reproductive phases of the Plasmodium lifecycle occur in both the mosquito and the human. Asexual reproductive phases of the Plasmodium lifecycle occur in the mosquito only Sporozoites form in the body of the mosquito and infect humans by reproducing asexually, first in liver cells and then in red blood cells

Answers

The accurate statements regarding the feeding and nutrition profiles of unicellular eukaryotes are:

- There are two types of heterotrophs in unicellular eukaryotes, phagotrophs and osmotrophs.

- Phagotrophs are heterotrophs that ingest visible particles of food.

- Osmotrophs are heterotrophs that ingest food in a soluble form.

- Contractile vacuoles are prominent features of unicellular eukaryotes living in both freshwater and marine environments.

Unicellular eukaryotes exhibit various feeding and nutritional strategies. Among these, there are two types of heterotrophs: phagotrophs and osmotrophs. Phagotrophs are organisms that actively ingest visible particles of food, while osmotrophs absorb nutrients in a soluble form. These strategies allow unicellular eukaryotes to obtain the necessary nutrients for their survival and growth.

Contractile vacuoles are specialized organelles found in many unicellular eukaryotes. They play a vital role in maintaining osmotic balance by regulating water content within the cell. Contractile vacuoles are particularly prominent in unicellular eukaryotes living in both freshwater and marine environments, where osmotic conditions may fluctuate. They function by actively pumping excess water out of the cell, preventing it from swelling or bursting.

It's important to note that the given statements accurately describe the feeding and nutrition profiles of unicellular eukaryotes, including the distinction between phagotrophs and osmotrophs and the role of contractile vacuoles in maintaining osmotic balance.

the diverse feeding strategies and adaptations of unicellular eukaryotes to different environments to gain a deeper understanding of their biology and ecological roles.

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Which of the following is a characteristic of all members of the fungi kingdom? O prokaryotic O unicellular O heterotrophic O autotrophic 2 pts

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The characteristic of all members of the fungi kingdom is that they are heterotrophic in nature. Therefore, the correct option is "O heterotrophic".

Fungi are eukaryotic organisms, and they have a separate kingdom in taxonomy, called the Fungi Kingdom.

Members of this kingdom can range from the microscopic, single-celled yeasts to the massive, multicellular fungi-like mushrooms, to the decomposing mycelium webs that sprawl across a forest floor. In their ecological roles, fungi can be decomposers, plant pathogens, mutualistic symbionts, and predators.

Heterotrophic means "feeding on other organisms" or "consumers."

Fungi belong to the category of heterotrophs because they do not produce their own food.

Rather than photosynthesize like plants, they acquire their nutrition by absorbing organic compounds and minerals from other organisms.

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We want to map the distance between genes A (green color), B (rough leaf), and C (normal fertility). Each gene has a recessive allele (a= yellow, b-glossy and c-variable). Results from the mating are as follow: 1) Green, rough, normal: 85 2) Yellow, rough, normal: 45 3) Green, rough, variable: 4 4) Yellow, rough, variable: 600 5) Green, glossy, normal: 600 6) Yellow, glossy, normal: 5 7) Green, glossy, variable: 50 8) Yellow, glossy, variable: 90 The double crossover progeny can be observed in the phenotype #s 3 (green, rough, variable) with its corresponding genotype ____ and 6 (yellow, glossy, normal) with its Based on the information from the table corresponding genotype _____ and the previous question, the gene in the middle is ____

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The results from the mating used to map the distance between genes A (green color), B (rough leaf), and C (normal fertility) are as follow

Green, rough, normal: 85Yellow, rough, normal: 45Green, rough, variable: 4Yellow, rough, variable: 600Green, glossy, normal: 600Yellow, glossy, normal: 5Green, glossy, variable: 50Yellow, glossy, variable: 90Double crossover progeny can be observed in the phenotype

#s 3 (green, rough, variable) with its corresponding genotype GgBbCc and 6 (yellow, glossy, normal) with its corresponding genotype ggBBcc. We can now map the distance between genes A, B, and C:1. Find the parent phenotype that has the most crossovers with the double crossover phenotype:Green, glossy, variable:

50 crossovers.

2. Find the percentage of offspring of the parent phenotype that had the double crossover phenotype:

4/50 × 100 = 8%.3. Find the percentage of offspring with a single crossover between the middle gene and the gene nearest the middle gene by subtracting the percentage of offspring with no crossovers from the percentage of offspring with any crossover:

100% - (85 + 45 + 600 + 5) = 100% - 735 = 26.5%.

4. Find the percentage of offspring with a single crossover between the middle gene and the gene furthest from the middle gene by subtracting the percentage of offspring with no crossovers from the percentage of offspring with any crossover:

100% - (85 + 45 + 600 + 5) = 100% - 735 = 26.5%.5. Add the results from steps 2, 3, and 4:

8% + 26.5% + 26.5% = 61%.6. The remaining percentage (100% - 61% = 39%) represents offspring with double crossovers between the gene furthest from the middle gene and the gene nearest the middle gene.

7. The gene in the middle is the gene that has the highest percentage of single crossovers (step 3 and step 4). Therefore, gene B (rough leaf) is in the middle.

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