Many forms of genetic alterations by radiation are used often to help life exist. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.
What is Genetic alteration?A genetic alteration may be defined as a process through which any change in the DNA sequence can alter the genetic code and therefore may alter the synthesis of the protein that it encodes.
Genetic alterations by radiation are beneficial for the survival of living organisms. This is because any type of lower-level radiation doesn't cause specifically "good" or "bad" mutations, it just causes changes that are necessarily required for the existence of living entities.
Therefore, many forms of genetic alterations by radiation are used often to help life exist. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.
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what was the consequence of a metal rod driven into the frontal lobe of phineas gage (with similar results to a frontal lobotomy)?
Gage suffered a intense mind harm from an iron rod penetrating his skull, of which he miraculously survived.
After the accident, Gage's persona changed into stated to have modified because of the harm the frontal lobe of his mind. Gage suffered a intense mind harm from an iron rod penetrating his skull, of which he miraculously survived. The consequences after his injury are that he has gone through profound persona adjustments due to his injury. He is regularly stated as having completely misplaced his inhibitions, in order that he commenced to act inappropriately in social situations.
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the first fossils of animals with hard parts appeared about 541 million years ago. what percentage of geologic time does the fossil record represent? express your answer as a percentage with two significant figures
The percentage of geologic time in the fossil record represents 20%.
Remains or traces of previously living things are referred to as fossils. Skeletons, aquatic animal skins, and human and animal imprints on stone are a few examples. The preserved remnants or traces of extinct animals, plants, and other species are known as fossils. Because they demonstrate that earlier life on Earth was distinct from the species present now, fossils are crucial pieces of evidence for evolution. Body fossils (bones and exoskeletons), trace fossils (feces and footprints), and chemofossils are examples of parts of an organism that is typically only partially preserved as fossils (biochemical signals). Paleontologists can classify fossils to establish their evolutionary links between organisms and age them using techniques like radiometric dating.
Therefore, 20% of geologic time is represented in the fossil record.
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if the trp codons in the trpl gene were mutated to encode another amino acid, what would the result be?
Answer: If the Trp codons in the trpL gene were mutated to encode another amino acid, what would the result be? The trp operon would never be transcribed.
The presence of many red blood cells in the urine during a microscopic examination is known as ________.
Blood in the urine is known as hemoturia. Gross or visible hematuria refers to the presence of crimson or pink urine, which may indicate the presence of blood in the urine. The term "microscopic" hematuria refers to hematuria in which blood occasionally occurs in the urine but is difficult to detect since it can only be seen under a microscope.
Why are there red blood cells in the urine?The presence of more RBCs than usual in the urine could be caused by: cancer of the bladder, kidneys, or urinary system. kidney damage or inflammation. prostate issues
What does urine with tiny blood mean?A typical sign of glomerulonephritis, an inflammation of the kidneys' filtering system, is microscopic urinary bleeding. Possibly, glomerulonephritis.
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If a triplet on template DNA is AAA, what will be the anticodon on tRNA
a. UUU
b. AAA
c. TTT
d. AUG
The anticodon on tRNA will be AAA if the triplet on the template DNA is AAA. AAA will be translated to UUU in mRNA if it is found on the template strand of DNA.
The tRNA that would bind to this mRNA has the anticodon sequence AAA. Since AAA is the tRNA anticodon sequence, option B is the appropriate response. A three-nucleotide structure known as an anticodon has the same three bases as an mRNA codon. Each tRNA molecule has a distinct anticodon triplet sequence that can be utilized to make three different amino acid codons by pairing three complementary bases with one or more amino acid codons. Because of wobble base pairing, anticodons can only couple with a single codon.
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What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?.
A newly synthesized polypeptide's signal sequence must direct it to the ER, from which it travels to the Golgi, in order for the cell to secrete it.
The creation of a fresh polypeptide is the consequence of which process?A messenger RNA molecule is produced during transcription utilizing DNA as a template. After the mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus, the translation process starts at a ribosome in the cytoplasm to create a polypeptide.
What transpires when a polypeptide is put together?The cell builds proteins during translation by using an mRNA strand that it recently transcribed from its genetic code as a template. This just got transcribed by the cell.
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Janelle was telling her mom about a dream where she was being chased by wolves. She said she ran and ran and when she woke up, her heart was beating rapidly, and she was very tired. Which gland had secreted a hormone that caused her body to respond in this way?.
Janelle was relating to her mother a dream in which wolves were pursuing her. By testing her we can say its hypothyroidism
Your thyroid gland doesn't generate enough of a few important hormones when you have hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid).
Early on, hypothyroidism may not show any obvious signs. Obesity, joint discomfort, infertility, and heart disease are just a few of the health issues that untreated hypothyroidism can lead to over time.
To identify hypothyroidism, accurate thyroid function tests are available. Once you and your doctor determine the right dose for you, treatment with synthetic thyroid hormone is typically easy, secure, and efficient.
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Active neurons need ATP to support which of the following?
A) the movement of materials to the soma by axoplasmic transport
B) the synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules C) the movement of materials from the soma by axoplasmic transport
D) the recovery from action potentials
E) all of the above
active neurons need ATP for all the process like movement of materials to the soma by axoplasmic transport, the synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules, the movement of materials from the soma by axoplasmic transport and the recovery from action potentials
In both neuronal and extracellular tissues, ATP serves as a ubiquitous signaling molecule. It is produced and kept in the nerve terminals, glial cells, and postsynaptic target cells, and it is released in response to neuronal activity and a number of other stimuli (activation of pre- and postsynaptic receptors, metabolic distress, inflammation, hypoosmotic stimuli, and cellular damage). Ionotropic P2X and metabotropic P2Y receptor subtypes, which are found in abundance in the nervous system, are acted upon by ATP in a variety of ways. A number of central and peripheral synapses have been found to express ATP as a rapid transmitter, and these synapses do so through P2X receptors.
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The _______ are white, membranous folds attached by muscle to the thyroid and arytenoid cartilages of the larynx on their outer edges. The inner edges are free, allowing oscillation to produce sound.
true vocal folds
The muscles that make up the vocal folds' actual body are known as thyroarytenoid. By dragging the vocal folds' arytenoid (back) end toward their thyroid (front) end, they shorten the vocal folds.
What is the purpose of the thyroarytenoid muscle?The muscles that make up the vocal folds' actual body are known as thyroarytenoid. By dragging the vocal folds' arytenoid (back) end toward the thyroid (front) end, they shorten the vocal folds.
Who or what names the vocal folds?Vocal folds (also known as vocal cords) are extraordinary organs that act as an airway valve and vibrate to produce voice. The vocal folds are multilayer organs made up of a muscle and a mucosal layer. The area between both the two vocal folds is known as the glottis.
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what does the combination of the hot, dry summers and abundance of dry vegetation do to the chaparral ecosystems? prone to fires
Dense evergreen bushes, moderate, moist winters, and scorching, dry summers define the chaparral habitat.
Which statement is not true for the climate of the so. cal. chaparral? The chaparral, sometimes referred to as shrubland, is made up of a number of dense thickets of little trees and drought-tolerant, evergreen sclerophyll plants. Chaparral is a type of woodland with dry soil, warm temperatures, and short, resilient bushes. The chaparral biome is dominated by small woody plants as opposed to tall trees or grasses. Chaparral is only found on the Pacific coast of North America. In sections of California and northern Mexico, where the climate is similar to that of the Mediterranean region with hot, dry summers and warm, wet winters, the majority of the chaparral can be found.A geographical feature known as "chaparral" that is mostly found in the U.S. state of California, southern Oregon, and the northern region of Mexico's Baja California Peninsula is a shrubland plant community. Its Mediterranean environment, which features hot, dry summers and warm, wet winters, as well as infrequent, intense crown fires, shape the region. In contrast to the adjacent soft-leaved, drought-deciduous scrub community of coastal sage scrub, which is frequently found on drier, southern-facing slopes within the chaparral biome, summer-drought-tolerant species are present in chaparral.Learn more about chaparral refer to:
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what are the structural and functional distinctions between the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
SER is mainly involved in lipid formation and it doesn’t have ribosomes on its surface whereas RER forms proteins and its surface has ribosomes on it.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum's primary jobs include lipid synthesis, fat molecule packaging, steroid hormone metabolism, and detoxification. Production and packaging of protein molecules is its primary duty. The main distinction is that the SER surface appears smooth because there are no ribosomal structures on it, whereas the RER surface appears rough because there are many ribosome molecules there.
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Which of the following terms would best describe the
bones that make up your vertebrae?
A flat bones
B irregular bones
C short bones
D long bones
muscle function differences between patients with bulbar and spinal onset amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. does it depend on peripheral glucose?
Between ALS patients with spinal onset and those with bulbar onset, no appreciable changes in blood AP and glucose levels were found. However, in patients with spinal onset ALS, a statistically significant positive connection was seen between the mean values of both chemicals.
What is bulbar onset ALS?
Lou Gehrig's disease, also known as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), is a complex illness that can present itself in a variety of ways; each case is different. The area of the body where ALS first manifests itself can differ from person to person. Bulbar-onset ALS is characterized by the onset of symptoms in the neck or face. This name derives from the "bulbar" area of the brain, which regulates facial and neck muscles as well as functions like swallowing and speech.
Hence the answer is, the muscle function differences depend on peripheral glucose.
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compare the urine volume in your baseline data with the urine volume as you increased the blood pressure. how did the urine volume change?
The urine volume increased proportionally.
An increase in blood pressure while the valve was closed reduced glomerular filtration rate but had no effect on glomerular pressure. However, there was no urine output. When the blood pressure was raised while the valve was closed, the glomerular filtration rate was primarily affected. Because there was no urinary output, the glomerular filtration rate decreased.
Blood pressure is the force of blood pushing against by the artery walls. Arteries are vessels that carry blood from the heart to certain other parts of your body. High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, is characterized by blood pressure that is higher than normal. Your blood pressure fluctuates throughout the day as a result of your activities. Having blood pressure readings that are consistently higher than normal may lead to a diagnosis of high blood pressure.
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identify the blood vessel tunic which contains the specialized simple squamous epithelium called the endothelium. the endothelium is continuous throughout the entire vascular system, including the lining of the chambers of the heart.
The tunica intima, is the tunica of the blood vessel that contains the specialized simple squamous epithelium called the endothelium. The endothelium is continuous throughout the vascular system, including the lining of the heart chambers.
The Role of the Intima Tunica in the Vascular SystemThe tunica intima is a layer of the vascular system that contains the simple specialized epithelium, called the endothelium. This layer extends throughout the vascular system, including inside the heart's spheres.
The endothelium is extremely important for cardiovascular health, as it forms part of the barrier between the blood and the tissue cells surrounding the blood vessels. This layer protects tissue cells from the presence of toxic factors in the blood. In addition, it is responsible for maintaining the homeostasis of the cardiovascular system by regulating blood pressure and blood flow.
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The list shows steps in the process of ocean water becoming salty. Number the statements from 1 to 4 to
describe this process from the start to finish.
________ Rivers carry minerals to the ocean.
________ Water containing minerals flows into rivers.
________ Water from rain dissolves minerals in rocks.
________ Over time, the salt concentration of ocean water increases.
The process of ocean water becoming salty is as follows
Rivers carry minerals to the ocean.
As rivers flows over the rocks containing soluble minerals, some of them get dissolved in the water. Thus, rivers carry many nutrients from land to the ocean.
Water containing minerals flows into riverswater that flooded carry's minerals .It releases minerals that are carried away to streams and river
Water from rain dissolves minerals in rocksAfter a heavy rainstorm, rainwater that falls on land dissolves minerals in rock and soil river. It discharge increases due to surface Gravity pulls river water downhill toward the ocean. Then over time, he salt concentration of ocean increases.
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what led to the commercialization of personal genomic products? a. the increase in understanding of genetics and decrease in price of mapping a genome. b. the decrease in understanding of genetics and increase in price of mapping a genome. c. increased awareness of genetics thanks to the human genome project. d. increased demand for genetic mapping products.
The increase in understanding of genetics and decrease in price of mapping a genome.
The Genetic Code Project was ordered for what reason?The Genome Project (HGP) was indeed a 13-year, multinational undertaking that ran from 1990 to 2003.The full sequence of DNA bases with in human genome and the discovery of all human genes—which would make them available for future biological research—were the main objectives.
What were the human genome projects' primary objectives?Accurately sequencing the human genome's 3 billion nucleotide base pairs was one of the project's objectives.The identification and mapping of every human gene found inside the DNA sequence was a secondary objective.
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how did the addition of aldosterone affect urine volume (compared with baseline)? can the reabsorption of solutes influence water reabsorption in the nephron? explain. how well did the results compare with yourprediction?
Aldosterone increases salt and water reabsorption while decreasing urine volume and increasing potassium output.
Aldosterone supplementation reduced urine volume, which led to an increase in salt and water reabsorption and an increase in potassium secretion. Since water flows along an osmolarity gradient, the reabsorption of solutes affects the reabsorption of water in the nephron. This was as I had anticipated.
In rats experiencing diabetes insipidus, aldosterone reduces apical AQP2 expression while increasing urine output.
To increase the quantity of salt (sodium) absorbed back into the bloodstream as well as the quantity of potassium expelled in the urine, it acts on organs like the kidney and colon. This plays a key role in the control of blood pressure.
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A glomerulus is:
A) the source of erythropoietin.
B) attached to the collecting duct.
C) a hairpin loop segment of the renal tubule.
D) a set of capillaries within the renal corpuscle.
A glomerulus is the set of capillaries within the renal corpuscle (option D).
What is the glomerulus?Glomerulus is a small intertwined group of capillaries within nephrons of the kidney that filter the blood to make urine.
The kidneys (major excretory organ) remove excess fluid and waste from the body. Blood is filtered in the kidneys through nephrons.
Each nephron contains a network of small blood vessels, called glomerulus, which are enclosed in a sac called Bowman's capsule.
The thin walls of the glomerulus allow smaller molecules, wastes, and fluid (mostly water) to pass into the tubule while larger molecules, such as proteins and blood cells, stay in the blood vessel.
Therefore, glomerulus is a blood vessel in the kidney.
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Which skin appendages aid in cooling the body to prevent overheating on a hot day or during intense exercise?.
eccrine sweat glands.Eccrine sweat glands are the major sweat glands found abundantly on the skin especially in palms
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Plants can reproduce both sexually and asexually. What are some examples of sexual reproduction in plants? select all that apply.
The genetic material needed for sexual reproduction must come from both parents. The gametes, or sex cells, of the parent plants are both male and female.
What is Reproduction ?To create babies, the genetic material from the male and female gametes is combined. This procedure is known as fertilization. Seeds are the result of sexual reproduction.
Genetic material from both parents is present in seeds that are created by fertilization. As a result, neither of the parent plants' offspring and the offspring are genetically similar. They may be able to survive if the environment changes thanks to their genetic variety.
Pollination, the act of sexual reproduction in flowering plants, is how it happens. Stamens, the male sex organ, and pistils, the female sex organ, are found in flowers.
Therefore, The genetic material needed for sexual reproduction must come from both parents. The gametes, or sex cells, of the parent plants are both male and female.
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in pea plants, the purple allele is sufficient for making purple flowers, even if one of the homologous chromosomes carries the white allele. which of the following statements are true in this case? select all that apply.
In the pea plant experiment, since the purple allele is sufficient in making purple flowers that means it is dominant in the first progeny.
Gregor Mendel was a 19th-century pioneer of genetics who today is remembered almost entirely for two things: being a monk and relentlessly studying different traits of pea plants. Born in 1822 in Austria, Mendel was raised on a farm and attended the University of Vienna in Austria's capital city.
In his pea plant experiment he took seven different traits of pea plant such as - tall, dwarf, white, yellow, wrinkled, round, purple. He performed true breeding - means capable of producing one and only one type of offspring, such as when all daughter plants are round-seeded or axial-flowered.
He observed that the parent generation was the P generation, and it included a P1 plant whose members all displayed one version of a trait and a P2 plant whose members all displayed the other version. The hybrid offspring of the P generation was the F1 (filial) generation. The offspring of the F1 generation was the F2 generation.
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Cecropias are known for the mutualistic relationship they have with which creature?.
It is commonly known that cecropias and creature ants interact mutualistically.
What purpose does the cecropia moth fulfill?The adult stage of the cecropia moth exists primarily for mating and egg-laying. Cecropia moths must survive as adults on the fat reserves they stored while they were caterpillars. They are essentially toothless and only have a brief lifespan.
How rare are cecropia moths?The cecropia moth has not been assessed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, but it doesn't seem to be too rare in the United States. In the spring or summer, you might be able to catch one on a maple or birch tree.
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what kind of virus is hiv? a herpesvirus a paramyxovirus a retrovirus a complex virus a provirus
Explanation:
Hiv is a retrovirus. Your welcome lol
What is the probability of reinforcement when utilizing an extinction procedure?.
Extinction is a method that offers no chance of reinforcement.
What is an illustration of the extinction of a behavior that has been reinforced negatively?The extinction of behaviors that are maintained by negative reinforcement is another variation of this process. This is what is meant by "avoid extinction." Dannie, for instance, sulks when she refuses to consume her food.
Which of the following is an illustration of a behavior that was reinforced positively being eliminated?For instance, Brian's screaming was positively reinforced by the teachers' social attention to him. Before screaming, he received no attention, but after screaming, he did, and this is how his behavior of screaming was favorably reinforced.
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until recently it was the widely accepted explanation of macroevolution. this model stated that small changes occur at a steady rate over many millions of years. this is the model of evolution.
Origins, diversifications, & extinctions are examples of macroevolutionary processes that occur on a large scale and require a long period, called geologic time.
Macroevolution includes both studying patterns on the tree of life just above species level and figuring out the mechanisms that are likely to have created these patterns.
Macroevolutionary thinking is useful for providing a more thorough knowledge of the primates' historical evolutionary extinctions. Examples of macroevolutionary processes that take place on a huge scale and require a lengthy period of time, known as geologic time, include origins, diversifications, and extinctions.
To understand such processes, one needs historical evidence, such as fossils from hundreds of millions of years ago or slowly evolving genetic sequences. Broad, protracted evolutionary changes are referred to as macroevolutionary.
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The meninges are protective membranes that surround the brain. CSF is a liquid found within the meninges that help to protect and cushion the brain, increasing its buoyancy. If a tear occurs in the meninges, CSF will begin to leak, leading to:
A hole or tear in the dura, the top layer of the meninges, causes a CSF leak. The hole or rip may have been caused by a head injury, brain injury, or sinus injury.
Which of the following qualifies as a blood–brain barrier fundamental characteristic?The majority of organs and tissues have capillaries, which are slightly leaky and open to the passage of many different substances. The blood brain barrier is a crucial component of the brain's capillaries , which are less permeable due to their very high density of tight junctions.
What kind of cell types are responsible for touch perception?Touch is transmitted through piezo channels by Merkel cells, which are touch-sensitive cells. There are various types of sensory receptor cells in the Merkel cell-neurite complex.
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Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in a gene that comprises 2.5 million base pairs and specifies a protein called dystrophin. However, less than 1% of the gene actually encodes the amino acids in the dystrophin protein. On the basis of what you now know about gene structure and RNA processing in eukaryotic cells, provide a possible explanation for why less than 1% of the gene encodes the dystrophin protein. A. It is likely that the 5′ cap serves as an indicator for a smaller region of the gene to be used for translation of the protein.
B. It is likely that during the splicing process, a majority of the pre‑mRNA is removed in an effort to splice out all the introns.
C. It is likely that the addition of the 5′ cap contributes to the majority of the mRNA degrading, preventing its ability to be used for protein production.
D. It is likely that during the splicing process, a majority of the pre‑mRNA is removed in an effort to splice out all the exons.
From these data, less than 1% of the genes encode the dystrophin protein because it appears that the 5′ cap serves as an indicator for a smaller region of the gene to be used for translation of the protein.
Option A seems to have the right explanation.
Dystrophin is encoded by the DMD gene. The DMD gene is a large sequence but encodes a single protein. Only less than 1% of this large sequence area is responsible for coding the actual protein. This suggests that the remaining DNA sequence of the DMD gene is occupied by too many double intron sequences spliced from the mRNA transcript before translation can occur.
The researchers found that the DMD gene contains several splice sites which are deleted from the main mRNA transcript after transcription has occurred. The actual exonic sequence in the DMD gene is too small, so the probability of a mutation occurring is very low. This is not a normal case of gene silencing as DMD has mutated lesions in which gene silencing has no effect.
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The presence of many red blood cells in the urine during a microscopic examination is known as ________.
Blood in the urine is known as hemoturia. Gross or visible hematuria refers to the presence of crimson or pink urine, which may indicate the presence of blood in the urine. The term "microscopic" hematuria refers to hematuria in which blood occasionally occurs in the urine but is difficult to detect since it can only be seen under a microscope.
Why are there red blood cells in the urine?The presence of more RBCs than usual in the urine could be caused by: cancer of the bladder, kidneys, or urinary system. issues with the kidneys and the rest of the urinary system, like infections or stones. kidney damage or inflammation. prostate issues
What does urine with tiny blood mean?A typical sign of glomerulonephritis, an inflammation of the kidneys' filtering system, is microscopic urinary bleeding. Possibly, glomerulonephritis.
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4) dna ligase has the ability to relax supercoiled circular dna in the presence of amp, but not in its absence. a) what is the mechanism of this reaction and why does it depend on amp? b) how could you determine that supercoiled dna had in fact been relaxed?
The mechanism behind the given reaction is the formation of the enzyme-AMP complex. The AMP supports this complex formation. The gel electrophoresis technique will help to determine whether the supercoiling in the DNA has in fact been relaxed.
a) In a three-step process, the ATP-dependent DNA ligases link single-stranded breaks (nicks) in the phosphodiester backbone of double-stranded DNA. The creation of a covalent enzyme-AMP complex (intermediate) is the initial stage in the ligation reaction.
A highly conserved lysine residue in the ligase's active region is covalently linked to AMP when the cofactor ATP is broken into pyrophosphate and AMP. The 5' phosphate of the nick receives the activated AMP residue, after which the nick is sealed by the formation of a phosphodiester bond and the removal of AMP.
b) The gel electrophoresis technique helps analyze the DNA. This technique uses an electric field to separate the DNA fragments based on size and charge. Supercoiled DNA moves faster than relaxed or open circular DNA in gel electrophoresis. And relaxed DNA migrates slowly and is found closer to the well. This way, we will find whether the DNA is relaxed or supercoiled.
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