Marketing analytics is becoming an important subject, and its demand is growing rapidly in many industries. ONE of the following statements about marketing analytics IS INCORRECT. Which one?
A. The marketing analytics cannot analyze the human communication data, because voice communication cannot be converted to the digitized data, thus not suitable for quantitative marketing analysis
B. Explosive growth and availability of the big data call for the experts with analytical skills
C. The data generated by the social media of the peer to peer communication present the opportunity for the marketing analytics to study the word of mouth communication.
D. The growing opportunities for the marketing analytics are not limited to the emergence of the marketing big data but also the data collected from the surveillance footage and medical devices.

Answers

Answer 1

The incorrect statement about marketing analytics is A. While it is true that voice communication cannot be easily converted into digitized data, there are still ways to analyze human communication data.

For example, sentiment analysis tools can analyze the tone and emotional cues in voice communication to derive insights about customer preferences and behaviors. Additionally, there are other forms of data, such as customer feedback surveys or call transcripts, that can be used to understand customer communication patterns. The explosive growth of big data, as mentioned in statement B, is indeed calling for more analytical skills in the field of marketing. Statements C and D are also correct, as social media and various other sources of data provide ample opportunities for marketing analytics to study and analyze customer behavior and preferences.

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Related Questions

China's large population is an appealing factor to American firms. What does this mean to American firms interested in competing in new markets? Group of answer choices Diversification of business risk Diversification of social risk Lower costs Higher costs Greater access to new potential customers

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China's large population presents American firms with the opportunity for greater access to new potential customers and diversification of business risk. This appeal is significant for companies looking to expand and compete in new markets.

In the context of international business, China's vast population provides a huge consumer base for American firms to tap into. This can lead to increased sales, revenue, and market share, thereby strengthening their global presence. Moreover, with a diverse customer base, firms can reduce their reliance on a single market, lowering the risk of economic downturns or market fluctuations affecting their overall business performance.

Furthermore, the diversification of business risk is essential for American firms as they venture into new markets. By expanding their operations to a market as large as China, companies can distribute their risks more evenly, ensuring that no single market's performance determines their overall success. This diversification allows businesses to adapt and thrive in a dynamic global economy, ensuring long-term stability and growth.

In summary, China's large population offers appealing opportunities for American firms interested in competing in new markets. These opportunities include greater access to potential customers and diversification of business risk, both of which contribute to a more robust and successful global business strategy.

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A company using US GAAP changes its inventory cost assumption from weighted average cost to last in first out (LIFO) is required to apply this change in accounting principle: retrospectively, and disclose the new cost flow method being used prospectively, and explain the reasons for the change in the financial statement disclosures retrospectively, and explain the reasons for the change in the financial statement disclosures

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When a company changes its inventory cost assumption from weighted average cost to LIFO, it must comply with the requirements of US GAAP regarding changes in accounting principle.

By applying the change retrospectively, disclosing the new cost flow method, and explaining the reasons for the change in the financial statement disclosures, the company can ensure that its financial statements are accurate, transparent, and in compliance with US GAAP.

When a company using US GAAP changes its inventory cost assumption from weighted average cost to last in first out (LIFO), it is required to apply this change in accounting principle retrospectively. This means that the company must adjust its financial statements for all prior periods to reflect the new cost flow method.

The company must also disclose the new cost flow method being used prospectively, which means that it must disclose how it will be using LIFO going forward.

In addition to these requirements, the company must explain the reasons for the change in the financial statement disclosures. This includes disclosing the circumstances that led to the change and the impact that the change had on the financial statements.

This information must be included in the notes to the financial statements, and it must be presented in a clear and concise manner so that users of the financial statements can understand the reasons for the change.

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reserves helds by banks (res) are $10,000. currency held by nonbank public (cu) is $4,000. the quantity of money (m) is $70,000. what is the value of the money multiplier?

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The value of the money multiplier can be calculated using the formula: money multiplier = 1 / reserve requirement ratio.

To find the reserve requirement ratio, we need to first calculate the total reserves in the banking system. This can be done by adding the reserves held by banks (res) and the currency held by the nonbank public (cu):

Total reserves = res + cu = $10,000 + $4,000 = $14,000

Next, we can use the quantity theory of money equation:

m = (1 + c) x (res + cu)

where c is the currency-to-deposit ratio. We can rearrange this equation to solve for c:

c = (m / (res + cu)) - 1

Plugging in the given values, we get:

c = ($70,000 / $14,000) - 1 = 4

Now, we can calculate the reserve requirement ratio:

reserve requirement ratio = 1 / (1 + c) = 1 / (1 + 4) = 0.2

Finally, we can use the formula for the money multiplier:

money multiplier = 1 / reserve requirement ratio = 1 / 0.2 = 5

Therefore, the value of the money multiplier is 5.

The money multiplier is a measure of how much the money supply can increase for each dollar increase in reserves held by banks. It is determined by the reserve requirement ratio, which is the fraction of deposits that banks are required to hold as reserves. When the reserve requirement ratio is lower, the money multiplier is higher, and vice versa. In this case, we calculated the reserve requirement ratio using the given values for reserves held by banks, currency held by the nonbank public, and the quantity of money. We then used the formula for the money multiplier to find its value.

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when making an ethical analysis, you should get all the pertinent facts and thena. determine the affected. b. list options. c. search for precedents. d. make a decision

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When making an ethical analysis, it is important to take a systematic approach that involves a comprehensive assessment of all the relevant information. This typically involves gathering all the pertinent facts, including any relevant laws, regulations, and policies that may be applicable.

Once all the information has been collected, the next step is to determine who will be affected by the decision that is being made. This may include stakeholders such as employees, customers, shareholders, and the wider community. It is important to consider the potential impact that each option may have on these groups, as well as any potential consequences or risks that may arise.

After the affected parties have been identified, it is important to list out all possible options and alternatives that are available. This may include considering the various trade-offs and weighing the potential benefits and drawbacks of each option. It is also helpful to search for precedents that may provide guidance or insight into similar situations that have arisen in the past. This can help to identify best practices or potential pitfalls to avoid.

Finally, based on all the information and analysis that has been conducted, a decision should be made. This decision should be grounded in ethical principles and values, and should be communicated clearly and transparently to all parties who will be affected. Overall, an ethical analysis should be a thoughtful and deliberate process that prioritizes the well-being of all stakeholders involved.

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True/False: a firm with market power will find that the quantity of output that maximizes revenue is lower than the quantity at which profits are maximized.

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True.

A firm with market power has the ability to influence the price of its product or service. This means that it can charge a higher price than it would in a perfectly competitive market. However, as the firm increases its price, the quantity demanded decreases. Therefore, the firm must balance the higher price with the lower quantity demanded in order to maximize its revenue.

At some point, the firm will find that further increases in price result in a decrease in total revenue. This is because the decrease in quantity demanded outweighs the increase in price. The quantity of output that maximizes revenue occurs where the marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

On the other hand, the quantity of output that maximizes profits occurs where marginal revenue equals marginal cost and marginal cost is rising. This means that the firm is producing at a point where the cost of producing an additional unit is increasing. Therefore, the firm will produce a lower quantity of output at a higher price to maximize profits.

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if jasmine does not deposit her money in bank c, what will the money supply be? remember to answer in dollars to two decimal places. $____

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If jasmine does not deposit her money in bank c, remember to answer in dollars to two decimal places $1900.0.

Jasmine's decision not to deposit money affects the money supply by lowering the quantity of bank deposits that an account holder can easily convert to cash.

The drop in bank deposits reduces the money supply. If Jasmine does not deposit her money in bank C, remember to answer in dollars to two decimal places. $1900.0

As a result, the significance of the money supply be are the aforementioned.

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Job enrichment involves changing Finish at Select one: O a. The jobs title O b. The jobs pay structure O c. One or more of the job's characteristics O d. The scope of responsibility of the job

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Job enrichment involves changing one or more of the job's characteristics.

To elaborate, job enrichment aims to enhance employee satisfaction and motivation by providing more challenging and fulfilling tasks, increased responsibility, and opportunities for growth and development.

This is done by altering various aspects of the job, such as task variety, autonomy, and feedback, which ultimately lead to a more engaged and satisfied workforce.

Some common job enrichment strategies include job rotation, where employees rotate through different roles, and task significance, where employees are given tasks with a direct impact on the organization's success.

By enriching a job's characteristics, employers can improve employee performance and job satisfaction, leading to increased productivity and reduced turnover.

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a. What is the effect of changes in gasoline prices on the demand for restaurant meals?
b. Is gasoline an economic complement of a restaurant meal?
c. Are restaurant meals an economic complement of gasoline?

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When gasoline prices increase, consumers may choose to eat out less frequently or opt for less expensive dining options. This is because higher gasoline prices can lead to an increase in the cost of transportation, making it more expensive for consumers to dine out.

a. Changes in gasoline prices can have a significant effect on the demand for restaurant meals. When gasoline prices increase, consumers may choose to eat out less frequently or opt for less expensive dining options. This is because higher gasoline prices can lead to an increase in the cost of transportation, making it more expensive for consumers to dine out. Additionally, when gasoline prices are high, consumers may feel the need to cut back on their overall spending, which can include eating out.
b. Gasoline can be seen as an economic complement of a restaurant meal, as it is often required for consumers to travel to a restaurant. When gasoline prices are low, consumers may be more likely to dine out, as the cost of transportation is lower. However, when gasoline prices increase, it may become less economically feasible for consumers to eat out, and they may opt for other options such as cooking at home.
c. Restaurant meals are not necessarily an economic complement of gasoline, as they are not required for the consumption of gasoline. While consumers may choose to dine out before or after filling up their gas tank, the two goods are not directly related to each other in terms of consumption. However, changes in gasoline prices can still have an indirect effect on the demand for restaurant meals, as discussed in the answer to part a.

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Q1. You work in the investment bank. 'You have been asked to make a dividend payment to a customer for a security they held . They were supposed to receive 70usd, but they only received 20usd.
Please choose the best effective choice and least effective choice respectively.
1. Call the client and explain this was a mitake. You also confirm if he is satisfied with 50usd.
2. Ask a collegue how to handle the issue. Then you work with him to resolve the error.
3. Take time to thoroughly investigate why the error happened, before informing the client.
Q2. While you are researching the issue, the customer emails you to ask why he only received 20usd. He is upset and seeks prompt response.
You inform the settlement team who are responsible for investigating and solving the payment discrepancy.
Please choose the best effective choice and least effective choice respectively.
1. Inform the client that the settlement department is activately addressing the problem, and provide the information asap after it's clear why the payment discrepancy happened.
2. tell the customer that you're working with the settlement team to provide him with 50usd asap.
3. Wait to respond to the client until you get all information from the settlement team to address the client's question.
Q3. Before you reply the client's email, the client emails your line manager and informs him of the 50usd discrepancy and your failure to respond to his email.
The manager is upset that you did not inform him of the issue or respond to the client. How would you respond to the manager?
Please choose the best effective choice and least effective choice respectively.
1.Apologize to the manager and inform him that you will contact with the custmer for apologize the delay and assure him you're resolving the problem quickly.
2. Apologize to the manager and inform him that you're working with settlement team to improve the issue, though they have not yet responded.
3. Apologize to the manager and inform him that you were investigating this problem by yourself before contact the client without all of the necessary information.

Answers

The most effective choice would be to choose option 3, take time to thoroughly investigate why the error happened, before informing the client. This will help you to understand the root cause of the error and prevent it from happening again in the future. The least effective choice would be to choose option 1, call the client and explain this was a mistake. This may not provide a solution to the problem and may not address the client's concerns adequately.

Q1. Option 1, call the client and explain this was a mistake, may not provide an adequate solution to the problem and may not address the client's concerns. This option also does not address the root cause of the problem. Option 2, ask a colleague how to handle the issue, may be helpful in seeking guidance, but it may not provide an efficient resolution to the issue. Option 3, take time to thoroughly investigate why the error happened before informing the client, would be the most effective choice. This option will help identify the root cause of the issue and prevent it from happening in the future. It will also provide the client with a more informed and comprehensive explanation of the situation.

Q2. The best effective choice would be to choose option 1, inform the client that the settlement department is actively addressing the problem, and provide the information asap after it's clear why the payment discrepancy happened. This will reassure the client that their concern is being taken seriously and being addressed promptly. The least effective choice would be to choose option 2, tell the customer that you're working with the settlement team to provide him with 50usd asap. This may not be accurate and could potentially create further issues.

Option 1, inform the client that the settlement department is actively addressing the problem, and provide the information asap after it's clear why the payment discrepancy happened, would be the best effective choice. This option reassures the client that their concern is being addressed and provides a timeline for when they can expect a resolution. Option 2, tell the customer that you're working with the settlement team to provide him with 50usd asap, may not be an accurate solution and could create further issues. Option 3, wait to respond to the client until you get all information from the settlement team to address the client's question, may cause frustration for the client due to the delay in response.

Q3. The most effective choice would be to choose option 1, apologize to the manager and inform him that you will contact with the customer for apologize the delay and assure him you're resolving the problem quickly. This shows accountability and willingness to rectify the situation. The least effective choice would be to choose option 3, apologize to the manager and inform him that you were investigating this problem by yourself before contacting the client without all of the necessary information. This may come across as deflecting responsibility and not taking accountability for the situation.

Option 1, apologize to the manager and inform him that you will contact with the customer for apologize the delay and assure him you're resolving the problem quickly, would be the most effective choice. This option shows accountability and a willingness to rectify the situation. Option 2, apologize to the manager and inform him that you're working with the settlement team to improve the issue, though they have not yet responded, may not provide a clear solution or timeline for resolution. Option 3, apologize to the manager and inform him that you were investigating this problem by yourself before contacting the client without all of the necessary information, may come across as deflecting responsibility and not taking accountability for the situation.

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john moved his office from a building he was renting downtown to the carriage house he owns behind his house. how will his profit change?a. explicit and implicit costs rise b. explicit and implicit costs fall c. explicit costs rise; implicit costs fall d. explicit costs fall; implicit costs rise e. not enough information is given

Answers

When John moves his office from a building he was renting downtown to the carriage house he owns behind his house, his explicit costs fall; implicit costs rise. Option d is correct.

The profit change for John will depend on the differences in explicit and implicit costs. Explicit costs are direct, out-of-pocket expenses, such as rent, utilities, and maintenance. Implicit costs represent the opportunity costs associated with using resources in one way rather than their next best alternative use.

When John moves his office to the carriage house, his explicit costs are likely to fall because he no longer has to pay rent for the downtown office. He may also experience reduced utility and maintenance expenses. However, the implicit costs may rise as John now has to forgo the potential income he could have earned by renting out the carriage house to someone else or using it for another purpose.

Based on this information, the answer is (d) explicit costs fall; implicit costs rise. However, it is important to note that the overall impact on John's profit will depend on the specific costs and benefits associated with each option, which is not provided in the question.

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Steve and Emma live in Portland. Steve's net present value of lifetime earnings in Seattle is $125,000, while Emma's is $500,000. The cost of moving to Chicago is $25,000 per person. In Chicago, Steve's net present value of lifetime earnings would be $155,000, while Emma's would be $510,000. If Steve and Emma choose where to live based on their joint well-being, will they move to Chicago? Is Steve a tied- mover or a tied-stayer or neither? Is Emma a tied-mover or a tied-stayer or neither?

Answers

Steve is a tied mover and Emma is also a tied mover

To determine whether Steve and Emma will move to Chicago, we need to calculate their joint well-being in Portland and in Chicago.

In Portland, their joint well-being is the sum of their net present values of lifetime earnings:

Steve's NPV + Emma's NPV = $125,000 + $500,000 = $625,000

In Chicago, their joint well-being is:

Steve's NPV + Emma's NPV = $155,000 + $510,000 = $665,000

Therefore, their joint well-being would be higher in Chicago than in Portland, by $40,000.

The cost of moving to Chicago is $25,000 per person, so the total cost for Steve and Emma would be $50,000.

To determine whether they will move, we need to compare the increase in joint well-being with the cost of moving.

The increase in joint well-being is $40,000, while the cost of moving is $50,000. Therefore, it is not financially rational for Steve and Emma to move to Chicago.

Steve is a tied-stayer because his net present value of lifetime earnings is higher in Portland than in Chicago, and he is therefore tied to his current location.

Emma is a tied-mover because her net present value of lifetime earnings is higher in both Portland and Chicago, but the difference is not large enough to justify the cost of moving.

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which panel shows a competitive firm making positive economic profits? a) Panel A. b) Panel B. c) Panel C. d) Panel D.

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The panel that shows a competitive firm making positive economic profits would be Panel C.

In order to answer this question, we need to understand the concept of economic profits and how it relates to the behavior of firms in a competitive market. Economic profits refer to the difference between total revenue and total costs, including both explicit and implicit costs. In a perfectly competitive market, firms are price takers and they have no market power. As such, they earn zero economic profits in the long run, since any positive profits would attract new entrants to the market, increasing supply and driving down prices.
This panel shows a situation where the marginal cost curve intersects the market price at a point where the average total cost (ATC) curve is below the price. This means that the firm is able to cover all its costs, including the opportunity cost of the resources it uses, and still make a profit. The area between the ATC curve and the price line represents the firm's economic profits.
It's important to note that this situation is not sustainable in the long run in a perfectly competitive market. Other firms will see the profits being made and enter the market, increasing supply and driving down prices. This will result in lower economic profits for all firms, until they reach zero in the long run. Thus, while a firm may make positive economic profits in the short run, it cannot do so indefinitely in a perfectly competitive market.

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Express the proposition as an English sentence and determine whether it is true or false, where p and q are the propositions p: 9.9=81" 4. "8.10< 7.11 The contrapositive of p9 O A. If 8.10 is not less than 7. 11, then 9.9 is not equal to 81, false OB. If 8.10 is less than 7. 11, then 9.9 is not equal to 81, false OC. If 8.10 is not less than 7. 11, then 9.9 is equal to 81, false OD. 18 8.10 is less than 7. 11, then 9.9 is equal to 81, false

Answers

The contrapositive of the proposition "9.9=81" 4. "8.10<7.11" is If 9.9 is not equal to 81, then 8.10 is not less than 7.11, which is true.

The contrapositive of a proposition is formed by negating both the hypothesis and the conclusion and reversing the order. In this case, the contrapositive of "9.9=81" 4. "8.10<7.11" is "If 9.9 is not equal to 81, then 8.10 is not less than 7.11." This proposition is true because if 9.9 is not equal to 81, then the first proposition is false, which means that 8.10 cannot be less than 7.11 since it is the second part of the proposition. Thus, the contrapositive proposition is true.

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true or false firms in the same industry will have the same inventory turns.

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False, firms in the same industry may have different inventory turns due to various factors such as differences in production efficiency, sales volume, and supply chain management.

Inventory turns, also known as inventory turnover, is a financial ratio that measures the number of times a company sells and replaces its inventory within a certain period. A high inventory turnover ratio indicates that a company is selling its inventory quickly and efficiently.

In the same industry, two firms may have different inventory turnover ratios due to differences in their production processes. For example, a company that uses a just-in-time inventory system may have a higher inventory turnover ratio than a company that uses a traditional inventory management system.

Supply chain management can also affect inventory turns. For example, a company that has strong relationships with its suppliers and can quickly restock its inventory may have a higher inventory turnover ratio than a company that experiences frequent supply chain disruptions.

Therefore, firms in the same industry may have different inventory turns due to various factors that impact their production efficiency, sales volume, and supply chain management.

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If a French citizen buys 100 shares of IBM stock on the New York Stock Exchange, the transaction will be recorded as (a) a surplus item in the capital account (b) a deficit item in the capital account (c) a surplus item in the current account (a) a deficit item in the current account (e) a decrease in France's GDP

Answers

When a French citizen buys 100 shares of IBM stock on the New York Stock Exchange, the transaction will be recorded as a deficit item in the current account of France's balance of payments, hence the correct answer is option D)

When a French citizen buys 100 shares of IBM stock on the New York Stock Exchange, the transaction will be recorded as a deficit item in the current account of France's balance of payments. The current account measures the inflow and outflow of goods, services, and investment income between a country and the rest of the world. In this case, the purchase of IBM stock represents an outflow of funds from France to the United States, which is a debit item in the current account. The transaction does not affect the capital account, which records flows of capital such as foreign direct investment and loans between countries. The purchase of stocks is not considered a capital flow, as it represents a transfer of ownership of existing assets rather than the creation of new capital. Finally, the purchase of IBM stock does not directly affect France's GDP. GDP is a measure of the value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders, and the transaction does not involve any production or sale of goods or services within France's borders. However, the purchase of IBM stock could indirectly affect France's economy if it influences the French citizen's investment behavior or the stock market's performance.

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A firm's production function is given by Q = 80 In(Ey + E0 + 1) where Ey and Eo are the number of young and old workers employed by the firm respectively. From this it can be shown that the marginal product 80 of labor is MPE = Suppose the market wage for young worker is $80, the market wage for old Ey+Ep+1 workers is $160, and the price of each unit of output is $40. (a) How many workers of each type would a non-discriminating firm hire?

Answers

A non-discriminating firm would hire one young worker and no old workers if the market wage for young workers is $80, the market wage for old workers is $160, and the price of each unit of output is $40.

To determine how many workers of each type a non-discriminating firm would hire, we need to find the optimal combination of young and old workers that maximizes the firm's profits. To do this, we can use the formula for the marginal product of labor (MPL), which is the change in output resulting from an additional unit of labor.

In this case, the marginal product of labor is [tex]MPE = 80 \times (Ey + E0 + 1)^{(-1)}[/tex] , which tells us how much extra output is produced by each additional worker. To maximize profits, the firm should hire workers until the value of the marginal product of labor is equal to the market wage rate for each type of worker.

Given that the market wage for young workers is $80 and the market wage for old workers is $160, we can set up the following equations to determine the optimal number of workers of each type:

[tex]MPE = \$80 \rightarrow 80 \times (Ey + E0 + 1)^{(-1)} = \$80 \rightarrow (Ey + E0 + 1) = 2[/tex]

[tex]MPE = \$160 \rightarrow 80 \times(Ey + E0 + 1)^{(-1)} = \$160 \rightarrow (Ey + E0 + 1) = 1[/tex]

Solving these equations simultaneously, we get Ey = 1 and E0 = 0. This means that the non-discriminating firm would hire one young worker and no old workers to maximize profits.

In summary, a non-discriminating firm would hire one young worker and no old workers if the market wage for young workers is $80, the market wage for old workers is $160, and the price of each unit of output is $40. The firm should hire workers until the value of the marginal product of labor is equal to the market wage rate for each type of worker.

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the most important factor in determining long term performance of an investmentportfolio is...

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The most important factor in determining long-term performance of an investment portfolio is asset allocation.

Asset allocation refers to the way in which an investor distributes their investment portfolio across different asset classes, such as stocks, bonds, and cash. It is widely believed that asset allocation is the most important factor in determining long-term performance because it is responsible for a majority of an investor's returns. This is because different asset classes perform differently over time, and by diversifying across multiple asset classes, investors can mitigate risk and potentially achieve higher returns.

Furthermore, proper asset allocation is key to achieving an investor's goals, such as generating income or preserving capital. It is important to regularly review and adjust asset allocation as market conditions change and an investor's goals evolve.

While factors such as individual security selection and market timing can also impact performance, research has shown that asset allocation is the primary driver of investment returns over the long term. Therefore, it is crucial for investors to carefully consider and construct their asset allocation strategy in order to achieve their desired long term performance.

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how much would you have in 4 years if you purchased a $1,000 4-year savings certificate that paid 2ompounded quarterly? (round your answer to the nearest cent.)

Answers

If you purchased a $1,000 4-year savings certificate that paid 2% compounded quarterly, you would have approximately $1,083.80 in 4 years.

To calculate the amount you would have in 4 years if you purchased a $1,000 4-year savings certificate that paid 2% compounded quarterly. we need to use the compound interest formula: A = P(1 + r/n)^(n*t)
where A is the final amount, P is the principal (in this case, $1,000), r is the annual interest rate (2%), n is the number of times interest is compounded per year (4), and t is the time period (4 years).



Plugging in these values, we get:
A = 1000(1 + 0.02/4)^(4*4)
A = 1000(1 + 0.005)^16
A = 1000(1.005)^16
A = 1000(1.0838)
A = $1,083.80



Therefore, if you purchased a $1,000 4-year savings certificate that paid 2% compounded quarterly, you would have approximately $1,083.80 in 4 years.

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Compare Reread lines 16-20 "Fatal Car Crashes Drop for 16-year-Olds,Rise For Older Teens. " According to Allison Aubrey, what is one interpretation for the fact that there's been an increase in fatal car crashes among 18- year-olds? How does this interpretation conflict with the quotation in lines 133-135 of "is 16 too young to drive a car

Answers

Allison Aubrey provides an interpretation for the increase in fatal car crashes among 18-year-olds.

According to her, the decrease in the number of fatal car crashes among 16-year-olds is due to the improved restrictions and stricter laws put in place by states, while the increase in the number of fatal car crashes among 18-year-olds is because they aren't covered by the same laws.According to the text, "Fatal Car Crashes Drop for 16-year-Olds, Rise for Older Teens," by Allison Aubrey, there has been a significant decrease in fatal car crashes among 16-year-olds, but there has also been a significant increase in fatal car crashes among 18-year-olds.

Aubrey implies that the decrease in the number of fatal car crashes among 16-year-olds is due to the improved restrictions and stricter laws put in place by states to help reduce accidents and improve safety.However, the interpretation of this fact contradicts the quotation in lines 133-135 of "Is 16 too young to drive a car?" The author of "Is 16 too young to drive a car?" states that 16-year-olds are too young to drive cars and that raising the driving age to 18 or 21 will help reduce the number of fatal car crashes among teens.

Meanwhile, Aubrey implies that 18-year-olds are involved in more fatal car crashes because they aren't covered by the same laws as 16-year-olds. Hence, this interpretation of the increase in fatal car crashes among 18-year-olds conflicts with the quotation in lines 133-135 of "Is 16 too young to drive a car?"

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true/false. a mixed cost has both selling and administrative cost elements.

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The given statement, a mixed cost has both selling and administrative cost elements is true because A mixed cost is a combination of fixed and variable costs.

It is a type of cost that cannot be easily classified as either a fixed or variable cost. Mixed costs include both fixed and variable elements, and represent a combination of the two. For example, a company may have a fixed cost for rent, and a variable cost for utilities. As the company increases production and sales, the variable cost will increase, while the fixed cost will remain the same.

A mixed cost is also referred to as a semi-variable cost. It is important for a company to understand the cost structure of its mixed costs so that it can properly allocate and budget funds. By understanding the fixed and variable elements, a company can better anticipate the cost of doing business, and make informed decisions regarding production, sales, and marketing.

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Stambovsky, to his horror, discovered that the house he recently purchased was commonly known to be possessed by poltergeists. Ackley, the seller of the house, had widely publicized their presence in local media and on a walking tour of the Village of Nyak, New York, where the house was located. Ackley did not disclose this characteristic of the property in the sale.
Stambovsky believed that the potential "haunting" should have been disclosed and he sought to rescind the sale. Ackley refused and a law suit resulted.
Did the seller have a duty to disclose to the buyer the fact the house was haunted?
How should the court decide? What factors should be considered?

Answers

Stambovsky, it depends on the laws of the state where the sale occurred. In some states, sellers are required to disclose any known defects or material facts that could affect the value or desirability of the property.This could include issues such as a leaky roof, a faulty foundation, or in this case, a haunted house.

Assuming that the state where the sale occurred does require such disclosures, the court would need to determine whether the fact that the house was haunted qualified as a material fact. This would likely involve considering factors such as the severity of the haunting, whether it could be reasonably discovered by the buyer through a routine inspection, and whether it could affect the value or desirability of the property.

Additionally, the court may consider the seller's actions in relation to the haunting. In this case, Ackley had widely publicized the haunting, suggesting that she was aware of its existence and believed it could be a selling point for the property. This could be seen as an admission that the haunting was a material fact that should have been disclosed to the buyer. And would require careful consideration of the specific facts and laws involved.

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A 22-year-old man came to his physician as a part of investigation of the cause of infertility of his marriage of two years. Physical examination revealed a healthy young man with normal secondary sex characteristics by without testes in the scrotal sac. Examination of a specimen of semen failed to demonstrate the presence of spermatozoa. The laboratory values were as follows: Urinary gonadotrophins 12 RU/24 hours (normal) Plasma testosterone 7 micrograms for 700 ng/dl - normal range 300 - 1050 ng/dL) At surpery the testes were found in the inguinal canals. Histologic examination of biopsy material showed fibrosis and degeneration of the opithelium of the serniniferous tubules QUESTIONS 1. What hormone are necessary to sustain spermatogenesis? Are the amounts of hormone adequate in this man? How is this man's situation similar to the lack of beard growth in the American Indian? Why has spermatogenesis failed in this patient? 1(a) 1(b) 1 (c)1 (d)2. What factors control FSH secretion in this male? 2 3. What factors control LH secretion in this male? 3 4 What hormone is directly responsible for the male secondary sex characteristics?

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1. (a) The hormones necessary to sustain spermatogenesis are follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone. (b) The amount of testosterone in this man is within the normal range, but since he has no testes in the scrotal sac, it is likely that his FSH levels are low.

(c) This man's situation is similar to the lack of beard growth in American Indians because both are examples of genetic conditions that affect the development of male secondary sex characteristics. (d) Spermatogenesis has failed in this patient because his testes are located in the inguinal canals instead of descending into the scrotum during fetal development. This can lead to impaired sperm production and infertility.

2. FSH secretion in this male is controlled by the negative feedback loop between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and testes. Low levels of testosterone and inhibin (produced by the testes) stimulate the hypothalamus to produce gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which then stimulates the pituitary gland to release FSH.

3. LH secretion in this male is also controlled by the negative feedback loop between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and testes. Low levels of testosterone and inhibin stimulate the hypothalamus to produce GnRH, which then stimulates the pituitary gland to release LH.

4. Testosterone is directly responsible for male secondary sex characteristics, including the growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle development.

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An organization invites a marketing research supplier to submit a proposal for a study .the organization hopes to gain information about how the study would best be performed. since the supplier is huge ,very profitable,and will likely use lower staff to do the proposal,it is not an ethical issue. true or false ?

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It is not accurate to say that the ethical aspect of the situation depends on the size and profitability of the marketing research supplier. Ethical considerations in business extend beyond the size or profitability of an organization is False.

Ethics in business encompasses a set of principles and values that guide the conduct of individuals and organizations. The ethical issue in this scenario relates to the fairness and transparency of the proposal process, rather than the size or profitability of the supplier.

Regardless of the supplier's size or profitability, it is important to ensure a level playing field and provide equal opportunities to all potential suppliers. Organizations should aim to create a fair and competitive environment where suppliers have a fair chance to present their proposals based on their capabilities and expertise.

Using lower staff to prepare a proposal may raise concerns about the quality, accuracy, and comprehensiveness of the study proposal. It is essential to evaluate the supplier based on their qualifications, experience, and ability to meet the organization's research objectives rather than making assumptions solely based on their size or profitability.

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Determine which statements are true and which are false regarding the Phillips Curve: a) it is possible to have high inflation and high unemployment; b) the multiplier tells the relation between inflation and unemployment; c) MPC determines the slope of the Phillips Curve; d) MPS determines the slope of the Phillips Curve; e) the Phillips Curve predicts that inflation and unemployment will be at their lowest levels when we are at potential GDP; f) the same Phillips that discovered the curve invented the Phillips head screwdriver; g) the Phillips Curve is a pitch invented by Brandon Phillips; h) the Phillips Curve is constant over time; i) the Phillips Curve shows the short run relationship between inflation and unemployment.

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Answer:

Here are the true and false statements regarding the Phillips Curve:

- a) True

- b) False

- c) False

- d) True

- e) False

- f) False

- g) False

- h) False

- i) True

Explanation:

a) It is true that high inflation and high unemployment can occur at the same time, contradicting the traditional relationship captured by the Phillips Curve. b) This statement is false. The multiplier shows the effect of changes in spending or investment on the economy, but not the relation between inflation and unemployment. c) This statement is false. The MPC (marginal propensity to consume) is a term used in Keynesian economics to express how an increase in income leads to an increase in consumption spending, but it does not determine the slope of the Phillips Curve. d) This statement is true. The MPS (marginal propensity to save) determines the slope of the Phillips Curve, as it captures the relationship between inflation and labor supply. A higher MPS results in a flatter Phillips Curve, while a lower MPS results in a steeper one. e) This statement is false. The Phillips Curve does not predict the lowest levels of inflation and unemployment at potential GDP, but rather shows a trade-off between them in the short run. f) This statement is false. The Phillips Curve is named after A.W. Phillips, an economist who first observed the inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment in the UK in 1958. g) This statement is false. The Phillips Curve is not a pitch, but rather a graphical representation of the relationship between inflation and unemployment. h) This statement is false. The Phillips Curve is not constant over time, as factors such as changes in expectations, technology, or monetary policy can affect the trade-off between inflation and unemployment. i) This statement is true. The Phillips Curve shows the short run relationship between inflation and unemployment, where a decrease in unemployment is associated with an increase in inflation, and vice versa.

A firm uses public relations to achieve different objectives. What are some of those objectives? Select all that apply.
Check All That Apply
to handle unfavorable stories about the firmto handle unfavorable stories about the firm
to convey a positive image about a firm’s brandto convey a positive image about a firm’s brand
to maintain positive relationships with the mediato maintain positive relationships with the media
to separate the firm from its stakeholdersto separate the firm from its stakeholders
to build up firm equity to ensure sustainable competitive advantageto build up firm equity to ensure sustainable competitive advantage

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Public relations (PR) is a strategic communication tool used by firms to achieve various objectives. Some of these objectives include A: to handle unfavorable stories about the firm, C: to convey a positive image about a firm’s brand, D: to convey a positive image about a firm’s brand, and F: to build up firm equity to ensure sustainable competitive advantage.

A) Handling unfavorable stories about the firm: PR helps manage and address negative publicity or unfavorable stories that may arise, allowing the firm to protect its reputation and maintain public trust.

C) Conveying a positive image about a firm's brand: PR plays a crucial role in shaping and promoting a positive perception of the firm's brand among its target audience and stakeholders.

D) Maintaining positive relationships with the media: PR professionals work to establish and maintain strong relationships with the media, ensuring favorable coverage and effective communication with journalists and reporters.

F) Building up firm equity to ensure sustainable competitive advantage: PR efforts focus on enhancing the overall reputation and value of the firm, contributing to long-term success and a competitive edge in the market.

Options A, C, D, and F are the correct answers.

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After a housing bust that reduces exogenous investment,Keynesian countercyclical policy is A. Raise government spending B.Raise taxes C.Reduce government spending D.Both B and C E.None of the above

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After a housing bust that reduces exogenous investment, Keynesian countercyclical policy would involve raising government spending so that the correct answer is option (A).

Keynesian economics focuses on stimulating demand to mitigate the negative effects of economic downturns. In the context of a housing bust that reduces exogenous investment, this would entail an increase in government spending to boost aggregate demand and stabilize the economy. By implementing expansionary fiscal policies, such as increased infrastructure projects or direct financial support to households, the government can help counter the negative effects of the housing bust and support economic recovery.

Raising taxes (Option B) or reducing government spending (Option C) would be contractionary fiscal policies, which are not appropriate during an economic downturn as they would reduce demand and further exacerbate the situation. Therefore, Options B, C, and D are not correct. In conclusion, the appropriate Keynesian countercyclical policy in this situation is to raise government spending (Option A).

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True/False Based on its 1Q 2014 press release, the Coca-Cola Company did not have any restructuring charges during the quarter.

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The given statement is true because  According to the Coca-Cola Company's 1Q 2014 press release, the company did not report any restructuring charges during the quarter.

The press release mentions that the company had a 2% increase in net revenues and a 6% increase in global volume compared to the same period in the previous year. The press release also highlights the company's focus on driving long-term sustainable growth and investing in key markets, brands, and capabilities.

However, there is no mention of any restructuring charges in the press release, indicating that the company did not incur any such charges during the first quarter of 2014. It is worth noting that restructuring charges can occur when a company reorganizes or makes significant changes to its operations, such as closing facilities or laying off employees.

As there is no mention of such charges in the press release, it can be concluded that the Coca-Cola Company did not incur any restructuring charges during the first quarter of 2014.

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During the Iran-Iraq war, the same arms merchant often sold weapons to both sides of the conflict. In this situation, a different price could be offered to each side because there was little danger that the country offered the lower price would sell arms to its rival to profit on the difference in prices. Suppose a French arms merchant has a monopoly of Exocet air-to-sea missiles and is willing to sell them to both sides. Iraq's demand for Exocets is P = 400 – 0.5Q and Iran's is P = 300 – Q, where P is in millions of dollars. The marginal cost of Exocets is MC = Q. What price will be charged to each country?

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The price French arms merchant will charge Iraq is 300 million dollars and Iran is 200 million dollars for the Exocet air-to-sea missiles.

To find the optimal prices charged to each country, the French arms merchant should maximize their profit by equating the marginal revenue (MR) to the marginal cost (MC) for each country.

For Iraq:

Demand: P = 400 - 0.5Q

To find MR, we first find the total revenue (TR) by multiplying P and Q, then differentiate TR with respect to Q.

TR = P * Q = (400 - 0.5Q) * Q

MR = d(TR)/dQ = 400 - Q

Now, equate MR to MC and solve for Q:

400 - Q = Q

Q = 200

Now, find the price for Iraq using the demand equation:

P = 400 - 0.5Q = 400 - 0.5(200) = 300 million dollars

For Iran:

Demand: P = 300 - Q

Follow the same process to find the MR:

TR = P * Q = (300 - Q) * Q

MR = d(TR)/dQ = 300 - 2Q

Now, equate MR to MC and solve for Q:

300 - 2Q = Q

Q = 100

Now, find the price for Iran using the demand equation:

P = 300 - Q = 300 - 100 = 200 million dollars

So, the French arms merchant will charge Iraq 300 million dollars and Iran 200 million dollars for the Exocet air-to-sea missiles.

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Refer to the following distribution of ages: Ages Number 40 up to 50 10 50 up to 60 28 60 up to 70 12 For the distribution of ages above, what is the relative class frequency for the lowest class?

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The relative class frequency for the lowest class "40 up to 50" in the given distribution of ages is 20%.

The relative class frequency is a measure of the proportion of data points that fall within a particular class or range, expressed as a fraction or percentage. To find the relative class frequency for the lowest class in the given distribution of ages, we need to calculate the class width and total number of observations.

The lowest class in the distribution is "40 up to 50," which has 10 observations. The class width is the difference between the upper and lower limits of the class, which is 50 - 40 = 10.

To calculate the total number of observations, we add up the number of observations in each class: 10 + 28 + 12 = 50.

Now we can calculate the relative class frequency for the lowest class by dividing the number of observations in the lowest class by the total number of observations and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage:

Relative class frequency for 40 up to 50 = (10/50) x 100% = 20%

Therefore, the relative class frequency for the lowest class is 20%. This means that 20% of the total observations fall within the age range of 40 up to 50.

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the amount of revenue that is foregone from an alternative use of cash is called a.differential profit b.opportunity cost c.sunk cost d.differential revenue

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Answer:

The amount of revenue foregone due to the investment in an alternative activity is called an opportunity cost.

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is referred to as the value of the next best alternative foregone.

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