Many prokaryotes that are easily cultured in the lab are human or animal pathogens. Why would these species be more readily cultured than non-pathogenic prokaryotes?.

Answers

Answer 1

Prokaryotes that are pathogenic are more resilient than those that are not. Supplements are more important for non-pathogenic prokaryotes' growth media. For pathogenic prokaryotes, the majority of the essential culture conditions might be assumed.

Why is prokaryotes difficult to culture?

Because they are obligate intracellular parasites and cannot grow outside of a host cell, some bacteria cannot be cultured. Other times, culturable organisms that were previously culturable under stressful circumstances become culturable again.

Do prokaryotes cause disease in people?

Prokaryotes that are harmful to humans exist. As one of the main causes of death worldwide, devastating diseases and plagues have been around since the dawn of time. Emerging diseases are those with a swiftly expanding geographic or incidence range.

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Related Questions

Please help me with penda

Answers

Answer: Either D. or E. but I think its D.

Explanation:

Answer:

Last option is correct

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The region deep to the skin is the __________.
a. hypodermis
b. dermis
c. epidermis
d. stratum functionalis

Answers

A is the answer, i.e., the hypodermis is the region deep to the skin.

The skin has many layers, but majorly, there are three layers: the epidermis, the dermis, and the hypodermis, which lie in the deepest layer of the skin.

The hypodermis is the deepest layer of skin, which is deep into the dermis. It is also called subcutaneous fascia. It contains a large network of collagen and fat cells.

It also contains adipose lobules and skin appendages such as blood vessels, sensory neurons, and hair follicles. It is a connective tissue that connects the dermis with the other underlying structures.

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2)where do restriction endonucleases come from? what is their natural purpose? 3)explain how a restriction endonuclease cuts dna. be sure to identify which type of bond in the dna molecule is broken. 4) what is meant by the term sticky ends? why are sticky ends useful in the research lab?

Answers

Restriction endonucleases come from the Bacteria use limit enzymes to kill viruses – the enzymes assault the viral DNA and smash it into vain fragments.

Sticky ends are primarily used for cloning generation wherein a DNA ligase is used to enroll in DNA fragments into one. Sticky ends facilitate ligation with the aid of using DNA ligase with the aid of using forming hydrogen bonds among complementary bases of the opposite strand. Thus, the sticky ends are higher than the blunt ends.

When a limit endonuclease acknowledges a sequence, it snips thru the DNA molecule with the aid of using catalyzing the hydrolysis (splitting of a chemical bond with the aid of using addition of a water molecule) of the bond among adjoining nucleotides. Phosphodiester bond, DNA may be reduce with the aid of using limit endonucleases (RE).

Endonucleases are enzymes which could hydrolyze the nucleic acid polymer with the aid of using breaking the phosphodiester bond among the phosphate and the pentose at the nucleic acid backbone Restriction enzymes are located in bacteria.

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Red-green color vision is a sex-linked recessive trait Gail (who is heterozygous for red-green color blindness) marries color-blind George If Gail and George have a baby girl, what is the chance that the baby will be color-blind? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100% Gail has an extra-marital affair with Greg, who has normal color vision.

Answers

When George is the father, there is a 50% chance of having a color blind daughter, but when Gerg is the father, all of the girl children are normal, indicating that George is the father. As a conclusion, option B "George only" is the right response.

Because red, green color blindness is an x linked recessive disease, the defective allele is denoted by x' and the normal allele by x. Gail's genotype will be x'x because she is heterozygous for the trait. George is colorblind, so his gemotype is x'y. a hybrid of Gail and George Color blindness is defined as the inability to see colours normally. Color deficiency is another term for it. Color blindness occurs when a person is unable to distinguish between certain colours.

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dna accessibilitywhat would probably not increase the accessibility of the dna for gene transcription?

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Histone H3 (H3K4me) and H4 (hyperacetylated histone H4) methylation is prevalent inaccessible DNA (H4K16ac). These histones concentrate in regions with a high density of genes, active promoters, and replication origins. However, when histone 3 is methylated on lysine residue 27, DNA is hardly ever accessible.

A gene's transcription is increased by transcription factors that act as activators. Repressors lessen transcription. A gene can be turned on or off in particular regions of the body using structures called enhancers and silencers, which are collections of transcription factor binding sites.

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Which cerebral lobe is responsible for voluntary motor function, motivation, memory, mood, and aggression?.

Answers

Answer:

Frontal lobe

Explanation:

The frontal lobe is responsible for initiating and coordinating motor movements; higher cognitive skills, such as problem-solving, thinking, planning, and organizing; and for many aspects of personality and emotional makeup.

5. What is the potential difference if a resistance of 25 ohms produces a
current of 250 amperes?

Answers

Voltage (v) = 250 V

Resistance (R) = 25 Ω,

Determine current (I) =?

We know that from ohm's law

V = I R

I = V/R

I = 250 / 25

I = 10 A

Current in the circuit is 10 Amps

both endocrine and exocrine glands are derived from epithelial tissue. group of answer choices true false

Answers

Both the endocrine and exocrine glands are derived from the epithelial tissue. The sentence is True.

Epithelial tissues give rise to glands, which are the secretory organs and tissues.

Direct ducts connect the exocrine gland to the body's targeted organs, where they secrete the chemicals. Examples of the exocrine glands are: sebaceous and sweat glands (in the skin), salivary glands (oral), Brunner's glands.

The ductless glands, generally known as the endocrine glands, produce hormones into the blood without using a duct.

So, we can say that the sentence is true because the epithelial tissue is whether endocrine and exocrine glands derive.

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two siblings are born to the same parents. one sibling has brown hair, and the other sibling has blonde hair. which statement about the siblings' genetic information is true?

A. their genes are identical.

B. they both carry mutations in their genes.

C. their genes for hair color have been moved to different chromosomes.

D. they have different alleles for hair color.

Answers

Answer: They have different alleles for hair color.

Explanation: an allele is a gene that has one of two or more versions of DNA sequence.

The statement which is true about the siblings' genetic information is that they have different alleles for hair color. Thus, the correct option for this question is D.

What are alleles?

Alleles may be defined as one of two or more DNA sequences that significantly occur at a particular gene locus. A specific pattern in a gene is called an allele which is responsible for numerous traits in living organisms.

According to the context of this question, when siblings are born to the same parents but one of them has brown hair, and the other sibling has blonde hair. This difference in traits is mediated by the presence of different sets of alleles within the organisms. For example, some are dominant and some are recessive.

Therefore, the statement which is true about the siblings' genetic information is that they have different alleles for hair color. Thus, the correct option for this question is D.

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Did you find any sequences in the human genome that were statistically similar to your query sequence?.

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Here, we outline the human genome's whole-genome random shotgun sequencing project.

How similar are human DNA sequences?

Any two people, based on a DNA examination, are 99.9% identical. Several human groups share similar little genetic differences. However, even at a look, one can see the very vast range of unique variations in shapes, sizes, and facial features.

How many sequenced human genomes are there?

In a record-breaking 3.5 years, The Sanger Institute has sequenced 243,633 human genomes. Each genome has 3.05 billion pairs of DNA "letters," and as a benchmark, each genome was sequenced 30 times. Sanger's sequencing teams have managed to establish the order of 21 quadrillion (21 1015) letters of DNA.

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What is the relationship between the relative size of an ion to its neutral atom.

Answers

The relationship between  ion to its neutral atom and relative size of an ion are the radius of a tremendous in is smaller than the radius of a impartial atom.

Taking an electron from a impartial atom to make it a tremendous ion will make the radius smalleThe more the powerful nuclear charge, the greater strongly the outermost electrons are interested in the nucleus and the smaller the atomic radius. Atomic radii lower from left to proper throughout a row and growth from pinnacle to backside down a column.

The Relative Size of Atoms and Their Ions In fact, the terrible ion may be greater than two times as massive because the impartial atom. The best distinction among an atom and its ions is the quantity of electrons that surround the nucleus. Example: A impartial chlorine atom carries 17 electrons, even as a Cl- ion carries 18 electrons.

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Living organisms can be classified as prokaryotes or eukaryotes. Which two structures are common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?.

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The plasma membrane, also known as the cell membrane, and the cytoplasm are the two fundamental components of all prokaryotes and eukaryotes cells.

Eukaryotes are organisms with nuclei in each of their cells. Eukaryotes include all animals, all plants, all fungi, and many unicellular creatures. They are a part of the Eukaryota or Eukarya group of organisms, one of the three categories of life.

Prokaryotes are creatures without a nucleus or other organelles in their cells. Bacteria and archaea, two separate groups of prokaryotes with allegedly distinct evolutionary histories, are divided into. The majority of prokaryotes are tiny, single-celled organisms with a straightforward structure.

Both types of cells have a plasma membrane, also known as the cell membrane, and the cytoplasm.

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After sperm are produced, they enter the first part of the duct system, the __________.

Answers

The epididymis is where the sperm travel to finish developing. The sperm then travel to the sperm duct, also known as the vas deferens.

In what order do sperm flow through quizlet?

Sperm cells travel through a network of channels before leaving the body. Sperm travel through the ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra, and epididymis after leaving the testes.

Where does the sperm travel through the male reproductive system?

Urethra. The external urethral orifice is located at the tip of the urethra runs from the urinary bladder to it. It serves as a conduit for sperm, reproductive fluids, and urine from the urinary system.

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Refer to those brief, often subtle and unintentional biases that people communicate by virtue of what they say, what they do, and the environment they create

Answers

A macroaggression is a racist act directed against everyone of the same race, gender, or group.

Microaggressions, for example, may disparage a person's color, gender, sexual orientation, ethnicity, age, or health status.

People are subjected to microaggressions because they belong — or are believed to belong — to a certain group.

The sender of the message may be unaware that it constitutes a microaggression. A microaggression might be disguised as a praise in some instances. One example is when someone compliments a colleague on how articulate they are or how well they speak English, implying that this is unexpected due to the person's skin color or nationality.

What are the 3 different types of microaggressions?

Microaggressions seem to appear in three forms: microas- sault, microinsult, and microinvalidation.

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the factors that account for an increase in the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity during altitude exposure are:

Answers

The capacity of blood to carry oxygen per 100 mL increases as hematocrit levels rise.

What is the blood's capability for carrying?

Because there are 5 grams of hemoglobin in 100 milliliters of blood, the amount of oxygen that may be bound by that volume of blood is 20.1 milliliters (1.34 milliliters of oxygen per gram of hemoglobin). As a result, 20% of blood can carry oxygen.

What determines how much oxygen the blood can hold?

The amount of oxygen carried by hemoglobin depends on its ability to carry oxygen. Other environmental variables and illnesses, in addition to PO2 P O 2, also have an impact on oxygen supply and carrying capacity. Oxygen-carrying capacity is influenced by carbon dioxide concentrations, blood pH, and body temperature.

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In this investigation, e°cell will be measured with a voltage probe. What is e°cell?.

Answers

The electromotive force (E°cell), also known as cell voltage or cell potential, exists between two half-cells. A reaction's E°cell determines how much force electrons have to move across the system.

In electrochemistry, what is an E cell?

An electrochemical cell is a structure that can produce electrical energy from chemical processes taking place inside of it or use external electrical energy to speed up chemical reactions taking place inside of it. These systems have the ability to transform chemical energy into electrical energy or the other way around.

E cell Class 12: What is it?

Eocell is an acronym for electrochemical cell. ECathode is short for the cathode's standard reduction potential. Eanode is short for the anode's average reduction potential. The reaction is possible if Eocell is positive. The reaction won't occur if Eocell is negative.

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The muscular action that causes air to move into the lungs during inspiration is provided by.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The Diaphragm

Answer:

Contraction of inspiratory muscles

Explanation:

The contraction of inspiratory muscles causes pressure changes, which drive airflow into the lungs. Contraction of the inspiratory muscles: diaphragm and external intercostal muscles actively increase the size of the thorax during inspiration.

Of all the low-mass red dwarfs (0.08 MSun < M < 0.4 MSun) that have formed since the Universe came into being 14 billion years ago, how many of them are presently on the main sequence?
Select one:
a. None of them
b. A few, less than 20%
c. Most of them, more than 80%
d. All of them

Answers

All of them when all the low-mass red dwarfs (0.08 MSun < M < 0.4 MSun) that have formed since the Universe came into being 14 billion years ago.

Option D is correct

What is the final phase of nuclear fusion for a low-mass star like the Sun?

Hydrogen forms a shell around the Carbon, and Helium makes a shell around Hydrogen. The star begins to constrict and heat up, just as a red giant does when it forms. In the shell, carbon and helium start to fuse.

What causes a planet's temperature to rise when greenhouse gas levels rise?

The infrared portion of visible sunlight is absorbed by a planet's surface and sent back to space as infrared radiation. The lower atmosphere becomes warmer as a result of greenhouse gases slowing the escape of this infrared radiation.

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determine the amount of photosynthesis and respiration a plant would undergo at different light levels. place the labels in the table. labels may be used more than once. resethelp

Answers

Photosynthesis is a process that plants and other organisms utilize to transform light energy into chemical energy that may then be released to power the organism's activities via cellular respiration.

Green plants, cyanobacteria (formerly known as blue-green algae), and several species of algae that primarily carry out phytoplankton photosynthesis are examples of photosynthesizing organisms.

Photosynthesis:

0% PAR - LOW

50% PAR - MEDIUM

150% PAR - HIGH

Cellular respiration:

Though not light-dependent, it co-occurs with photosynthesis and can occur in the absence of sunshine. However, because there is less glucose available, the rate of cellular respiration may decrease down (Usually, glucose levels are high during photosynthesis). It happens in mitochondria.

Cellular respiration:

0% PAR - LOW

50% PAR - MEDIUM

150% PAR - HIGH

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as the leaf area index in an ecosystem increases, what happens to total ecosystem respiration and photosynthesis?

Answers

Photosynthesis levels off after initially increasing, but respiration continues to increase.

What is photosynthesis?

In photosynthesis, phototrophs convert light energy into chemical energy. This chemical energy is later used to fuel cellular activities. The chemical energy created is stored in as sugars, which are created from water and carbon dioxide.

Photosynthesis takes place in the chloroplasts through photosynthetic pigments like chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, carotene and xanthophyll.

All green plants and a few other autotrophs use carbon dioxide, water and sunlight and synthesize nutrients by utilizing photosynthesis. Oxygen is the by-product of the photosynthesis process.

Photosynthesis levels off after initially increasing when leaf area index in an ecosystem increases, but respiration continues to increase.

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Describe how many genes and chromosomes can be found in the human body, and how they influence physical appearance and other traits.

Answers

The number of predicted genes in the human genome is variable (around 30,000) while we have 46 chromosomes in somatic cells. These genes may influence physical appearance and other traits when they encode for complex quantitative traits.

What are complex quantitative traits?

Complex quantitative traits are those phenotypic features associated with the influence of genetic environmental factors, as well as the interaction between genetics and environment in order to shape a phenotype.

Some examples of complex quantitative traits include, among others, weight in humans, height in plants and animals (also in humans), etc, which depends on the environment such as the diet of the organism and genetic factors (i.e. genes).

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the complex quantitative traits are those that are associated with genetics and environment and the interaction between genes and environment to shape a given phenotypic trait.

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a developing nation with a rapidly increasing population is reaching its carrying capacity. what change(s) could allow it to increase its carrying capacity? (check all that apply)

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The higher output of agriculture is the first step in increasing population raising carrying capacity. The second increases. Birth control is accessible, followed by water purification facilities.

An ecosystem is described as a system made up of all living things as well as the physical elements that they interact with increasing population. The cycles of nutrients and the movement of energy connect the abiotic and biotic elements.Through the process of photosynthesis, energy is introduced to the system.Animals are crucial in the flow of energy because they eat one another.This causes a transfer of matter and energy to occur within the system.The amount of biomass present is influenced by living things as well.By bacteria breaking down dead plants and animals, nutrients are returned to the soil.

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when you set the simulator for avidian at a mutation rate of 0.001, were there any mutations in the 10 trials you ran?

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This is true that Yes, there are mutations in the 10 trials you ran when you set the simulator for avidian at a mutation rate of 0.001.

A mutation is a change that happens in our DNA series, either due to mistakes when the DNA is reproduced or as the result of incidental determinants to a degree UV light and smoke cigarette. Mutations can result from wrongs in DNA copy all along the formation of cells by dividing, uncovering mutagens, or a circulating quickly infection.

Mutation rates in persons have happened estimated expected similar to 10−4 to 10−6 per deoxyribonucleic acid per production. The rate of nucleotide substitutions is supposed to be 1 in 108 per era, meaning that 30 nucleotide mutations are hopefully wanted in each human female reproductive cell. arrogant no back mutation.

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a 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids). which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus? cdc cells cd8 t-helper cdc10 cells cd4 t-helper

Answers

A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). CD4+ T-helper lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus.

The best chance for vaccination protection is provided by CD4+ T cells, which are essential for preventing Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb) infection. However, little is known about the characteristics of Mtb-specific CD4 T cells that mediate control, and the absence of correlates of protection makes it extremely difficult to develop new, rational vaccines and therapeutic alternatives—both of which are urgently needed. In this article, we discuss the properties of protective CD4 T cells, including recent evidence for IFN-dependent and independent mechanisms of protection, the inadequate protection of terminally differentiated cells, and the importance of T cell migratory capacity for the treatment of Mtb infection. The leading infectious disease-related cause of illness and death among individuals around the world is tuberculosis (TB). According to estimates, Mycobacterium TB (Mtb), which is thought to impact one-third of the world's population, causes 8.7 million new cases of the disease and 1.4 million fatalities per year. Drug-resistant TB strains are becoming more prevalent; in some regions, their frequency peaked in 2011 at 19%.

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Which of the following is not a function (“job”) of peripheral proteins?

Answers

Allowing selective movement of molecules across the membrane is not a function (“job”) of peripheral proteins.

What are peripheral proteins?

A class of physiologically active molecules made of amino acids known as peripheral proteins or peripheral membrane proteins interact with the lipid bilayer on the surface of cell membranes.

Peripheral proteins do not pass through the hydrophobic region of the cell membrane, in contrast to integral membrane proteins.

Instead, peripheral proteins contain unique amino acid sequences that enable them to bind to either integral proteins or the phosphate heads of lipid molecules.

What are the function of peripheral proteins?

Providing support and maintaining the internal cytoskeleton and elements of the extracellular matrix are two of the primary functions of peripheral proteins.

Also helps in communication as act like a vast network for gathering information in many cells.

Allowing selective movement of molecules across the membrane is not a function (“job”) of peripheral proteins.

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which of the following is true of fast glycolytic fibers? group of answer choices high glycogen stores and low in mitochondria variable atp-ase activity and low glycogen storage high in myoglobin and capillary infusion use mainly the mitochondrial phases of respiration to regenerate atp

Answers

They are saved for high-intensity bursts like brief sprints or maximal lifts because they have the greatest force and fastest twitch speed but are also very fatigue-able.

What is glycolytic fibers?

Fast glycolytic muscles have few mitochondria and a limited supply of oxygen. They seem white because they have extremely few myoglobin molecules in them. Due to the enormous diameter of the muscle fibers, a strong contractile force is generated. They contract quickly because they degrade ATP quickly.

Type 2B (FG) fibers obtain the majority of their ATP from anaerobic glycolysis. They are large in diameter and rich in glycogen, which is required in glycolysis to swiftly make ATP and raise tension levels.

Skeletal muscle fibers come in two varieties: type I slow-twitch and type II fast-twitch (type II). Fast-twitch muscle fibers assist short, strong actions like sprinting or weightlifting, while slow-twitch muscle fibers support long distance endurance sports like marathon running.

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if an animal is selecting food items that maximize its energy intake per unit of time spent in this endeavor, a researcher would say that this is an example of

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if an animal is selecting food items that maximize its energy intake per unit of time spent in this endeavor, a researcher would say that this is an example of Optimal foraging concept.

A primary assumption of OFT is that an animal will growth its health through minimizing the time and strength required to gather the most quantity of strength from meals. Optimal foraging concept defines the character of the organisms forage in this sort of manner to maximise the internet strength consumption of the organism according to unit time.

The organism behaves in this sort of manner to eat meals having maximum energy with in a least time period. Optimal foraging concept makes use of predators for the analysis.

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what would be the result if someone transected their spinal cord between t4 and t9? hemiplegia, parplegia, or quadriplegia

Answers

If someone transected their spinal cord between t4 and t9 the result is  paraplegia

transected their spinal cord between t4 and t9 can go from can't walk, move their legs, or feel anything below their waist, as you can see the  the dysfunction can occur

What is Paraplegia?

Paraplegia refers to paralysis below the waist, usually affecting both legs, hips, and other functions such as sexuality and excretion. say they can't walk, move their legs, or feel anything below their waist, but the reality of having SCI varies from person to person and sometimes from day to day.

Paraplegia therefore implies significant impairment and motor impairment, not necessarily permanent and complete paralysis. People with spinal cord injuries rarely recover spontaneously. This may be due to still poorly understood brain or spinal cord functions, such as neuronal regeneration. People with spinal cord injuries can usually regain some function with physical therapy. Physical therapy retrains the brain and spinal cord to work around limitations while strengthening muscle and nerve connections.

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When microbes enter through a minor skin wound, resident ______ in the tissues destroy them. If these microbes are not rapidly cleared, the resident cells secrete _______ to recruit _______ for extra help.macrophages; cytokines; neutrophils

Answers

Inflammation happens when microbes are introduced into typically sterile bodily areas or when tissues are harmed. This is done in order to limit a damaged area, focus the reaction, get rid of the invader, and get tissue function back.

When tissues are harmed by infection, trauma, toxins, heat, or any other cause, the inflammatory response (also known as inflammation) takes place. Chemicals microbes including histamine, bradykinin, and prostaglandins are released by injured cells. Due to Inflammation the fluid leakage into the tissues that these microbes chemicals create in blood vessels, swelling results.

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describe the brachial plexus. (module 12.9a) the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments c1-c7. the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments s5-co1. the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments t1-t12. the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments l1-l5. the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments c5-t1.

Answers

The correct description of brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments C5-T1.

The upper limb's skin and muscles are supplied by a nerve network known as the brachial plexus. It extends from the root of the neck all the way through the axilla and the upper extremities.

The anterior rami of the spinal nerves that make up the brachial plexus are referred to as the "roots."These are the spinal nerves C5, C6, C7, C8, and T1's anterior rami.

Pairing spinal nerves arise at each vertebral level. they exit the spinal cord, Through the intervertebral foramina of the vertebral column,

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