Answer:
Parotid salivary gland.
Explanation:
John's parotid salivary gland is the major cause of the problem
Parotid salivary gland is the largest of the salivary gland. Parotid salivary gland is found in the mouth, the upper part of the cheek and part of the ear.
This gland help to chew and empty saliva into the mouth.
A viral infection like flu, mumps can cause swelling of the parotid salivary gland.
Other symptoms include ;
Tender , lump cheeks.
Swollen cheeks
Difficulty in opening the mouth and swallowing food.
Pain in the left ear
Fever , chills and general weakness and so on.
Treatment of this depend on the type of infection, drinking hot water with lemon juice can help can help stimulate saliva.
Answer:
parotid salivary gland-parotitis.
Explanation:
This is located in front of and just below each ear.When the duct which drains this gland it blocked,drainage of saliva is prevented, and therefore lack of drainage leads to pain.
its inflammation is due primarily to bacterial infection,among other factors which are HIV,diabetes,etc.
Antibiotic intake is the most effective way of treatment.
In addition,the treatment is based on saliva stimulation to unblock the drainage. Therefore lemon intake either as raw or with water is ideal way.
what kind of molecule is represented in the diagram?
Answer:
The answer is option B.
TriglycerideHope this helps you
Carolus Linnaeus Group of answer choices developed theories of natural selection. was a proponent of evolutionary change. established a binomial system of classification for plants and animals. was a supporter of Charles Darwin. opposed all notions of fixity of species.
Answer:
1- was a proponent of evolutionary change.
2- established a binomial system of classification for plants and animals
Explanation:
Carolus Linnaeus was a Sweden naturalist that is considered to be the creator of the modern taxonomy. He created a dichotomic system to classify species, in which species are fixed entities without phenotypic modifications across time, this concept being contrary to Darwin's ideas. Linnaeus published his nomenclature botanical system in the book "Species Plantarum", which is nowadays a reference book for plant nomenclature.
What best describes the behavior of nonconservative elements in seawater?
The given question is incomplete due to missing options, however, the options for the question as follows:
A. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.
B. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.
C. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.
D. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Non conservative components are components that enter the ocean water and have little concentration in the sea and show spatial variations. These components have short home time that is short replacements time and they are non responsive.
Constituents, for example, phosphate, nitrate, and different supplements, and broke up oxygen, carbon dioxide, and so on are non-conservative on the grounds that their concentrations are later altered by chemical reactions in the ocean.
Thus, The correct answer is option C.
Which of the following example(s) does NOT cause bias in a research study.
A) Measuring body temperature with an oral thermometer in half of subjects and an ear thermometer in others
B) Counting the number of firefighters at your house to predict if it will be destroyed
C) Using a set of standardized questions to measure food intake in children
D) Studying workers to see the effects of a new health care law on unemployed
Penicillin has ability to provoke immune response by itself. true or false?
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Penicillin is a bacteria so it means it causes the production of antibodies which then boost the immune system.
It is like vaccination; small doses of the inactive form of the infection is injected into the body in order for the body to create antibodies resistant to such infection(thereby boosting the immune system).
Hope it helps.
I was wondering if anyone could help with this? The photo is posted below.
Answer:
The answer is option C.
Hope this helps you
Which capillary would be least likely to allow substances to enter or exit the blood due to tight junctions that join the endothelial cells
Answer:
Those capillaries that have endothelial cells tightly attached have an increase in cell-to-cell junctions, such as desmosomal junctions that are poorly permeable to substances.
These capillaries generally function as conductors or collectors and not as permeabilizers like the pulmonary capillaries that are fenestrated and allow a high passage of substances and gases.
The capillaries are waterproof and prevent the passage of substances or fluids such as in the blood-brain barrier that is very selective
Explanation:
The blood-brain barrier is too selective since it is not favorable for the organism that many fluids, drugs, substances or chemical compounds enter the brain space.
This is the reason why the vessels are waterproof and why pharmacology was challenged to invent drugs that could cross this barrier since it was considered impossible.
An example is dopamine, which in parkynson's disease the levo group is added to dopamine, thus forming levodopamine as a product, this is the only way that the drug crosses the blood-brain barrier and can pass the impermeable barrier generated by capillaries with endothelial cells that are close to each other or closely linked
The sex of the person that you are attracted to would
determine your
sexual identification.
o gender-role attractions
sexual orientation.
sexuality
Answer:
Gender role attraction determine your sexual identificaton.
Explanation:
what must happen before meiosis can begin A. the cell splits into four parts B. the chromosomes must replicate C. four haploid cells are produced D.DNA must duplicate four times
Answer:
B. the chromosomes must replicate
Answer: DNA replicates and forms retreads
Explanation:
You are doing research on nervous system diseases; particularly, one that dissolves lipids. What part of the neuron would you expect to be affected most by this disease? A. Myelin sheath B. Axon C. Synaptic Cleft D. Dendrites
The answer you are looking for is A
difference between plant and animal cyanide resistance respiration.
Answer:
The cyanide resistant respiration differs in plants as oxidation of reduced coenzyme continues even in the presence of cyanides.
Explanation:
The mitochondrial is the electrons through which the animals and plants perform the aerobic exercise and is blocked by the release of the cyanides that stops the activity and is known as cyanide sensitive respiration Plant mitochondria is different from the animal as they both have different oxidase system pathways. Cyanide resistant is responsible for the climacteric in fruits and for the generate heat in thermogenic tissues.n which environment would mineral formation caused by high pressures and high temperatures most likely occur?
Answer:
when the flood or landslide flows theremnants of plants and animals are taken to the sea and ocean then due to high pressure and temperature they forms fossils in sedimentary rocks and due to the anaerobic condition under the fosdils gets decayed and it forms the layer of mineral. so we can say thatminerals are formed in anaerobic condition under sedimentary rocks.
Deficiency of which material leads to anaemia ?
Answer:
iron
Explanation:
iron is present in red blood cells. Without it the RBC's start to die and are less in number. Which causes anaemia.
Conjugated enzymes are a key component of ELISA. To what are these enzymes conjugated, and why is that important?
Answer:
To the antigen so the enzymes are only present when the molecule of interest is also present
To the plastic of the reaction well so the enzymes can concentrate the molecule of interest
To the capture antibody so the enzymes are only present when the molecule of interest is also present
To the detection antibody so the enzymes are only present when the molecule of interest is also present
Explanation:
When ______ is released, the subsequent receiving neuron ________ fire because that neurotransmitter is _______.
Answer:
When a neurotransmitter is released, the posterior receptor neuron has the receptor to bind to it because that neurotransmitter is a stimulator of the postsynaptic membrane.
Explanation:
The neurotransmitters that are released from the motor plate, that is, from the postsynaptic membrane to the presynaptic space, are captured by receptors of the postsynaptic membrane, which can be another neuronal structure to transmit an impulse or a muscle to be able to execute the contraction.
I leave you an image that draws up the stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane by means of a neutrotranismor, these are called as: adrenaline, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, etc.
Number 1 is the presynaptic membrane that releases the neurotransmitter (yellow balls), number 2 is the intersynaptic space, 3 is the postsynaptic membrane that in number 4 can be seen to be activated by relating to the neurotransmitter
Which statement describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude?
It is measured by the Mercalli scale.
It is based on the size of seismic waves.
O It is not usually affected by the amount of fault movement.
It is used to determine damage caused by earthquakes.
Answer:
b. It is based on the size of seismic waves
Explanation:
just did the test
The statement that describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude is: "It is based on the size of seismic waves."
What is an earthquake's magnitude?An earthquake's magnitude is a measure of the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and it is determined by measuring the amplitude (height) of the seismic waves generated by the earthquake. The size of the seismic waves is directly related to the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and this is used to calculate the earthquake's magnitude.
The most commonly used scale for measuring earthquake magnitude is the Richter scale, which is based on the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded on a seismogram. Other scales, such as the moment magnitude scale, are based on the seismic moment, which takes into account the size of the fault rupture and the amount of slip on the fault.
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Humans breathe in oxygen and release ____ gas.
Answer:
Carbon
Explanation:
Reverse photosynthesis
Answer:
carbon dioxide
Explanation:
our body changes it
(sodium potassum adenosine triphosphatase) is found in the plasma membrane and catalyzes the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane. Classify the statements about the transport system as either true or false.
Answer:
The statements are:
Pumps K+ out of the cell False
Pumps K+ions into the cell True
Exchanges 3 Na+ ions for 2 K ions+ True
Exchanges 3 K+ ions for 2 Na+ ions False
Creates a membrane potential that is negative on the inside True
The transport protein becomes adenylated by ATP during the transport cycle True
Pumps Na+ ions out of the cell True
Pumps Na+ ions into the cell False
Explanation:
Sodium Potassium Adenosine Triphosphatase is in the membrane of cells. Its function is to create a difference of charges between the inside and the outside of the cell. The enzyme pumps 3 Na+ ions outside the cell for every 2 K+ ions that pumps inside the cell producing a resting potential. As this process is against their concentration gradient, the protein needs the energy to do it. This energy comes from the ATP that attaches to the transport protein.
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
Complete question:
Part C: Using the Punnett square to make predictions
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note: You will find the Punnet square in the attached files.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
1) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random will be yellow?
2) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random from along the yellow seeds will breed true when selfed?
3) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include at least one yellow seed?
4) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include one green seed and two yellow seeds?
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
Y is the dominant allele and expresses yellow color y is the recessive allele and expresses green colorSeeds with YY and Yy genotype are yellowSeeds with yy genotype are greenParental) Yy x Yy
Gametes) Y y Y y
Punnet Square)
(1/2) Y (1/2) y
(1/2) Y (1/4) YY (1/4) Yy
(1/2) y (1/4) yY (1/4) yy
F2) 1/4 YY
2/4 = 1/2 Yy
1/4 yy
1) There will be 3/4 of probabilities of getting a yellow F2 seed
1/4 YY + 2/4 Yy = 3/4 Y-
The symbol "-" means that in its position there might be either a Y or y allele.
2) As there are only three yellow possible genotypes for yellow seeds, the fourth genotype for green seeds is not considered. Our pool now is only yellow seeds. So the probability of getting a pure breeding yellow seed among all yellow seeds is 1/3.
1/3 YY
1/3 Yy
1/3 yY
In the pool of yellow seeds, there are three genotypes, and only one of them corresponds to pure breeding yellow seed.
3) To calculate the probability of getting at least one yellow seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we need to multiply and then perform addition. This is, when we take three seeds from the pool, we have different possibilities of getting seeds with different genotypes. So:
the three chosen seeds could be yellow. In this case, we multiply their probabilities. The probability of getting one yellow seed is 3/4, so, the probabilities of getting three yellow seeds are: 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 27/64There might also be one green sees and two yellow seed, so we multiply their probabilities in the order in which we might get them. This is:
Two yellow seeds and one green seed: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow seed, one green seed, and one yellow seed: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed, and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64And we could also get two green seeds and only one yellow seed:
Two green and one yellow seed: 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64one green, one yellow and one green: 1/4 x 3/4x 1/4 = 3/64one yellow seed and two green seeds: 3/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 3/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
27/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 3/64 + 3/64 + 3/64= 63/64.
Note that we did not include the possibility of getting three green seeds (1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4). This is because we were asked to calculate the probabilities of getting AT LEAST one yellow seed.
4) To calculate the probability of getting two yellow seeds and one green seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we should multiply probabilities and then sum them up.
The orders in which we could get the seeds are:
Two yellows and one green: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow, one green, and one yellow: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
6/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 = 27/64.
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
1) yellow seed could either be GG, Gg or Gg from Punnett square, therefore, there is a 3/4 probability
2) true-breeding = either GG or gg. Therefore, out of the 3 yellow seed options, only 1 is true-breeding, therefore, it's a 1/3 probability
3) "there are 7 possible groupings that have at least 1 yellow seed; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 63/64. Note that you could have also calculated this answer by subtracting the probability of the one category that doesn’t fit the criterion (Green, Green, Green) from the total probability (1 – 1/64 = 63/64)"
4) "there are 3 possible groupings that have 1 green and 2 yellow seeds; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 27/64"
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When a scientist is designing an experiment, _____ groups are made.
1
2
3
4
Answer:
Scientist makes 2 groups.
Explanation:
One experimentle group and other is controle group.
Why does the pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts
Answer:
A Because all are complex cells with certain functions that cannot be greatly altered without affecting fitness.
B Because VSG switching may not be restricted to trypanosomes.
C Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.
D None of these answers are correct.
The answer is C .Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.
Explanation:
Pattern recognition strategy employs the use of pattern recognition receptors which are proteins for the recognition of molecules frequently found in pathogens. When they are recognized, the body then marks the cells for destruction.
Pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes and they help in the recognition of pathogens or host for further action on them.
which proteins serves as a chemical messenger
Answer:
Neuropeptides
Explanation:
They are proteins that function as chemical messengers and are released by neurons. They contain 3 to 36 amino acids.
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The mechanism by which proteins synthesized in the cytosol are imported into the mitochondrial matrix is different from the mechanism by which proteins enter the nucleus, yet the two mechanisms do share some features. Indicate whether each of the following statements applies to nuclear import, mitochondrial import, both, or neither. Sort each statement into the appropriate bin.
1. The polypeptide to be transported into the organelle has a specific short stretch of amino acids that targets the polypeptide to the organelle.
2. The imported protein enters the organelle through some sort of protein pore
3. The pore complex consists of more than two dozen proteins and is large enough to be readily seen with the electron microscope.
4. ATP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
5. The signal sequence is always at the olypeptide's N-terminus and is cut off by a peptidase within the organelle
6. The signal sequence is recognized
GTP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
7. There is strong evidence for the involvement of chaperone proteins polypeptide's N-terminus and isctand bound by a receptor protein inrequired for the translocation during translocation of the protein the organelle's outer membrane process.
Nuclear import Mitochondrial import Both Neither
Answer:
Nuclear import:
1. GTP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
2. The pore complex consists of more than two dozen proteins and is large enough to be readily seen through electron microscopy
Mitochondrial import:
1. ATP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
2. The signal sequence is always at the polypeptide's N-terminus and is cut off by a peptidase inside the organelle
3. There is strong evidence for the involvement of chaperones during the translocation process
4. The signal sequence is recognized and bound by a receptor protein in the organelles outer membrane
Both:
1. The polypeptide to be transferred into the organelle has a specific short stretch of amino acids that targets the polypeptide to the organelle
2. The imported protein enters the organelle through some sort of protein pore
Explanation:
why did mendel use pea plants in his experiments A. they produced quickly B. they are all male C. they have no alleles D. they are haploid organisms
Answer:
They produce quickly
Explanation:
Mendel chose pea plants for his experiments because they are easy to raise, have many offspring per mating, can fertilize themselves and have varieties in genotype and phenotype that are easily observable. These characteristics make pea plants ideal in the study of genetics and heredity.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle?
A. Diploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce spores by mitosis.
B. Diploid sporophytes that produce spores by mitosis alternate with haploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis.
C. Diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis.
D. Diploid gametophytes that produce spores by mitosis alternate with haploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis.
Answer:
Option C is the correct choice.
Explanation:
Generation Alternation seems to be a method of development process found in domestic cell walls animals as well as of plants where typically express populations overlap between diploid or haploid species. This could be associated with animal random mutations, where both the mentioned cells are present in each generation.Some other choices provided do not correspond to the circumstance in question. And the correct response will be Option C.
The statement 'diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis' correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle (Option C).
In plants, the diploid (2n) sporophyte undergoes meiosis to generate haploid (n) spores.
Subsequently, plant spores undergo successive mitosis to produce multicellular haploid (n) gametophytes.
In the gametophyte phase, a plant produces male and female haploid (n) gametes by mitosis in organs known as gametangia.
The diploid (2n) sporophyte is the zygote produced from the fusion of two (one male and one female) plant gametes. This zygote first develops into an embryo which will give rise to the adult sporophyte by successive mitosis.
In conclusion, the statement 'diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis' correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle (Option C).
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What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds
Answer:
90 percent
Explanation:
Based on average estimated juvenile and adult survival rate for each species
To which domain does the animal kingdom belong? Bacteria Archaea Eukarya
Answer:
The correct answer is Eukarya.
Explanation:
The kingdom Animalia is one of four Kingdoms in the Domain Eukarya. This domain is further subdivided into the Kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia.
Answer:
Eukarya is it
Explanation:
If the scientist had collected 20 dung samples, would you expect more bands, fewer bands, or the same number of bands on the gel?
Answer:
The expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
Explanation:
One sample provides several sizes and thickness bands in the gel electrophoresis according to the size of fragments that run in it. An individual would expect more bands due to the increase in the number of samples which is 20 samples now.
An increase in the number of samples produces more bands. So one can easily expect more bands from the 20 samples. Scientists would get more bands on the gels.
Thus, the expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
If the scientist collects 20 dung samples ; we should expect more band on the gel
Given that each dung sample has varying sizes and varying thickness of bands in the gel electrophoresis which depends on the size of fragments contained in it. Therefore when a number of dung samples ( 20 ) are collected it is only logical that the number of bands on the gel will increase ( i.e. you should expect more band on the gel ).
Hence we can conclude that If the scientist collects 20 dung samples we should expect more band on the gel .
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Although your question lacks some data a general answer within the scope of your question is provided
150 ml of 54% CaCI2 solution contains how many grams of CaCI2?
Answer:
mass of CaCl₂ = 67.4 g of CaCl₂
Explanation:
A 45% CaCl₂ Solution contains 45 g of solute per 100 mL of solution.
mass concentration = mass of solute (g)/ volume of solution (L)
100 mL of solution = 100 * 1L /1000 = 0.1 L
Mass concentration of solution = 45 g/0.1 L = 450 g/L
Molar concentration of solution = mass concentration / molar mass
molar mass of CaCl₂ = 111 g/mol
molar concentration = 450 g/L / 111 g/mol = 4. 05 mol/L
Number of moles of CaCl₂ present in 150 ml of 4.05 mol/L solution = molar concentration * volume (L)
number of moles of CaCl₂ = 4.05 * 150 * 1 L/1000 = 0.6075 moles
mass of CaCl₂ present in 0.6075 moles = number of moles * molar mass
mass of CaCl₂ = 0.6075 * 111 = 67.4 g of CaCl₂
Describe how the end product of digestion of fats and oils is absorbed in humans
Answer:
Hello
In the small intestines bile emulsifies fats while enzymes digest them. The intestinal cells absorb the fats. Long-chain fatty acids form a large lipoprotein structure called a chylomicron that transports fats through the lymph system.
hope this answer is correct
In the small intestines bile emulsifies fats while enzymes digest them. The intestinal cells absorb the fats.
What is the end product of digestion of fats and oils?Lipids (fats and oils) are broken down in the small intestine. The enzyme lipase is responsible for breaking down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
How are the end products of fat digestion absorbed?Micelles transport the end products of lipid digestion (free fatty acids and monoglycerides) to the digestive tract lining for absorption.
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