Answer:
The frequency of A1 be on Big Pine Key after a single generation of migration from No Name Keyp is 0.2276
Explanation:
Whenever it occurs migration between two populations, there is genetic flux going on. Genetic flux might be considered as an evolutive strength only if migration > 0 and if the allelic frequency in one generation is different from the allelic frequency in the next generation.
Genetic flux acts homogenizing the allelic frequencies between the two populations, and it might introduce variability.
By knowing the allelic frequencies in both populations at a certain time and the migration rate, we can calculate the allelic frequencies of populations in the next generation. This is:
pA₂=pA₁(1-m)+pB₁ m
pB₂=pB₁(1-m)+pA₁ m
Being
A one population and B the other population pA₁ and pB₁ the frequencies of the p allele before migration, pA₂and pB₂ the frequencies of the p allele after migration, m the migration rateIn the exposed example, we know that:
No Name Key population allelic frequency: A1 = 0.43 and A2 = 0.57Big Pine Key population allelic frequency: A1 =0.21 and A2 = 0.79Migration rate m=0.08Let´s say that p represents A1 allele, and q represents A2 allele.
The frequency of A1 allele (p) be on Big Pine Key (Population B) after a single generation of migration from No Name Key (Population A)
pB₂=pB₁(1-m)+pA₁ m
pB₂=0.21 x (1 - 0.08) + 0.43 x 0.08
pB₂= 0.2276
The allelic frequency in a population after one generation is the allelic frequency of individuals of that population that did not migrate (21 x (1 - 0.08) plus the allelic frequency of the new individuals that came from the other population (0.43 x 0.08).
You can corroborate your result by calculating the q allele frequency in the next generation and summing both of them up. The result should be one.
qB₂= qB₁(1-m)+qA₁ m
qB₂= 0.79 x (1 - 0.08) + 0.57 x 0.08
qB₂= 0.7724
p + q = 1
0.2276 + 0.7724 = 1
name 3 important features of blood in your body
Answer:
1. Red blood cells for transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide in and out the body.
2. White blood cells for fighting against harmful substances in the blood stream.
3. Blood platelets for blood clot during an injury.
Explanation:
Hope it helps.
What structure is found mostly in green plant cells but not in animals
Answer:
The answer is Chloroplast.
Explanation:
Chloroplast is a structure in green plant cells which contain a substance called chlorophyll which give plant leaves their green color.
Hope this helps you
The cyclin B–Cdc2 complex controls the passage from G2 into M and is assembled before mitosis however, its catalytic activity is restricted to mitosis. What process is responsible for the activation of the cyclin B–Cdc2 complex?
Answer:
Phosphorylases that selectively add phosphate groups to the Cdc-2 subunit, thereby activating this complex.
Explanation:
The cyclin B-Cdc-2 (also known as maturation-promoting factor or simply MPF) complex is activated when it enters into the nucleus during the G2/M transition in the cell cycle. Cdc-2 is a protein kinase that associates with cyclin proteins. These proteins (cyclins) regulate the cell cycle by activating cyclin-dependent kinases. It is well known that phosphorylation of the Cdc2 subunit at different residues can both activate and inactivate the MPF complex. Moreover, enzymes capable of both inactivating phosphorylases and activating phosphatases have also shown to be able to activate MPF.
Suppose that you discover cells containing a mutation in a second protein and learn that this mutation also prevents mitotic cyclin from being degraded at the onset of mitosis, even when mitotic cyclin is normal. The degradation of other proteins appears to proceed normally in such cells. A mutation in what kind of protein might explain such results
Answer:
Mutations affecting proteins involved in the ubiquitination pathway
Explanation:
The cyclins represent a group of proteins capable of regulating the progression of the cell cycle via activation of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Cyclins are degraded by ubiquitination, a posttranslational modification that triggers the exit of mitosis by "marking" cyclin proteins for their subsequent degradation in the proteasome. The proteasome is a macromolecular complex required for the degradation of proteins in the cell. Then consequently the mutations affecting both secondary proteins required during ubiquitination and those involved in the functioning of the proteasome complex might prevent the degradation of cyclin proteins.
Record the height of the plants growing in the
acidic soil.
A. Stating the question or problem
B. Drawing a conclusion
C. Forming a hypothesis
D. Conducting an experiment
Answer:
D. Conducting an Experiment
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Conducting an experiment
Explanation:
Define and compare four level of protein organization.
Explanation:
There are four levels of protein structure: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary. These levels also reflect their temporal sequence. Proteins are synthesized as a primary sequence and then fold into secondary → tertiary → and quaternary structures.
Which statement below can NOT be used
when describing volume?
A. Volume is the amount of space that an object occupies.
B. The volume of an object is the same as the weight of that
object.
C. Volume can be measured in cubic centimeters.
D. Volume is calculated using a formula: V = 1xwxh.
Drag the tiles to the correct boxes to complete the pairs. Match the organisms to the descriptions.
Answer:
Ok, no boxes but whatever
Mammals - Endothermic Homeostasis (Warm Blooded), Hairy Body, Have babies live
Birds - Endothermic Homeostasis(Warm Blooded), Have eggs, feathers, claws
Bacteria - Single celled, use binary fission to divide
Fungi - Multi or single celled, have chitin cellular walls
Plants - Have cellulose plant walls, multicellular organism
Archae Bacteria - Same as normal, except they live in crazy enviorments, like at the bottom of the ocean or in a volcano or radiation pool
Protozoa - Single celled organism class, like ameoba
Answer:
If this was edmentum. this was my question and answer
Explanation:
see pic below
Estrogens from the vesicular follicle trigger an LH surge from the anterior pituitary. This is an example of: Estrogens from the vesicular follicle trigger an LH surge from the anterior pituitary. This is an example of: negative feedback first tier of control positive feedback fourth tier of control
Answer:
The correct answer is: positive feedback.
Explanation:
Positive and negative feedback are terms that are used to define the way a system is regulated by its products. For example, when the production of a certain substance inhibits its producer that is called negative feedback. On the other hand, when a substance stimulates its producer to keep secreting said substance, this is called positive feedback.
Estrogen is a hormone of great importance in the female reproductive cycle and is secreted by the follicle cells in response to the presence of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), released by the anterior pituitary when stimulated by the GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone).
Estrogen appears at the beginning of the cycle to stimulate the development of the ovarian follicles, and the hormone levels continue to rise as the cycle advances. Up until the 14th day of the cycle, estrogen has a negative feedback on GnRH and FSH, but then it makes an abrupt change to now exert positive feedback on GnRH to stimulate the release of LH (luteinizing hormone), which will be responsible for ovulation.
write the name of 5 plants that reproduce by stem?
Answer:They are
Ginger
Potato
Basil
Rosemary
Lavender
Explanation:Feel pleasure to help u...
Answer:
Onions , ginger, gladiolus, common ivy, dahlia
Explanation:
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Write down the oxygen requirements of the microorganisms growing in thioglycolate tube.
Answer:
Obligate aerobic microbes requires oxygen for its survival in the thioglycolate tube while Obligate anaerobic microbes does not requires oxygen.
Explanation:
Thioglycolate tube is a tube which is used to determine the oxygen requirement of different types of microbes. The concentration of oxygen is higher in the upper portion of the tube while in the lower portion, the concentration of oxygen is the lowest. So those microbes who needs oxygen for their survival will be present in the upper portion of the tube while those microbes who does not need oxygen, will be present at the bottom of the tube.
Osteoporosis is characterized by Group of answer choices keratinization and death of epithelial cells. defective collagen production. immature red blood cells that lack hemoglobin. loss of bone mass and structure.
Answer: osteoporosis actually caused by lack of calcium
Explanation:
It is most common in womans....
And also immature red blood cells due to which blood calcium level decrease and cause osteoporosis
Left-sided heart failure is characterized by
Answer:
Left-sided heart failure is a heart condition where the muscle on the left side of the heart is diminished and the pump doesn't work to the body. Left-sided heart failure is defined not as a disease, but a process.
Symptoms:
Left-sided heart failure. Fluid may back up in your lungs, causing shortness of breath. Right-sided heart failure. Fluid may back up into your abdomen, legs and feet, causing swelling. Systolic heart failure.
Explanation:
Discuss with erica what appropriate internet usage on the job look like
Explanation:
Download or upload obscene, offensive or illegal material.
Send confidential information to unauthorized recipients.
Invade another person’s privacy and sensitive information.
Download or upload movies, music and other copyrighted material and software.
Visit potentially dangerous websites that can compromise the safety of our network and computers.
Perform unauthorized or illegal actions, like hacking, fraud,
Which of the following is the measure of the
chair's mass, or the amount of particles it has?
A. the length of a chair
B. the temperature of the chair
C. the color of the chair
D. the amount of matter in the chair
A strain of E. coli carries a mutation that completely inactivates the enzyme encoded in the gene. Several revertants, mutants of the mutant with partly or fully restored activity, were selected, and the amino acid sequence of the enzyme was determined. The only differences found were at position 10 in the polypeptide chain.
Revertant 1 had Thr.
Revertant 2 had Glu.
Revertant 3 had Met.
Revertant 4 had Arg.
Assume that the initial mutation itself, as well as each revertant, resulted from a single nucleotide substitution.
a. What amino acid is present at position 10 in the mutant protein?
b. What codon in the mRNA would encode this amino acid?
Answer:
The correct answer is - a) Lys b) AAG
Explanation:
As mention in question that whatever mutation took place was single nucleotide substitution which changes the complete amino acid here what one can do is he can analyze all 64 codons which code for different amino acids to find out.
Revertant 3 which had methionine in the 64 codons one codon codes for methionine which is AUG so we will search for most similar and found that-
Threonine = ACG
Glutamate = GAG
Arginine = AGG
Methionine = AUG
Lysine = AAG
In the mutant protein most possible amino acid present could be lysine as lysine coded by AAG in E.coli and if we do point mutation in the codon of lysine we can get all other four codon for given revertants :
AAG= lysine if second nucleotide converted to C so it will become ACG and will code for threonine as in Revertant 1.
AAG= lysine if first nucleotide converted to G - become GAG and will code for Glutamate as in Revertant 2.
AAG =lysine if second nucleotide converted to U - AUG and will code for methionine as in Revertant 3.
AAG= lysine if second nucleotide converted to G - AGG and will code for arginine as in Revertant 4.
So, lysine codon AAG is the only position in the genetic code that can, in one step, mutate to either Thr, Glu, Met, or Arg.
Thus, the correct answer is - a) Lys b) AAG
why standard units neeeded
Answer:Because it is scientific and gives accurate results as well as accepted by the world.
Explanation:
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The term heterochromatin refers to heavily condensed regions of chromosomes that are largely devoid of genes. Since few genes exist there, these regions almost never decondense for transcription. At what point during the cell cycle would expect to observe decondensation of heterochromatic regions? Why?
Answer:
The correct answer is: S phase.
Explanation:
DNA can be divided into two functional forms: heterochromatin and euchromatin. Heterochromatin refers to the DNA that doesn't code for proteins or RNA, and thus it remains heavily condensed, for there would be no use to use it for transcription or translation. Euchromatin, on the other hand. is the DNA with the genes that can be transcripted into RNA and translated into proteins; for this reason, Euchromatin is less compact than Heterochromatin.
The only point in the cell cycle where Heterochromatin would be decondensed is S phase because, in this part of the cell cycle, the DNA gets replicated in order to prepare for Mitosis. For DNA to be replicated, it first needs to be decondensed to their two strands can be separated and used as guides for the synthesis of the two new strands.
as an aspiring nurse,the need for the culture of a new pathogenic microorganism in the laboratory has been allocated to you. Applying all the guidelines involved in the successful isolation and cultivation of microbes, discuss the culturing system that is most appropriate for this activity and state your reasons for this choice
Answer:
The culturing system depends on the sort of microbe allotted to segregate namingly bacteria, viruses, or fungi. Each microbial pathogen has particular culture media for disconnection and for development or replication, we need culture media.for model bacterial pathogen can be separated by plating the example in fitting media by 3 strategies that are streak plate or pour plate or spread plate
Out of the above streak, plate gives the best outcomes in single disengaged provinces which can be additionally cultured and characterized for creation of pure culture
What type of evidence would indicate that the human hand, pigeon wing, and cat paw are homologous structures?
Answer:
embryological evidence or fossil evidence. give the answer choices if you can. they are vestigial structures.
Explanation:
Which component of a virus is injected into an infected cell? ribosome nucleic acid protein capsid mitochondrion
Answer: The component of virus is injected into an infected cell is RNA or DNA, aur nuclei acid.
Explanation:
Nucleic acid is injected into an infected cell.
What component is injected into the infected cell?During attachment and penetration, the virus attaches itself to a host cell and injects its genetic material into it. During uncoating, replication, and assembly, the viral DNA or RNA incorporates itself into the host cell's genetic material and induces it to replicate the viral genome.
What does the nucleic acid do in a virus?Nucleic Acid - Just as in cells, the nucleic acid of each virus encodes the genetic information for the synthesis of all proteins. While the double-stranded DNA is responsible for this in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, only a few groups of viruses use DNA.
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Schilders disease is a progressive degeneration of the central nervous system that leads to death by age 2. The disease is caused by a simple autosomal recessive mutation. A couple loses its first two children to Schilders disease. If they decide to have a third child, what is the probability that it will have the disease
Answer:
The probability will be 25% (1/4)
Explanation:
Schilder's syndrome is a degenerative and progressive lethal disease caused by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. Since it is a lethal recessive autosomal disease, both the father and the mother have a single copy of the mutant allele, thereby the probability of obtaining a lethal combination will be:
SN X SN >>
1/2 x 1/2 = 1/4 = 25%
where N and S are normal and lethal alleles, respectivelyvely
has four pairs of chromosomes what proportion of gametes would be expected to contain some chromosomes from both parental and maternal origin? assume that there is no crossing over
Answer:
To complete the question: a diploid organism has four pairs of chromosomes what proportion of gametes would be expected to contain some chromosomes from both parental and maternal origin? assume that there is no crossing over
Answer: 7/8
Explanation:
A diploid organism with four pairs of chromosomes...
Assume that the organism receives chromosomes A, B, C and D from the female parent and A', B', C' and D' from the male parent.
Proportion of gametes from patterns origin is the same as that of matters origin, this we have:
(1/2)^4 = 1/16 where 4 reps the number of possibilities, 1/2 rep the chance
Thus, the proportion of gametes expected to contain some chromosomes from both parental and maternal origin would be
(1 - (1/16 + 1/16)) = 14/16 = 7/8
Which best describes what happens to ATP during photosynthesis?
A. ATP is produced and then used to produce glucose.
B. ATP is broken down and then not used again.
C. ATP is formed and remains unchanged in the chloroplast.
D. ATP is changed to ADP and then moved to the cytoplasm
A. ATP is produced and then used to produce glucose.
ATP is produced in the light-dependent reactions and used in Calvin's cycle for glucose synthesis
Answer:
A) ATP is produced and then used to produce glucose.
Explanation:
Took the test edge2021
The immune system responds to the damage to arteries because of atherosclerosis by: a. destroying foam cells that capture and remove LDL from the artery wall b. promoting the growth of skeletal muscle cells of the artery wall to repair the site c. sending white blood cells to the site to try repair the damage d. reducing the concentration of clotting factors in the blood e. lining the arteries with high levels of HDL cholesterol
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.sending white blood cells to the site to try to repair the damaged
Explanation:
Atherosclerosis is a disease where plaque develops inside arteries. Arteries are vessels that convey oxygen-rich blood to your heart and different regions of your body. Plaque is comprised of fat, cholesterol, calcium, and different substances found in the blood. After some time, plaque solidifies and limits your supply routes.
The immune system responds to Atherosclerosis that causes damage to the arteries by sending white blood cells to the damaged site to fix the damage caused by the plaques and fat deposits that obstruct the blood supply.
The immune system responds to the damage to arteries because of atherosclerosis by C. sending white blood cells to the site to try repair the damage.
The immune system is the process that is important for resistance against diseases and fighting infection. It defends our body against invaders such as bacteria, viruses, etc.
It should be noted that the immune system responds to the damage to arteries because of atherosclerosis by sending white blood cells to the site so that the damage will be repaired.
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ASAP Neurons are an example of which type(s) of cell signaling? A. Short range messaging B. Short range and Direct contact C. Long range signaling D. Direct contact
C. Long-range signaling because their axons can send signals that can reach up to 3 feet
What should be done following health violations from an inspection?
Answer:
correct the identified
Explanation:
If health violations are found out during inspections, the inspector should give him warning about the violation or give him a ticket or fine. If high level of violation if found out, then the license of the restaurant or company should be cancelled.
What is heath violation?Health violation is avoiding the condition that are necessary for health during the process or manufacturing. These violation leads to the poor health of the people.
Health inspectors are the person who check the conditions of hotel and factories related to the health of the people. If they found any violation, the companies should correct them.
Thus, the inspector should issue him a warning about the infringement or issue him a ticket or fee if any health violations are discovered during inspections. If a serious breach is discovered, the restaurant's or business' license should be revoked.
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the pancreas produced a special hormone, which stimulates the absorption of blood sugar. This hormone is called?
A adrenaline
B glycogen
C glucagon
D insulin
Answer:
The answer is option D.
Insulin
Hope this helps
Answer:
D. insulin
Explanation:
Insulin is the hormone produced by the pancreas and released when blood sugar is higher than normal. Glucagon is the opposite hormone, used when blood sugar is too low, and more must be freed from reserves of glycogen
a smoker develops damage to several alveoli that can no longer function. how does this affect gas exchange?
Answer:
Smoking causes the hardening of the alveoli walls. This keeps them from extending or stretching out because of the loss of elasticity. In such a circumstance, it is hard to take up oxygen from the inspired air or to remove carbon dioxide from the circulation system. This would prompt partial or less trapping of the gases in the lungs.
With this damage due to smoking, the alveoli can not assist the bronchial tubes enough. The tubes also get damaged and cause a blockage or obstruction, which traps air inside the lungs. An excess of air caught in the lungs can give a few patients a barrel-chested appearance.
You perform an experiment in which you take 16 pots of strawberry plants and give half of them 1 gm of ammonium nitrate per liter of water and the other half receive only water. Each group is then split in half again, and exposed to either 8 or 16 hours of light each day. You monitor the height of the plants for 4 weeks. You observe that plants grown in ammonium nitrate and 16 hours of light grow taller than no ammonium nitrate and 8 hours of light.
The reason for the uptake by plants of nutrients like ammonium nitrate is
asexual reproduction.
homeostasis.
evolution.
sexual reproduction.
natural selection
Answer:
homeostasis.
Explanation:
Homeostasis is the process whereby living systems maintain a stable internal environment despite changes in environmental conditions. Plants, like every other living organisms also perform this process to keep their internal environment in a stable state.
According to the question, some plants were exposed to ammonium nitrate, which serves as a nutrient, and 16 hours of sunlight needed for photosynthesis to take place. The plants exposed to ammonium nitrate and 16 hours sunlight grew taller because they had access to nutrients needed to bring about the process of photosynthesis, which provides the plant with energy source (Glucose).
The uptake of nutrients like ammonium nitrate by the plants is done in order to maintain a homeostatic internal environment. Without nutrients, which is the purpose of the ammonium nitrate, plants cannot grow. Hence, the plants exposed to ammonium nitrate, take it in to keep their internal environment functioning.