Mammalian hearing is derived from
Question 1 options:
Temporal fossa
Cranial joints
Skull ridges
Jawbones

Answers

Answer 1

The development of the mammalian middle ear is one of the most significant changes in the evolutionary history of this group of animals.

Mammalian hearing is derived from temporal fossa.

The anatomy of the mammalian ear has provided some of the strongest evidence in favor of the theory of evolution.

All mammalian hearing structures have a common developmental and evolutionary origin that can be traced back to the ancestral reptilian ear.

Mammals and reptiles are thought to have diverged about 315 million years ago, during the Late Carboniferous Period.

The reptilian jawbone was the structure that enabled them to hear by sensing vibrations through the bones.

The pre-existing jawbone of the reptiles had been modified during the early evolution of the mammals to form the tiny ear bones (malleus, incus, and stapes) that form the middle ear in all modern mammals.

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Related Questions

1.What factors must be controlled in the Kirby Bauer method for
it to be fully standardized?
2. At what stage of growth are bacteria most susceptible to
antibiotics? Why?

Answers

The Kirby-Bauer method of antibiotic susceptibility testing is standardized for the factors listed below to make sure the result is consistent :Size and uniformity of the inoculum .Culture media chosen Incubation temperature and duration. The pH of the medium.

The depth of the agar in the petri dish .The concentration of antibiotic discs. The time between inoculation and disc placement on the agar. The storage and handling of the antibiotic discs. The bacteria are the most susceptible to antibiotics at the exponential phase of growth. Bacteria grow and divide the fastest during the exponential phase. This is because bacterial DNA is replicated and the cell wall, cell membrane, and ribosomes grow and divide during this period. Antibiotics that affect the cell wall, cell membrane, and ribosomes are most effective at this point in the growth cycle. This is the optimal time to use antibiotics because they will kill bacteria most effectively when they are actively dividing.

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The balance of the chemicals in our bodies (select all that apply) include lactated ringers can impact our physiology are important to maintaining homeostasis Ovaries from day to day

Answers

The balance of the chemicals in our bodies is vital to maintain homeostasis. The term homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain its internal environment stable despite fluctuations in the external environment. Lactated Ringer's solution is a type of intravenous fluid that is utilized to treat fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the body.

Electrolytes, such as sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate, are important for many bodily processes and are required in specific quantities for the body to function correctly. If there is an imbalance in electrolytes, such as too much or too little of a specific electrolyte, it can affect the body's ability to maintain homeostasis. The ovaries are another essential component of maintaining balance in the body. Hormones such as estrogen and progesterone are released by the ovaries and play a significant role in regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining reproductive health in females.

Therefore, maintaining a balance of electrolytes and hormones is essential for the body to function correctly and maintain homeostasis.

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Part A. Which virus above is a DNA virus? Part B. Compare and contrast the replication of the genome of the DNA virus and the RNA virus

Answers

The genomic material of DNA viruses is double-stranded DNA, while RNA viruses have a single-stranded RNA genome.

Part A. Which virus above is a DNA virus?

The herpes simplex virus is a DNA virus. The virus contains a double-stranded DNA genome that replicates by the lytic or latent cycle.

Part B. Compare and contrast the replication of the genome of the DNA virus and the RNA virusDNA and RNA viruses have different replication methods for their genomes. RNA viruses possess a single-stranded RNA genome that is either positive-sense (can be directly translated into protein) or negative-sense (must be transcribed by the virus's RNA polymerase into a positive-sense RNA before protein synthesis).

The replication of RNA viruses is generally carried out by a cytoplasmic replicase.RNA viruses produce mRNA from the genomic RNA via a unique process, then synthesize proteins using the host cell's ribosomes and translation machinery.

Conversely, DNA viruses must transcribe their genome into RNA before producing proteins. DNA viruses rely on the host cell's transcriptional machinery to transcribe their DNA genome into mRNA.In conclusion, the replication process of DNA and RNA viruses is different, with DNA viruses relying on transcription by the host cell's machinery, while RNA viruses use a cytoplasmic replicase to carry out replication.

The genomic material of DNA viruses is double-stranded DNA, while RNA viruses have a single-stranded RNA genome.

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Consider a phenotype for which the allele Nis dominant to the allele n. A mating Nn x Nn is carried out, and one individual with the dominant phenotype is chosen at random. This individual is testcrossed and the mating yields four offspring, each with the dominant phenotype. What is the probability that the parent with the dominant phenotype has the genotype Nn?

Answers

In the given scenario, we have a dominant phenotype determined by the N allele, which is dominant to the n allele. We are conducting a testcross on an individual with the dominant phenotype.

Let's analyze the possibilities:

The chosen individual with the dominant phenotype can be either homozygous dominant (NN) or heterozygous (Nn).

If the individual is NN (homozygous dominant), all the offspring from the testcross would have the dominant phenotype.

If the individual is Nn (heterozygous), there is a 50% chance for each offspring to inherit the dominant phenotype.

Given that all four offspring have the dominant phenotype, we can conclude that the chosen individual must be either NN or Nn. However, we want to determine the probability that the parent with the dominant phenotype has the genotype Nn.

Let's assign the following probabilities:

P(NN) = p (probability of the parent being NN)

P(Nn) = q (probability of the parent being Nn)

Since all four offspring have the dominant phenotype, we can use the principles of Mendelian inheritance to set up an equation:

q^4 + 2pq^3 = 1

The term q^4 represents the probability of having four offspring with the dominant phenotype when the parent is Nn.

The term 2pq^3 represents the probability of having three offspring with the dominant phenotype when the parent is Nn.

Simplifying the equation:

q^4 + 2pq^3 = 1

q^3(q + 2p) = 1

Since q + p = 1 (the sum of probabilities for all possible genotypes equals 1), we can substitute q = 1 - p into the equation:

(1 - p)^3(1 - p + 2p) = 1

(1 - p)^3(1 + p) = 1

(1 - p)^3 = 1/(1 + p)

1 - p = (1/(1 + p))^(1/3)

Now we can solve for p:

p = 1 - [(1/(1 + p))^(1/3)]

Solving this equation, we find that p ≈ 0.25 (approximately 0.25).

Therefore, the probability that the parent with the dominant phenotype has the genotype Nn is approximately 0.25 or 25%.

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1 Virtue ethics are the core moral theories in Board of Engineers Malaysia's (BEM) code of conduct. (a) (b) Elaborate on virtue ethics. [C3] [SP1] [15 marks] The BEM's code of conduct was revised and now it mainly consists derivations from virtue ethics. In your opinion, what are reasons for it? [C5] [SP1, SP2, SP4,SP5, SP6] [10 marks]

Answers

Virtue ethics is a theory on morals that focuses on the development of good character traits, or virtues. Virtues are qualities that enable individuals to live good lives and to make good decisions. Examples of virtues are, courage, honesty, compassion, and wisdom.

What more should you know about virtue ethics?

Virtue ethics provides us with a framework for making good decisions in these situations, even when there is no clear rule to follow.

Secondly, virtue ethics is more effective at promoting good behavior.

2. There are a number of reasons why the BEM may have revised its code of conduct to focus on virtue ethics. They include

Virtue ethics provides a holistic approach to ethics, focusing on the development of character rather than a rigid set of rules. By emphasizing virtues such as honesty, integrity, and professionalism, the BEM's code of conduct encourages engineers to embody these qualities not only in their professional lives but also in their personal lives. Virtue ethics places a strong emphasis on professional virtues, which are vital for engineers in their interactions with clients, colleagues, and the public.Virtue ethics provides a framework for ethical decision-making by focusing on character development and practical wisdom. The BEM's code of conduct, based on virtue ethics, encourages engineers to cultivate virtues and develop their moral judgment.

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a) HOX genes are highly conserved among animals. This
Group of answer choices
a.Indicates they have accumulated many non-synonymous changes over time
b.Means they can be used to determine the relatedness among recently diverged lineages
c.Gives a mechanism to Von Baer’s observation of the similarity among early embryo forms of distantantly-related lineages
d.Suggests the genes have different functions in different lineages

Answers

c) Gives a mechanism to Von Baer’s observation of the similarity among early embryo forms of distantly-related lineages.

HOX genes are highly conserved among animals, meaning they are found in similar forms across different animal lineages. This conservation provides a mechanism for Von Baer's observation that the early embryos of distantly-related species share common characteristics. HOX genes play a crucial role in embryonic development, specifically in determining the body plan and segment identity. The conservation of HOX genes suggests that they have been maintained throughout evolution due to their important role in regulating embryonic development. While different lineages may have variations in the specific functions of HOX genes, the overall conservation of these genes highlights their fundamental role in shaping animal body plans and supports the observed similarities among early embryo forms across different species.

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4) Why did he ask is David worked with rabbits? 5) Why would it be difficult to simple stain or gram stain some microbes? 5) What is the cause of David's infection?

Answers

The man asked if David worked with rabbits because rabbits can be a source of infection. Certain bacteria like Francisella tularensis, which is responsible for causing tularemia, are commonly found in wild rabbits, beavers, and squirrels. Infection with this bacteria can cause serious health problems.

4) Why did he ask if David worked with rabbits? The man asked if David worked with rabbits because rabbits can be a source of infection. Certain bacteria like Francisella tularensis, which is responsible for causing tularemia, are commonly found in wild rabbits, beavers, and squirrels. Infection with this bacteria can cause serious health problems.
5) Why would it be difficult to simple stain or gram stain some microbes? Some microbes are difficult to stain because of their chemical composition. For example, some bacteria have a waxy outer layer that can make them resistant to staining. In addition, some microbes are too small to be seen with a standard light microscope.
5) What is the cause of David's infection? The cause of David's infection is not clear from the given information. However, since he was working with rabbits, it is possible that he was infected with Francisella tularensis, which can cause tularemia. Other possible causes of infection include other bacteria, viruses, or fungi. Further testing would be needed to determine the exact cause of David's infection.

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1. Nutrients and oxygen for deep water animals comes
from surface waters
True or False
2. reef corals are considered polyps
true or false
3. Parapodia, in polychaete worms, are used for gas
exchange and locomotion
true or false

Answers

True: Nutrients and oxygen for deep water animals often come from surface waters through various processes such as upwelling or vertical mixing. This is because the surface waters receive sunlight and are in contact with the atmosphere, allowing for photosynthesis and oxygen exchange.

True: Reef corals are indeed considered polyps. Polyps are small, cylindrical organisms that belong to the phylum Cnidaria, and they are the building blocks of coral reefs. They have a tubular body with a central mouth surrounded by tentacles used for feeding and capturing prey. False: Parapodia in polychaete worms are not used for gas exchange. Parapodia are fleshy appendages found on the sides of each segment of a polychaete worm's body. They are primarily used for locomotion, providing the worm with the ability to crawl or swim. Gas exchange in polychaete worms typically occurs through their thin body wall, which allows for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange with the surrounding water.

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The successful sequencing of the human genome
The human genome holds an extraordinary amount of information about human development, medicine, and evolution. In 2000, the human genome was triumphantly released as a reference genome with approximately 8% missing information (gaps). In 2022- exactly 22 years later, technological advances enabled the gaps to be filled. This is a notable scientific milestone, leading to the resolution of critical aspects of human genetic diversity, including evolutionary comparisons to our ancestors. Discuss the sequencing technology used to resolve the human genome in 2005, its significant advantages and limitations? What was the technology used in 2022, and how significant are the gaps that have been resolved? What new insight will be gained from this new information- especially pertaining to understanding epigenetics?

Answers

In 2005, the sequencing of the human genome relied on Sanger sequencing technology.

This method, also known as chain-termination sequencing, involved incorporating fluorescently labeled nucleotides and detecting the labeled fragments. Sanger sequencing provided accurate and reliable results but was limited in terms of cost and scalability for large-scale projects.

In 2022, Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) technology, specifically Illumina sequencing, was used to fill the gaps in the human genome. NGS enabled high-throughput sequencing of millions of DNA fragments simultaneously, reducing costs and increasing efficiency. By resolving the gaps, a more comprehensive understanding of human genetic diversity and evolutionary comparisons with ancestors was achieved.

The significance of filling the gaps lies in obtaining a more complete reference for human genetics. This information will contribute to advancements in various fields, including personalized medicine, disease research, and understanding epigenetics. Epigenetic studies will benefit from a more precise correlation between DNA sequences and epigenetic modifications, enhancing our knowledge of gene regulation and human development.

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Which of the following statements is true? A. Individuals evolve over time leading to new species B. The most "fit" individuals in terms of natural selection in a population are always the strongest C. Populations evolve over time in response to environmental conditions
D. gene flow has the largest effect on small populations

Answers

Populations evolve over time in response to environmental conditions.

Evolution is the process of change in the inherited characteristics of a population over successive generations. It occurs at the population level rather than at the individual level. Populations can evolve in response to environmental pressures such as changes in climate, availability of resources, or presence of predators. This can lead to adaptations and changes in the genetic makeup of the population over time.

Option A is incorrect because individuals do not evolve over time; rather, it is the populations that evolve. Option B is incorrect because the concept of "fitness" in natural selection is not solely determined by strength but rather by an organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment. Option D is incorrect because gene flow, which is the movement of genes between populations, typically has a larger effect on larger populations rather than small populations.

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Microbial adhesins can be found in which location? Choose all
that apply.
in biofilms
on bacterial ribosomes
on host cells
on bacterial pili and capsules
on cells at the portal of entry

Answers

Microbial adhesins can be found in multiple locations, including biofilms, host cells, bacterial pili, and capsules. They play a crucial role in the attachment of microbes to surfaces and host tissues and colonization.

1. Biofilms: Microbial adhesins are important components of biofilms, which are complex communities of microorganisms that form on surfaces. Adhesins help bacteria adhere to surfaces and other bacterial cells within the biofilm structure, promoting microbial aggregation and biofilm formation.

2. Host Cells: Microbial adhesins enable bacteria to attach to host cells, allowing them to establish infection and initiate colonization. Fimbriae adhesins can bind to specific receptors on host cell surfaces, facilitating the interaction between bacteria and host tissues.

3. Bacterial Pili and Capsules: Adhesins are commonly found on bacterial pili and capsules. Pili are filamentous appendages on the bacterial cell surface that play a key role in attachment and adherence to host tissues. Adhesins located on pili mediate binding to specific receptors on host cells. Capsules, on the other hand, are protective layers surrounding some bacteria, and they can also contain adhesins that aid in attachment to host cells.

4. Cells at the Portal of Entry: Adhesins can be present on cells located at the portal of entry, such as mucosal surfaces or epithelial cells. These adhesins allow bacteria to bind to and invade host tissues, initiating the infection process.

Overall, microbial adhesins are versatile structures that are found in various locations and contribute to the establishment and persistence of microbial infections.

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In the SIM media, which ingredients could be eliminated if the medium were used strictly for testing for motility and indole production? What if I were testing only for motility and sulfur reduction?

Answers

If the SIM (Sulfide, Indole, Motility) medium is used strictly for testing motility and indole production, the ingredient that can be eliminated is the sulfur compound (usually ferrous ammonium sulfate) since it is not relevant to these tests.

However, if the testing is only for motility and sulfur reduction, the ingredient that can be eliminated is the tryptophan or the reagent used for indole detection, as they are not necessary for assessing sulfur reduction. In summary: For testing motility and indole production, sulfur compound can be eliminated. For testing motility and sulfur reduction, tryptophan or the reagent for indole detection can be eliminated.

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D Question 10 Determine the probability of having a boy or girl offspring for each conception. Parental genotypes: XX X XY Probability of males: % Draw a Punnett square on a piece of paper to help you answer the question. 0% O 75% 50% 100% O 25% 1 pt:

Answers

The probability of having a boy or girl offspring depends on the parental genotypes. In a typical scenario where the mother has two X chromosomes (XX) and the father has one X and one Y chromosome (XY), the probability of having a male (XY) is 50% and the probability of having a female (XX) is also 50%.

To determine the probability of having a boy or girl offspring, a Punnett square can be used to visualize the possible combinations of parental alleles. In this case, the mother's genotype is XX (two X chromosomes) and the father's genotype is XY (one X and one Y chromosome).

When the Punnett square is constructed, the possible combinations of alleles for the offspring are as follows:

The mother can contribute an X chromosome, and the father can contribute either an X or Y chromosome. This results in two possible combinations: XX (female) and XY (male). Since the mother only has X chromosomes to contribute, both combinations involve an X chromosome.

Therefore, the probability of having a female offspring (XX) is 50%, as there is a 50% chance that the father will contribute an X chromosome.

Similarly, the probability of having a male offspring (XY) is also 50%, as there is a 50% chance that the father will contribute a Y chromosome.

In summary, when the mother has XX genotype and the father has XY genotype, the probability of having a boy or girl offspring is equal. Each conception has a 50% chance of resulting in a male (XY) and a 50% chance of resulting in a female (XX).

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Question 2
Give three sources of nitrogen during purine biosynthesis by de
novo pathway
State the five stages of protein synthesis in their respective
chronological order
List 4 types of post-transla

Answers

Question 2: i. Three sources of nitrogen during purine biosynthesis by the de novo pathway are glutamine, glycine, and aspartate.

The de novo pathway is the process by which purine molecules are synthesized from simple precursors. In this pathway, nitrogen atoms are incorporated into the purine ring structure. Glutamine, an amino acid, provides an amino group (NH2) that contributes nitrogen atoms to the purine ring. Glycine provides a carbon and nitrogen atom, which are also incorporated into the ring. Aspartate contributes a carbon and nitrogen atom as well. These nitrogen-containing molecules serve as building blocks for the synthesis of purines, which are essential components of nucleotides.

ii. The five stages of protein synthesis in their respective chronological order are transcription, RNA processing, translation initiation, translation elongation, and translation termination.

Protein synthesis involves the conversion of the genetic information encoded in DNA into functional proteins. The process begins with transcription, where a DNA segment is transcribed into a complementary RNA molecule. Following transcription, RNA processing modifies the RNA molecule by removing introns and adding a cap and tail.

The processed mRNA then undergoes translation initiation, which involves the assembly of ribosomes and the recruitment of the first aminoacyl-tRNA. During translation elongation, amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide chain based on the codons in the mRNA. Finally, translation termination occurs when a stop codon is reached, leading to the release of the completed polypeptide chain.

iii. Four types of post-translational modifications that a polypeptide undergoes before maturing into a functional protein are phosphorylation, glycosylation, acetylation, and proteolytic cleavage.

Post-translational modifications (PTMs) are chemical modifications that occur on a polypeptide chain after translation. These modifications can alter the structure, function, and localization of proteins. Phosphorylation is the addition of a phosphate group to specific amino acids, typically serine, threonine, or tyrosine, and is crucial for signaling and regulation of protein activity.

Glycosylation involves the addition of sugar molecules to certain amino acids, impacting protein folding, stability, and cell recognition. Acetylation is the addition of an acetyl group to lysine residues and can influence protein-protein interactions and gene expression.

Proteolytic cleavage involves the removal of specific peptide segments from the polypeptide chain by proteolytic enzymes, resulting in the production of mature and functional proteins. These PTMs greatly expand the functional diversity of proteins and contribute to their regulation and activity in various cellular processes.

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Complete question:

Question 2

i. Give three sources of nitrogen during purine biosynthesis by de novo pathway

ii. State the five stages of protein synthesis in their respective chronological order

iii. List 4 types of post-translational modifications that a polypeptide undergoes before maturing into a functional protein

I have a couple of questions. I only request detailed answers. Thanks!
1. List and explain the four basic mechanisms of evolutionary changes.
2. Natural selection and genetic drift cannot operate unless genetic variation exists: Explain.
3. Why not all mutations matter to evolution?
4. Which mutations really matter to large scale evolution?
5. Explain the process of gene flow.

Answers

1. The four basic mechanisms of evolutionary change are: Mutation, Natural selection, Genetic drift & Gene flow.

2. Natural selection and genetic drift require genetic variation because they operate on existing genetic differences within population. Variation can arise through mutations and recombination during sexual reproduction.

3. Not all mutations matter to evolution because many mutations have little or no impact on an organism's fitness or survival.

4. Mutations that truly matter to large-scale evolution are those that provide a significant advantage or adaptation to an organism, allowing it to better survive and reproduce in its environment.

5. Gene flow is the movement of genetic material from one population to another. It occurs when individuals migrate between populations and interbreed, leading to the exchange of genes.

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A Labrador breeder analyzed the pedigrees of two of her dogs and determined that the black male has a 25% chance of having the genotype BBEe and a 75% chance of having the genotype BbEe. Her yellow female has a 25% chance of having the genotype BBee and a 75% chance of having the genotype Bbee. Answer the following questions: a. Coat color in Labradors exhibits what genetic concept? Define this concept. b. What are all the possible genotypes for chocolate Labradors?

Answers

a. Coat color in Labradors follows Mendelian inheritance, where multiple genes interact to determine color expression, and b. The possible genotypes with the B allele responsible for black or chocolate color and the e allele responsible for color expression.

a. Coat color in Labradors exhibits the genetic concept of Mendelian inheritance.

This concept is based on Gregor Mendel's laws of inheritance, which describe how traits are passed from parents to offspring. In the case of coat color in Labradors, it is determined by the interaction of multiple genes.

The specific gene involved is the B gene, which determines black or chocolate color, and the E gene, which determines whether the color is expressed or diluted. The genotype combinations of these genes result in different coat colors.

b. The possible genotypes for chocolate Labradors can be determined by the combinations of the B and e alleles. In this case, the chocolate color is represented by the bb genotype.

Therefore, the possible genotypes for chocolate Labradors are Bbee and bbee, where the B allele is responsible for black or chocolate color, and the e allele is responsible for the expression of color.

The combination of these genotypes results in the expression of the chocolate coat color in Labradors.

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In Type 1 diabetes the pancreas cannot produce enough insulin whereas in Type 2 diabetes the body cells become less responsive to insulin over time. True False

Answers

Diabetes is a metabolic disease that causes high blood sugar levels. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates blood sugar levels. Blood sugar levels increase when the pancreas fails to produce enough insulin or when the body's cells become less sensitive to insulin.

Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder. The pancreas produces little to no insulin in this case. It is also known as juvenile diabetes. It is usually diagnosed in children and adolescents, but it can occur at any age. In this type of diabetes, the immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. Type 1 diabetes can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic susceptibility and environmental factors. Insulin injections, regular exercise, a healthy diet, and regular blood sugar monitoring are all part of the treatment for type 1 diabetes.Type 2 diabetes is more common than type 1 diabetes. The pancreas produces insulin in this type of diabetes, but the body's cells become less sensitive to insulin over time. This condition is known as insulin resistance. As a result, the pancreas must produce more insulin to regulate blood sugar levels. Over time, the pancreas's ability to produce insulin declines, and blood sugar levels rise, resulting in type 2 diabetes.

Therefore, the statement given in the question is True.

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4
Which is true about mean arterial pressure? None MAP is a better indicator of tissue perfusion than SBP Normal MAP is 70-100 mmHg MAP should not be < 60 mmgHg or > 160 mmHg All are true. MAP = 1/3 Pul

Answers

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) should not be < 60 mmHg or > 160 mmHg.

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a measure of the average pressure in the arteries during one cardiac cycle. It is an important indicator of tissue perfusion and reflects the balance between the systolic blood pressure (SBP) and diastolic blood pressure (DBP). The normal range for MAP is typically considered to be 70-100 mmHg.

However, MAP should not be lower than 60 mmHg as it may lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and organ dysfunction. Similarly, a MAP higher than 160 mmHg may indicate increased stress on the arterial walls and potential damage.

Therefore, it is important to maintain MAP within the appropriate range to ensure adequate blood flow to the tissues and prevent complications associated with low or high blood pressure. The other statements in the question are not true.

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(25 points, 200 words) Pig-to-human organ transplants use a genetically modified pig as the source of organs. Note that some genes were added and some pig genes were knocked out. Describe in conceptual detail how the gene-modified pig could have been produced. You need not research to find the actual methods that were used this pig line, but based on course material, describe how you could do the job. Be sure to describe differences in methods for inserting foreign genes vs knock-out of endogenous genes.

Answers

Genetically modified pigs are created by introducing new genes or altering existing ones. They are useful for a variety of purposes, including biomedical research and the production of xenotransplantation organs. Pigs are used for organ transplants because they are biologically similar to humans. Genetic modification involves altering the DNA sequence of an organism. DNA is the genetic code that directs an organism's development and function. There are a variety of methods for modifying DNA, including the insertion of foreign genes and the knock-out of endogenous genes.

Foreign gene insertion
Foreign genes can be inserted into the genome of a pig using a variety of techniques. The most common method is the use of a virus to deliver the new gene to the pig cells. This is called transfection. The virus is modified so that it can't cause disease, but it still carries the new gene into the pig's cells. Once the new gene is inside the pig's cells, it integrates into the genome, where it can be expressed and passed on to future generations.

Endogenous gene knockout
Knockout technology can be used to create pigs that lack a specific gene. This can be done by introducing a mutation into the gene of interest. The mutation disrupts the gene's normal function, resulting in a pig that lacks the gene's expression. This is called a knock-out pig. There are several ways to introduce the mutation, including the use of homologous recombination and CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing. These methods allow researchers to create pigs that lack specific genes, which can be useful for studying gene function and disease.

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Which of the following is NOT a broad ecosystem category? a. Low salt content, low biodiversity but minimum seasonality b. Areas of low salt content c. Many fluctuations based on seasonality d. High levels of biodiversity and salt content

Answers

Among the options given, the category that is not a broad ecosystem category is a) Low salt content, low biodiversity but minimum seasonality.

Ecosystem refers to the relationship between living organisms and their physical environment. An ecosystem comprises all living organisms, along with non-living elements, such as water, minerals, and soil, that interact with one another within an environment to produce a stable and complex system.

There are several ecosystem categories that can be distinguished on the basis of factors such as climate, vegetation, geology, and geography.

The following are the broad categories of ecosystem:Terrestrial ecosystem Freshwater ecosystemMarine ecosystem There are various subcategories of ecosystem such as Tundra, Forest, Savannah, Deserts, Grassland, and many more that come under Terrestrial Ecosystem.

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On the pGLO plasmid, what is the bla gene for? Group of answer choices It is the origin of replication so the bacterial cell can copy the plasmid. It codes for the green fluorescent protein. It allows us to select for bacterial cells that picked up the plasmid. It allows us to control whether the GFP gene is expressed or not.

Answers

On the pGLO plasmid, the bla gene is responsible for allowing us to select for bacterial cells that picked up the plasmid.

The pGLO is a genetically engineered plasmid that is used as a tool in genetic engineering practices. It is used to analyze the genetic transformation of certain bacteria like E.coli and other similar bacteria.What is the bla gene?The bla gene that is present in the pGLO plasmid codes for beta-lactamase enzyme, which allows for the identification of the bacteria that have picked up the plasmid. In a laboratory, after adding the antibiotic ampicillin to the growth medium, we can selectively grow the bacteria that have picked up the pGLO plasmid, as they will be resistant to the antibiotic. Those bacteria that do not have the plasmid will die.

Ampicillin resistance is conferred upon bacteria by the beta-lactamase enzyme. The resistance is conferred by breaking down the beta-lactam ring structure, which is a component of many antibiotics.This selection allows us to pick out only the bacteria that have taken up the pGLO plasmid from a mixture of cells. In the pGLO system, the GFP (Green Fluorescent Protein) and beta-lactamase genes are regulated by the arabinose promoter.

The GFP gene in the pGLO plasmid codes for the Green Fluorescent Protein. The arabinose promoter in pGLO is activated by the presence of arabinose. When arabinose is present, the GFP gene is expressed, leading to the expression of GFP protein.

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1. Find a cross section of a sea star ovary with oocytes. Sketch one oocyte, and label cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus, chromatin, nucleolus (1.5 pts) 2 2. Cleavage divisions: 2,4,8,16 (morula), 32, 64 cells (sketch 2-cell, 4-cell, 8-cell) (1.5 pts) 3. Blastula: a) early blastulas have many cells vislble, with a lighter opaque region where its fluld-filled cavity lies (1 pt) b) late blastulas will have a dark ring around their perimeter with a solld non-cellular S appearing area in the center, where the fluld-illed cavity is located (1 pt) 4. Gastrula: a) early gastrulas have less invagination of germ layers than late ones do. Sketch one or two below: (1 pt) b) Late gastrulas have more invagination and a more elongated shape. Sketch one or two below: (1 pt) 5. Bipinnaria: early larva (simpler appearing and less organ development inside than in the late larval stage) (1 pt) 6. Brachiolaria: late larva (notice there is much more inside this larva compared to the early ones; this represents organ development) (1 pt) 7. Young sea star (note the tube feet): ( 1 pt)

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1. Cross-section of sea star ovary with oocytes: Sketch an oocyte and label its cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus, chromatin, and nucleolus.

2. Cleavage divisions: Sketch 2-cell, 4-cell, and 8-cell stages to represent cleavage divisions.

3a. Early blastula: Sketch a cluster of cells with a lighter opaque region indicating the fluid-filled cavity.

3b. Late blastula: Sketch a ring of cells around the perimeter with a solid non-cellular area in the center representing the fluid-filled cavity.

4a. Early gastrula: Sketch an embryo with less invagination of germ layers.

4b. Late gastrula: Sketch an elongated embryo with more invagination of germ layers.

5. Bipinnaria: Sketch an early larva with simpler appearance and less developed internal organs.

6. Brachiolaria: Sketch a late larva with more internal organs and structures developed.

7. Young sea star: Sketch a young sea star with tube feet visible.

1. Cross-section of sea star ovary with oocytes: Draw a circular shape representing the oocyte. Label the outer boundary as the cell membrane. Inside the cell membrane, indicate the cytoplasm, which fills the oocyte.

Within the cytoplasm, draw a smaller circle to represent the nucleus. Label the dense material inside the nucleus as chromatin, and a small structure within the nucleus as the nucleolus.

2. Cleavage divisions: Start with a circle to represent the fertilized egg. In the 2-cell stage, divide the circle into two equal-sized cells. In the 4-cell stage, divide each of the two cells into two smaller cells.

In the 8-cell stage, further divide each of the four cells into two smaller cells, resulting in a total of eight cells.

3a. Early blastula: Draw a cluster of cells with varying sizes. Indicate a lighter opaque region within the cluster, representing the fluid-filled cavity where the blastocoel will form.

3b. Late blastula: Draw a ring of cells surrounding the fluid-filled cavity, which represents the blastocoel. Inside the ring of cells, leave a solid non-cellular area that forms an "S" shape, indicating the central region filled with fluid.

4a. Early gastrula: Draw an embryo with slight invagination of the germ layers. Indicate two layers: an outer layer (ectoderm) and an inner layer (endoderm) that are starting to fold inward.

4b. Late gastrula: Sketch an elongated embryo with more pronounced invagination of the germ layers. The invagination forms three distinct layers: an outer layer (ectoderm), a middle layer (mesoderm), and an inner layer (endoderm).

5. Bipinnaria: Draw a simplified larva shape with basic features. Indicate the presence of cilia and some external structures but with limited organ development.

6. Brachiolaria: Sketch a more developed larva with internal organs and structures. Show the presence of tube feet, which are used for locomotion and attachment.

7. Young sea star: Draw a sea star with recognizable features, including the central body disc and the presence of tube feet extending from the body disc.

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The swordtail crickets of the Hawaiian islands exemplify: O the influence of the formation of underlying hotspots on speciation, with crickets moving east to west over millions of years O strong sexual selection based upon courtship songs O occupation effects of different climactic zones/niches of islands O the evolutionary driving force of a shift to new food resources

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The swordtail crickets of the Hawaiian Islands exhibit the effects of different climatic zones/niches of islands on speciation. These crickets show that geographical barriers like islands can promote speciation.

The differences in climatic conditions and microhabitats on the different islands of Hawaii provide distinct ecological niches for the crickets, promoting ecological speciation. Ecological speciation is the formation of new species due to adaptation to different ecological niches. This is often seen in island biogeography, where isolated populations of species have to adapt to different environmental conditions and competition pressures over time. The swordtail crickets have unique morphologies that correlate with different niches on different islands. For instance, on the island of Kauai, the crickets have longer antennae, which are beneficial in the moist environment of that island. The crickets on the Big Island, however, have shorter antennae that are more suited for their drier environment. The differences in morphology between these populations may have been driven by natural selection based on environmental conditions. Thus, the crickets provide an example of ecological speciation driven by the occupation effects of different climatic zones/niches of islands.

In summary, the swordtail crickets of the Hawaiian islands provide a great example of ecological speciation driven by geographical barriers. The isolation of the different islands created unique ecological niches that allowed the crickets to adapt to their respective environments. This led to the development of different morphologies in different populations of crickets. The differences in morphology, in turn, might have driven reproductive isolation between the populations, promoting speciation. Therefore, the crickets' study helps in understanding how different climatic zones/niches of islands affect the evolutionary process, showing that geographic isolation can lead to the formation of new species.

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Based on the table below, what is the identity of the pigment with the largest Rf value? Distance Rf value Colour Identification Spot / Band travelled Solvent front 9.1 Band 1 9.0 0.989 Orange yellow Carotene | Xanthophyll Band 2 1.7 0.187 Yellow Band 3 0.9 0.099 Bluish green Chlorophyll A Band 4 0.4 0.044 Yellowish Chlorophyll B green O Carotenes O Chlorophyll b O Chlorophyll a O Xanthophylls

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The pigment with the largest Rf value is Carotene.

Rf value, or the retention factor, is a measure of the distance traveled by a pigment relative to the distance traveled by the solvent front in a chromatography experiment. A higher Rf value indicates that the pigment has traveled a greater distance.

Looking at the given table, we can see that Carotene has the largest Rf value of 0.989. Carotene appears as an orange-yellow spot/band and is identified by its color. The other pigments listed in the table, such as Chlorophyll A, Chlorophyll B, and Xanthophyll, have smaller Rf values.

Therefore, based on the information provided, Carotene is the pigment with the largest Rf value in this experiment.

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Explain how TH2 helper cells determine the classes of antibodies
produced in B cells. Speculate how you cna drive the accumulation
of IgG antibodies.

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TH2 helper cells determine the classes of antibodies produced by B cells through cytokine signaling, with interleukins playing a key role in directing class switching. To enhance the accumulation of IgG antibodies, stimulating the activation and differentiation of TH2 cells using specific antigens, cytokines, or adjuvants can be explored.

TH2 helper cells play a crucial role in determining the classes of antibodies produced by B cells through a process called class switching or isotype switching.

Upon activation by an antigen-presenting cell, TH2 cells release cytokines, particularly interleukins, which provide specific signals to B cells to undergo class switching.

The cytokine interleukin-4 (IL-4) primarily directs B cells to switch to producing IgE antibodies, while interleukin-5 (IL-5) promotes IgA production.

Interleukin-6 (IL-6) and interleukin-21 (IL-21) are involved in the production of IgG antibodies.

To drive the accumulation of IgG antibodies, one strategy could be to stimulate the activation and differentiation of TH2 helper cells.

This can be achieved by using antigens that are known to induce a TH2 response or by administering specific cytokines that promote TH2 cell development and function.

For instance, the administration of interleukin-4 or interleukin-21 could enhance the generation of TH2 cells and subsequently promote the production of IgG antibodies.

Additionally, the use of adjuvants, which are substances that enhance the immune response, can be employed to potentiate the activation and differentiation of TH2 cells, thereby increasing the accumulation of IgG antibodies.

It's important to note that this is a speculative answer based on current understanding of the immune system.

Further research and experimentation would be required to validate and refine these approaches for driving the accumulation of IgG antibodies.

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1. In shorthorn cattle, the heterozygous condition of the alleles for red coat color (R) and white coat color (r) is roan (light red) coat color. If two roan cattle are mated, what will be the phenotypic ratio among the offspring?. 2. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. A normal man marries a carrier. What is the chance they will have a child with hemophilia together?

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If he passes on his normal X chromosome, the daughter will not have hemophilia but will be a carrier. If he passes on his X chromosome with the hemophilia gene, the daughter will have hemophilia.

1. In shorthorn cattle, the heterozygous condition of the alleles for red coat color (R) and white coat color (r) is roan (light red) coat color. If two roan cattle are mated, the phenotypic ratio among the offspring will be 1:2:1. This is because roan cattle are heterozygous (Rr) and can produce gametes containing either R or r alleles. So, when two roan cattle mate, there is a 25% chance that their offspring will inherit two R alleles and be red, a 50% chance that they will inherit one R and one r allele and be roan, and a 25% chance that they will inherit two r alleles and be white.

2. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. A normal man marries a carrier. There is a 50% chance that they will have a son with hemophilia. There is also a 50% chance that they will have a daughter who is a carrier, and a 50% chance that they will have a daughter who is not a carrier and does not have hemophilia. This is because the man will pass on his Y chromosome to all of his sons, which does not carry the hemophilia gene. However, he will pass on his X chromosome to all of his daughters, which can carry the hemophilia gene. If he passes on his normal X chromosome, the daughter will not have hemophilia but will be a carrier. If he passes on his X chromosome with the hemophilia gene, the daughter will have hemophilia.

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You are a researcher studying endangered fruit bats in South East Asia, and there is a risk of acquiring a range of zoonotic diseases. What types of assays would you need to have access to and what equipment should you bring to your field laboratory?

Answers

A researcher studying endangered fruit bats in South East Asia must have access to specific assays and bring particular equipment to their field laboratory. PCR and serology assays are critical for pathogen detection, while RDTs can provide fast and accurate results with minimal laboratory equipment. A portable PCR machine, ELISA plate reader, and microscope are necessary equipment required for the assays

Types of assays you would need to have access to:

1. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) assay for pathogen detection:This type of assay is crucial for pathogen detection in samples from fruit bats. The PCR technique allows for amplification and detection of a specific piece of DNA in a sample. The extracted sample can be from blood, feces, saliva, or other body fluids. This technique is vital in identifying viruses in the bat population that could pose a threat to human health.

2. Serology assays for pathogen detection: Serology assays measure the presence of antibodies in blood samples, and they can detect past infections with certain pathogens. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is one example of a serological assay that is widely used for pathogen detection.

3. Rapid diagnostic tests for pathogens: Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) can provide fast and accurate results with minimal laboratory equipment. RDTs are simple to use and can detect viral antigens and antibodies within a short time. Such assays can be used to diagnose viral infections such as Ebola virus and Marburg virus.

Equipment you should bring to your field laboratory:

1. PCR machine and accessories a portable PCR machine can be used in a field laboratory to amplify and detect DNA. The machine must be battery-powered and lightweight to be easily transported. Accessories required include pipettes, PCR tubes, and a thermal cycler.

2. ELISA plate reader is a necessary piece of equipment for serological assays. It is used to detect the amount of antigens and antibodies in a sample. The machine is battery-operated and can be taken to the field.

3. Microscope  is an essential piece of equipment for examining samples from bats. The microscope will allow you to identify viral and bacterial pathogens present in blood samples. The microscope should be portable, lightweight, and have a good resolution.

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spread plate inoculated with 0.2 ms from 108 dilation contained ao colonies Calculate the cell concentration of the original culture, spread plate noculat a olmi limit 20 - 200 cfulm)

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To calculate the cell concentration of the original culture based on the spread plate results, we need to consider the dilution factor and the number of colonies counted on the spread plate.

Given information:

Dilution factor: 0.2 mL from a 10^8 dilution

Colonies counted on the spread plate: AO

First, we need to determine the total volume of the original culture that was spread on the plate. This can be calculated using the dilution factor:

Volume spread on the plate = Dilution factor × Volume of inoculum

Volume spread on the plate = 0.2 mL × 10^8 dilution = 2 × 10^7 mL = 20 mL

Next, we need to calculate the colony-forming units per mL (CFU/mL) based on the number of colonies counted (AO) and the volume spread on the plate (20 mL):

CFU/mL = Number of colonies / Volume spread on the plate

CFU/mL = AO colonies / 20 mL

Finally, we need to convert CFU/mL to CFU/mL, considering the limit of detection (20-200 CFU/mL). If the number of colonies falls within this range, we can directly report the cell concentration as CFU/mL. If the count exceeds 200 CFU/mL, the sample is considered too concentrated, and further dilutions are required.

It's important to note that the exact calculations cannot be provided without knowing the specific value of AO (the number of colonies counted).

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Microevolution is defined as
Multiple Choice
morphological changes that occur from one generation to the next.
changes in the gene pool from one generation to the next.
the ability of different genotypes to succeed in a particular environment.
changes in gene flow from one generation to the next.

Answers

Microevolution is defined as changes in the gene pool from one generation to the next.

This definition captures the essence of microevolution, which refers to small-scale genetic changes that occur within a population over relatively short periods of time. These changes can include variations in allele frequencies, gene mutations, genetic drift, natural selection, and gene flow. While morphological changes can be a result of microevolution, the concept itself focuses on genetic changes and their impact on the gene pool of a population. The ability of different genotypes to succeed in a particular environment is more closely associated with the concept of natural selection, which is one of the driving forces of microevolution. Changes in gene flow, on the other hand, pertain to the movement of genes between populations rather than changes within a single population over time.

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how low-range hydrostatic pressure can be use to
to destroy bacterial spores in food when combined with other antibacterial treatment.

Answers

Low-range hydrostatic pressure can be used to destroy bacterial spores in food when combined with other antibacterial treatments. This process is called high-pressure processing (HPP), and it is used to increase the safety of foods by destroying bacteria.

High-pressure processing is an alternative to thermal processing for destroying bacteria in food. HPP uses pressure instead of heat to kill bacteria. The pressure range required to kill bacterial spores is lower than that required to kill vegetative bacteria. A pressure range of 500 to 700 MPa is required to destroy bacterial spores. However, when combined with other antibacterial treatments, the required pressure range can be lower. The combination of HPP with other treatments like antimicrobial agents and enzymes has been shown to reduce the pressure required to kill bacterial spores.

The treatment is effective against a wide range of bacterial spores, including Bacillus and Clostridium species.HPP is an effective method for reducing the risk of foodborne illness. It is used to process a wide range of foods, including meat, seafood, and fruits and vegetables. It is important to note that HPP does not eliminate all bacteria in food. It is only effective against vegetative bacteria and bacterial spores. However, it is a useful tool for reducing the risk of foodborne illness when combined with other antibacterial treatments.

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