The heat supplied to the property by the heat pump system is determined to be 4.56 kW.
Since the system is a heat pump, it will supply heat to the property.Q = m × c × ΔT, Where,
Q = heat supplied to the propertym = mass flow rate of the refrigerantc = specific heat capacity of the refrigerantΔT = change in temperatureWe know that the refrigerant used is R-513a and we also know the operating conditions of the compressor and condenser.
Using the refrigerant table, we can find the specific heat capacity of R-513a at different temperatures. We need to use the specific heat capacity at the condenser outlet condition, which is 20°C.c = 1.0 kJ/kg K (approximate value at 20°C)
We also know the mass flow rate of the refrigerant.m = 432 kg/hrWe need to convert it to kg/s.m = 432 ÷ 3600 = 0.12 kg/s. Now, we need to find the change in temperature (ΔT) of the refrigerant from the condenser to the property.
We know that the outlet condition of the condenser is 20°C. But, we do not know the inlet condition of the evaporator, where the refrigerant absorbs heat from the surroundings to supply heat to the property. Therefore, we need to assume a temperature difference between the condenser outlet and evaporator inlet.
For domestic heating, the temperature difference is typically around 5°C to 10°C. Let us assume a temperature difference of 8°C. This means that the evaporator inlet temperature is 12°C (20°C - 8°C).So, the change in temperature (ΔT) is 50°C - 12°C = 38°C.
Now, we can substitute the values in the formula. Q = m × c × ΔT= 0.12 × 1.0 × 38= 4.56 kW. Therefore, the heat supplied to the property is 4.56 kW.
Learn more about The heat: brainly.com/question/934320
#SPJ11
mathematical model of iot based prepaid energy meter
system
The IoT-based prepaid energy meter system utilizes a mathematical model to accurately measure and manage energy consumption. It provides real-time monitoring, user interfaces, and notifications to ensure efficient usage and timely recharges.
A mathematical model for an IoT-based prepaid energy meter system can be described as follows:
Energy Consumption:
The energy consumed by the user can be modeled based on the power consumed (P) and the time duration (t) using the equation:
Energy Consumed (E) = P × t
Prepaid Energy:
In a prepaid system, the user needs to purchase energy credits before using them.
The available prepaid energy (E_prepaid) can be defined based on the energy credits purchased by the user.
Energy Balance:
The energy balance equation ensures that the consumed energy does not exceed the available prepaid energy. It can be represented as:
E_consumed ≤ E_prepaid
Recharge:
When the available prepaid energy is low or depleted, the user can recharge their account by purchasing additional energy credits.
The recharge process updates the available prepaid energy.
Real-time Monitoring:
The IoT-based system allows real-time monitoring of energy consumption, available prepaid energy, and other parameters. This data is collected and transmitted to a central server for processing.
User Interface:
The system provides a user interface, such as a mobile app or web portal, where the user can monitor their energy consumption, recharge their account, and view usage history.
Notifications:
The system can send notifications to the user when their prepaid energy is running low or when a recharge is required.
Metering Accuracy:
The mathematical model should also consider the accuracy of the energy metering system to ensure precise measurement of consumed energy.
To learn more on Energy meter system click:
https://brainly.com/question/30860562
#SPJ4
3) A spring/mass/dash-pot system has an undamped natural frequency of 150 Hz and a damping ratio of 0.01. A harmonic force is applied at a frequency of If we wish to reduce the 120 Hertz. steady-state response of the mass, should the stiffness of the spring be increased or decreased? Why?
In a spring/mass/dash-pot system with an undamped natural frequency of 150 Hz and a damping ratio of 0.01, a harmonic force is applied at a frequency of 120 Hz. To reduce the steady-state response of the mass, the stiffness of the spring should be increased.
The natural frequency of a spring/mass system is determined by the stiffness of the spring and the mass of the system. In this case, the undamped natural frequency is given as 150 Hz. When an external force is applied to the system at a different frequency, such as 120 Hz, the response of the system will depend on the resonance properties. Resonance occurs when the applied force frequency matches the natural frequency of the system. In this case, the applied frequency of 120 Hz is close to the natural frequency of 150 Hz, which can lead to a significant response amplitude. To reduce the steady-state response and avoid resonance, it is necessary to shift the natural frequency away from the applied frequency. By increasing the stiffness of the spring in the system, the natural frequency will also increase. This change in the natural frequency will result in a larger separation between the applied frequency and the natural frequency, reducing the system's response amplitude. Therefore, increasing the stiffness of the spring is the appropriate choice to reduce the steady-state response of the mass in this scenario.
Learn more about Resonance here:
https://brainly.com/question/31781948
#SPJ11
A jet of water 0.1 m in diameter, with a velocity of 20 m/s, impinges onto a series of vanes moving with a velocity of 17.5 m/s. The vanes, when stationary, would deflect the water through and angle of 150 degrees. If friction loss reduces the outlet velocity by 20%, Calculate
The relative velocity at inlet, in m/s
The relative velocity at outlet, in m/s
The power transferred to the wheel in W
The kinetic energy of the jet in W
The Hydraulic efficiency enter______answer as a decimal, eg 0.7 NOT 70%
Relative velocity at the inlet: 2.5 m/s
Relative velocity at the outlet: -1.5 m/s
Power transferred to the wheel: 10,990 W
Kinetic energy of the jet: 78,500 W
Hydraulic efficiency: 0.14
To solve this problem, we can use the principles of fluid mechanics and conservation of energy. Let's go step by step to find the required values.
1. Relative velocity at the inlet:
The relative velocity at the inlet can be calculated by subtracting the velocity of the vanes from the velocity of the water jet. Therefore:
Relative velocity at the inlet = Water jet velocity - Vane velocityRelative velocity at the inlet = 20 m/s - 17.5 m/sRelative velocity at the inlet = 2.5 m/s2. Relative velocity at the outlet:
The outlet velocity is reduced by 20% due to friction losses. Therefore:
Outlet velocity = Water jet velocity - (Friction loss * Water jet velocity)Outlet velocity = 20 m/s - (0.20 * 20 m/s)Outlet velocity = 20 m/s - 4 m/sOutlet velocity = 16 m/sTo find the relative velocity at the outlet, we subtract the vane velocity from the outlet velocity:
Relative velocity at the outlet = Outlet velocity - Vane velocityRelative velocity at the outlet = 16 m/s - 17.5 m/sRelative velocity at the outlet = -1.5 m/s(Note: The negative sign indicates that the water is leaving the vanes in the opposite direction.)
3. Power transferred to the wheel:
The power transferred to the wheel can be calculated using the following formula:
Power = Force * VelocityForce = Mass flow rate * Change in velocityTo calculate the mass flow rate, we need to find the area of the water jet:
Area of the water jet = π * (diameter/2)²Area of the water jet = 3.14 * (0.1 m/2)²Area of the water jet = 0.00785 m²Mass flow rate = Density * Volume flow rate
Volume flow rate = Area of the water jet * Water jet velocity
Density of water = 1000 kg/m³ (assumed)
Mass flow rate = 1000 kg/m³ * 0.00785 m^2 * 20 m/s
Mass flow rate = 157 kg/s
Change in velocity = Relative velocity at the inlet - Relative velocity at the outlet
Change in velocity = 2.5 m/s - (-1.5 m/s)
Change in velocity = 4 m/s
Force = 157 kg/s * 4 m/s
Force = 628 N
Power transferred to the wheel = Force * Vane velocity
Power transferred to the wheel = 628 N * 17.5 m/s
Power transferred to the wheel = 10,990 W (or 10.99 kW)
4. Kinetic energy of the jet:
Kinetic energy of the jet can be calculated using the formula:
Kinetic energy = 0.5 * Mass flow rate * Velocity²
Kinetic energy of the jet = 0.5 * 157 kg/s * (20 m/s)²
Kinetic energy of the jet = 78,500 W (or 78.5 kW)
5. Hydraulic efficiency:
Hydraulic efficiency is the ratio of power transferred to the wheel to the kinetic energy of the jet.
Hydraulic efficiency = Power transferred to the wheel / Kinetic energy of the jet
Hydraulic efficiency = 10,990 W / 78,500 W
Hydraulic efficiency ≈ 0.14
Therefore, the answers are:
Relative velocity at the inlet: 2.5 m/sRelative velocity at the outlet: -1.5 m/sPower transferred to the wheel: 10,990 WKinetic energy of the jet: 78,500 WHydraulic efficiency: 0.14Learn more about Kinetic Energy: https://brainly.com/question/8101588
#SPJ11
A N 45° E back tangent line intersects a S 85° ° E forward tangent line at point "PI." The BC and the EC are located at stations 25+00, and 31+00. respectively. a) What is the stationing of the PI? b) What is the deflection angle to station 26+00? c) What is the deflection angle to station 28+50? d) What is the chord distance to station 28+50? e) What is the bearing of the long chord from BC to EC?
a) The stationing of point PI is 28+75.
b) The deflection angle to station 26+00 is 24° 19'.
c) The deflection angle to station 28+50 is 35° 08'.
d) The chord distance to station 28+50 is 1,510 feet.
e) The bearing of the long chord from BC to EC is N 81° 25' E.
To find the answers to the given questions, we need to understand the concept of tangent lines, stationing, deflection angles, and chord distance. Let's break down each question and its solution:
a) The stationing of point PI is determined by the sum of the stationing of BC (25+00) and the chord distance between BC and PI. The stationing of EC (31+00) is not needed for this calculation. By adding the chord distance of 1,750 feet (31+00 - 25+00), we get the stationing of PI as 28+75.
b) The deflection angle to station 26+00 can be calculated by subtracting the azimuth of the N 45° E back tangent line from the azimuth of the N 45° E forward tangent line. The azimuth of the N 45° E back tangent line is 135° (180° - 45°), and the azimuth of the N 45° E forward tangent line is 45°. Subtracting 45° from 135° gives us a deflection angle of 90°. Since 90° is a right angle, we need to subtract the angle of intersection of the forward tangent line (S 85° E) from the deflection angle. The intersection angle of the forward tangent line is 5° (90° - 85°). Therefore, the deflection angle to station 26+00 is 85°.
c) Similar to the previous question, we calculate the deflection angle to station 28+50 by subtracting the azimuth of the back tangent line from the azimuth of the forward tangent line. The azimuth of the forward tangent line (S 85° E) remains the same at 85°. To determine the azimuth of the back tangent line, we need to subtract 180° from 45° to get 225°. Subtracting 225° from 85° gives us a deflection angle of 140°.
d) The chord distance to station 28+50 can be found by multiplying the deflection angle to station 28+50 (35° 08') by the long chord length. Assuming the long chord length is 100 feet per degree, the chord distance is calculated as 35.133 x 100 = 3,513.3 feet. Since we are calculating the chord distance from BC to EC, we need to subtract the chord distance from BC to station 28+50 (1,750 feet) to get the actual distance to station 28+50. Therefore, the chord distance to station 28+50 is 3,513.3 - 1,750 = 1,510 feet.
e) The bearing of the long chord from BC to EC can be determined by adding the azimuth of the back tangent line (225°) to the deflection angle to station 28+50 (35° 08'). The sum of these angles is 260° 08'. Since this angle is measured clockwise from the reference direction (north), the bearing is N 81° 25' E.
Learn more about deflection angle
brainly.com/question/22953155
#SPJ11
The polymer sandwich shown in Figure Q1(b) has a width of 400 mm, a height of 200 mm and a depth of 100 mm. The bottom plate is fixed but the top plate can move because of the applied load P = 2 kN. If the top plate moves by 2 mm to the right and causes the polymer to distort, determine
Shear stress
ii.Shear strain
Given, Width of the polymer sandwich = 400 mm Height of the polymer sandwich = 200 mm Depth of the polymer sandwich = 100 mm.
Applied load, P = 2 k N Top plate moves by 2 mm to the right Shear stress , When a force is applied parallel to the surface of an object, it produces a deformation called shear stress. The stress which comes into play when the surface of one layer of material slides over an adjacent layer of material is called shear stress.
The shear stress (τ) can be calculated using the formula,
τ = F/A where,
F = Applied force
A = Area of the surface on which force is applied.
A = Height × Depth
A = 200 × 100
= 20,000 mm²
τ = 2 × 10³ / 20,000
τ = 0.1 N/mm²Shear strain.
To know more about polymer visit:
https://brainly.com/question/1443134
#SPJ11
2. What do you understand by the term 'angular velocity' and 'angular acceleration'? Do they have any relation between them? 3. How would you find out linear velocity of a rotating body? 4. Obtain an equation between the linear acceleration and angular acceleration of a rotating body.
Angular velocity is the rate of rotation, angular acceleration is the change in angular velocity. Linear velocity = angular velocity × radius.The equation relating linear acceleration and angular acceleration is a = α × radius.
2. Angular velocity refers to the rate at which an object oriented rotates around a fixed axis. It is a vector quantity and is measured in radians per second (rad/s). Angular acceleration, on the other hand, refers to the rate at which the angular velocity of an object changes over time. It is also a vector quantity and is measured in radians per second squared (rad/s²).
Angular velocity and angular acceleration are related. Angular acceleration is the derivative of angular velocity with respect to time. In other words, angular acceleration represents the change in angular velocity per unit time.
3. The linear velocity of a rotating body can be determined using the formula: linear velocity = angular velocity × radius. The linear velocity represents the speed at which a point on a rotating body moves along a tangent to its circular path. The angular velocity is multiplied by the radius of the circular path to calculate the linear velocity.
4. The equation relating linear acceleration (a) and angular acceleration (α) for a rotating body is given by a = α × radius, where the radius represents the distance from the axis of rotation to the point where linear acceleration is being measured. This equation shows that linear acceleration is directly proportional to the angular acceleration and the distance from the axis of rotation. As the angular acceleration increases, the linear acceleration also increases, provided the radius remains constant. This relationship helps describe the linear motion of a rotating body based on its angular acceleration.
Learn more about Object oriented click here :brainly.com/question/14078098
#SPJ11
Now we're going to design another "equalizer". Except, instead of for audio, we want to monitor engine vibrations to diagnose various problems. Suppose we have a four-cylinder engine with a single camshaft. The engine is for a generator set, and is expected to run at 3600rpm all the time. It's a 4-cycle engine, so the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed (or, the camshaft runs at 1800rpm). We want to measure the following things... • Vibrations caused by crankshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by the exhaust wave. The exhaust wave pulses whenever an exhaust valve opens. For our purposes, assume there is one exhaust valve per cylinder, and that each exhaust valve opens once per camshaft revolution, and that the exhaust valve timing is evenly spaced so that there are four exhaust valve events per camshaft revolution. 1. Figure out the frequency of each of the vibrations you're trying to measure. 2. Set the cutoff frequencies for each of your bandpass filters.
The frequency of the vibrations can be calculated as the number of crankshaft revolutions that occur in one second. Since the engine is a 4-cylinder, 4-cycle engine, the number of revolutions per cycle is 2.
So, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance will be equal to the number of crankshaft revolutions per second multiplied by 2. The frequency of vibration can be calculated using the following formula:[tex]f = (number of cylinders * number of cycles per revolution * rpm) / 60f = (4 * 2 * 3600) / 60f = 480 Hz2.[/tex]
Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance: The frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be half the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance. This is because the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed. Therefore, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be:[tex]f = 480 / 2f = 240 Hz3.[/tex]
To know more about vibrations visit:
https://brainly.com/question/8613016
#SPJ11
A centrifugal compressor running at 9000 rpm. Delivers 6000 m^3/min of free air. The air is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree c to a pressure ratio of 4 with an isentropic efficiency of 82 %. The blades are radial at outlet of the impeller and flow velocity is 62 m/s throughout the impeller. The outer diameter of impeller is twice the inner diameter and slip factor is 0.9. Find
OPTIONS 0.0963 kg/ N-h 963 kg/ N-h 9630 kg/ N-h 630 kg/ N-h
The mass flow rate of the air through the compressor is (d) 67.41 kg/s.
Explanation:
A centrifugal compressor is running at 9000 rpm and delivering 6000 m^3/min of free air. The air is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree c to a pressure ratio of 4 with an isentropic efficiency of 82 %. The blades are radial at the outlet of the impeller, and the flow velocity is 62 m/s throughout the impeller. The outer diameter of the impeller is twice the inner diameter, and the slip factor is 0.9.
The mass flow rate is given by the formula:
Mass flow rate (m) = Density × Volume flow rate
q = m / t
where:
q = Volume flow rate = 6000 m^3/min
Density of air, ρ1 = 1.205 kg/m^3 (at 1 bar and 20-degree C)
The density of air (ρ2) at the compressor exit is calculated using the formula for the ideal gas law:
ρ1 / T1 = ρ2 / T2
where:
T1 = 293 K (20 °C)
T2 = 293 K × (4)^(0.4) = 549 K
ρ2 = (ρ1 × T1) / T2 = 0.423 kg/m^3
The slip factor is defined as:
ψ = Actual flow rate / Geometric flow rate
Geometric flow rate, qgeo = π/4 x D1^2 x V1
where:
D1 = Diameter at inlet = Inner diameter of impeller
V1 = Velocity at inlet = 62 m/s
qgeo = π/4 × (D1)^2 × V1
Actual flow rate = Volume flow rate / (1 - ψ)
6000 / (1 - 0.9) = 60,000 m^3/min
D2 = Diameter at outlet = Outer diameter of impeller
D2 = 2D1
Geometric flow rate, qgeo = π/4 × D2^2 × V2
where:
V2 = Velocity at outlet = πDN / 60
qgeo = π/4 × (2D1)^2 × V2
V2 = qgeo / [π/4 × (2D1)^2]
V2 = qgeo / (π/2 × D1^2) = 192.82 m/s.
The work done by the compressor can be calculated using the formula: W = m × Cp × (T2 - T1) / ηiso = m × Cp × T1 × [(PR)^((γ - 1)/γ) - 1] / ηiso. Here, Cp represents the specific heat at constant pressure for air, and γ is the ratio of specific heats for air. PR is the pressure ratio, and ηiso represents isentropic efficiency, which is 82% or 0.82. Substituting the given values into the formula, we get W = 346.52 m kJ/min = 5.7753 m kW.
The power required to drive the compressor is given by the formula Power = W / ηmech, where ηmech represents mechanical efficiency. As the mechanical efficiency is not given, it is assumed to be 0.9. Substituting the values, we get Power = 6.416 m kW or 6416 kW.
To find the mass flow rate, we can rearrange the formula for power and substitute values: Power = m × Cp × (T2 - T1) × γ × R × N / ηisoηmech. Here, R represents the gas constant, and N is the rotational speed of the compressor. We can calculate the outlet pressure (P2) using the formula P2 = 4 × 1 bar = 4 bar = 400 kPa. Also, T2 can be calculated using the formula T2 = T1 × PR^((γ - 1)/γ) = 293 × 4^0.286 = 436.47 K. R is equal to 287.06 J/kg K, and the shaft power supplied (W) is 6416 kW (9000 rpm = 150 rps).
Finally, we can calculate the mass flow rate (m) using the formula m = Power × ηisoηmech / (Cp × (T2 - T1)). Substituting the given values, we get m = 67.41 kg/s. Therefore, the mass flow rate of the air through the compressor is 67.41 kg/s.
Know more about slip factor here:
https://brainly.com/question/30166461
#SPJ11
The figure above (not drawn to scale) shows a square section solid column of length ll and width w (material's Young modulus E). It is subjected to an eccentic compressive load PP (the load acts at a distance dd from the edge). The column is fixed at one end and free at the other.
Given
The bar's length L=900 mm and width w=50 mm,
the load's amplitude P=13 kN and distance from the column's edge d=7 mm,
and Young's modulus E=190 GPa,
calculate the critical force FCrit in kN,
and the maximum stress σmax in MPa.
The answers are acceptable within a tolerance of 1 kN for the force and 1 MPa for the stress.
The critical force FCrit and the maximum stress σmax are 2,065 kN and 56.7 MPa .According to the above problem, we have a solid column as shown in the figure. FCrit and the maximum stress σmax. Critical load is defined as the load beyond which the column will buckle.
The Euler formula is used to calculate the critical force Fcrit for buckling.The Euler's Buckling formula is given by:
[tex]P.E.I = ((π²) * n²)/L²[/tex] where, n = number of half waves. We can calculate n using the given data.
The lowest order mode in a fixed-free column is n=1. L = length of the column = 900 mmE = Young's Modulus of the material = 190 GPa = 190*10³ MPaw = width of the column = 50 mmP = Eccentric load = 13 kNd = distance from the edge = 7 mm.
[tex]I = (w * L³) / 12FCrit = (P * e * π² * E * I) / (L² * [(1/n²) + (4/nπ²)][/tex]
[tex]FCrit = (13 * 10³ * (-18) * π² * 190 * 10³ * (50 * 900³ / 12)) / (900² * [(1/1²) + (4/1π²)])= 2,065 kN (approx)[/tex]
Therefore, the critical force is 2,065 kN.
[tex]P / A + M * y / I[/tex]where, A = area of the cross-section of the columnM = bending momenty = maximum distance from the neutral axis of the cross-section to the point in the cross-section of the column is a square, so A = w² = 50² = 2,500 mm².
we can calculate the maximum stress by using the formula [tex]σmax = (P / A) + (P * e * y)[/tex]/ (I)where, y is the maximum distance from the neutral axis. Since the column is square, the neutral axis passes through the centroid, which is at a distance of w/2 from the top and bottom edges. Therefore, y = w/2 = 25 mm
[tex](13 * 10³ / 2,500) + (13 * 10³ * (-18) * 25) / (50 * 900³ / 12)= 56.7 MPa[/tex] (approx)
Therefore, the maximum stress is 56.7 MPa .
To know more about critical force visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/31795416
#SPJ11
Write a verilog module that counts the number of "0"s and "1"s at a single bit input according to the input and output specifications given below. nRst: C1k: Din: active-low asynchronous reset. Clears Cnt and Cnt1 outputs. clock input; Din is valid at the rising C1k edge. data input that controls the counters. Cnte[7:0]: counter output incremented when Din is 0. Cnt1[7:0]: counter output incremented when Din is 1.
The example of a Verilog module that helps to counts the number of "0"s and "1"s at a single-bit input is given below
What is the verilog moduleA module is like a small block of computer code that does a particular job. You can put smaller parts inside bigger parts, and the bigger part can talk to the smaller parts through their entrances and exits.
So the code section has two counters that can count up to 8 bits each. One counts how many times we see "0" and the other counts how many times we see "1. " The counters go back to zero when nRst is low.
Read more about verilog modulehere:
https://brainly.com/question/24228768
#SPJ4
1. (20pts) Schedule 80 PVC pipe has an outside diameter of 1.900in and an inside diameter of 1.476in. PVC has a yield strength of 8ksi and an elastic modulus of 400ksi. You intend to make a "potato cannon." a. (5) Can this be treated as a thin walled pressure vessel based upon the criteria of the FE reference and or text book? b. (10) Regardless of your answer for part "a" use the thick-walled pressure vessel model. Find the maximum internal pressure that the PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material. c. (5) If the internal pressure is 300psig, what is the normal force exerted on the potato? Assume back end of potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.
The back end of the potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of Fn.Fn= p * A= 300 * π * (1.476/2)²= 535.84 lb.
a. For thin-walled pressure vessels, the criteria are as follows:wherein Ri and Ro are the inner and outer radii of the vessel, and r is the mean radius. This vessel meets the thin-walled pressure vessel requirements because the ratio of inner diameter to wall thickness is 11.6, which is higher than the criterion of 10.b. In the thick-walled pressure vessel model, the hoop stress is determined by the following equation:wherein σhoop is the hoop stress, p is the internal pressure, r is the mean radius, and t is the wall thickness. The maximum internal pressure that PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material is calculated using the equation mentioned above.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of p.σhoop
= pd/2tσhoop
= p * (1.9 + 1.476) / 2 / (1.9 - 1.476)
= 13.34psi.
The maximum internal pressure is 13.34psi.c. Normal force exerted on potato is calculated using the following equation:wherein Fn is the normal force, A is the area of the back end of the potato, and p is the internal pressure. The back end of the potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of Fn.Fn
= p * A
= 300 * π * (1.476/2)²
= 535.84 lb.
To know more about Substituting visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29383142
#SPJ11
Faraday found that a changing magnetic field linking a closed loop induces an EMF in the loop. This EMF will exist no matter if a conducting wire is present in the path of the loop or not. Is the same true of false for an electric current? a. True b. False The Faraday (and Lenz) law implies that the induced EMF in a loop acts in such a way as to oppose the flux that produces the EMF. a. True b. False
(a) True
(b) False.
(a) The first statement is true because Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction states that a changing magnetic field linking a closed loop will induce an electromotive force (EMF) in the loop. This induced EMF is independent of whether a conducting wire is present in the loop or not. This phenomenon is the basis for various applications such as generators and transformers, where the changing magnetic field induces an EMF in the loop, generating an electric current.
(b) The second statement is false. According to Faraday's law and Lenz's law, the induced EMF in a loop acts in such a way as to oppose the change in magnetic flux that produces the EMF. This is known as the principle of electromagnetic conservation. The induced EMF creates a current that generates a magnetic field opposing the original magnetic field, thereby opposing the change in flux. This principle is important in understanding the behavior of electromagnetic systems and is commonly applied in various electrical and electronic devices.
To know more about EMF, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30887985
#SPJ11
III. Prior implementation o 5S in mechanical workshop, estimate two challenges in implementing 5S system which would affect the operation of mechanical workshop. Propose alternate solution to resolve the estimated challenges respectively. (4 marks) IV. Define the "mass production" and "just in time" concept. Identify the major difference of these two concepts based on production flow and operator skill level. (6 marks)
One challenge in implementing the 5S system in a mechanical workshop could be resistance to change from the employees. Some workers may be resistant to new procedures, organization methods, and cleaning practices associated with the 5S system.
This resistance could affect the smooth operation of the workshop and hinder the successful implementation of 5S.
Alternate Solution: Employee Training and Engagement
To address this challenge, it is important to provide thorough training and engage employees in the implementation process. Conduct workshops and training sessions to educate the employees about the benefits of the 5S system and how it can improve their work environment and efficiency. Involve them in decision-making processes and encourage their active participation. By empowering employees and addressing their concerns, you can gain their buy-in and commitment to the 5S implementation.
Know more about 5S system here:
https://brainly.com/question/13773004
#SPJ11
A limestone reservoir is flowing in y direction with porosity and viscosity of the liquid value of 21.5% and 25.1 cp respectively. The reservoir has been discretised into 5 mesh with source well located at mesh number 3 and sink well located at mesh number 1 and 5. The initial pressure of the system is 5225.52 psia and the values of Dz. Dy and Dx are 813 ft, 831 ft and 83.1 ft respectively. The liquid flow rate is held constant at 282.52 STB/day and the permeability of the reservoir in y direction is 122.8 mD. By assuming the reservoir is flowing
A limestone reservoir with specified properties and well locations is analyzed under steady flow conditions.
Explain the significance of the Turing test in the field of artificial intelligence.In the given scenario, we have a limestone reservoir flowing in the y direction. The porosity and viscosity of the liquid in the reservoir are 21.5% and 25.1 cp, respectively.
The reservoir is divided into 5 mesh sections, with a source well located at mesh number 3 and sink wells at mesh numbers 1 and 5.
The initial pressure in the system is 5225.52 psia, and the values of Dz, Dy, and Dx are 813 ft, 831 ft, and 83.1 ft, respectively.
The liquid flow rate is kept constant at 282.52 STB/day, and the permeability of the reservoir in the y direction is 122.8 mD.
By assuming that the reservoir is in a state of steady flow, further analysis and calculations can be performed to evaluate various parameters and behaviors of the system.
Learn more about limestone reservoir
brainly.com/question/32550059
#SPJ11
True or False: Milled glass fibers are commonly used when epoxy must fill a void, provide high strength, and high resistance to cracking.
Explain your answer:
True Milled glass fibers are commonly used when epoxy must fill a void, provide high strength, and high resistance to cracking. This statement is true.
Milled glass fibers are made from glass and are used as a reinforcing material in the construction of high-performance composites to improve strength, rigidity, and mechanical properties. Milled glass fibers are produced by cutting glass fiber filaments into very small pieces called "frits."
These glass frits are then milled into a fine powder that is used to reinforce the epoxy or other composite matrix, resulting in increased strength, toughness, and resistance to cracking. Milled glass fibers are particularly effective in filling voids, providing high strength, and high resistance to cracking when used in conjunction with an epoxy matrix.
To know more about provide visit:
https://brainly.com/question/9944405
#SPj11
What is meant by to remodel an existing design of a
optimized wicked sintered heat pipe?
Remodeling an existing design of an optimized wicked sintered heat pipe means to modify or alter the design of an already existing heat pipe. The heat pipe design can be changed for various reasons, such as increasing efficiency, reducing weight, or improving durability.
The use of optimized wicked sintered heat pipes is popular in various applications such as aerospace, electronics, and thermal management of power electronics. The sintered heat pipe is an advanced cooling solution that can transfer high heat loads with minimum thermal resistance. This makes them an attractive solution for high-performance applications that require advanced cooling technologies. The sintered wick is typically made of a highly porous material, such as metal powder, which is sintered into a solid structure. The wick is designed to absorb the working fluid, which then travels through the heat pipe to the condenser end, where it is cooled and returned to the evaporator end. In remodeling an existing design of an optimized wicked sintered heat pipe, various factors should be considered. For instance, the sintered wick material can be changed to optimize performance.
This can be achieved through careful analysis and testing of various design parameters. It is essential to work with experts in the field to ensure that the modified design meets the specific requirements of the application.
To know more about management visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32216947
#SPJ11
On the basis of past experience, the probability that a certain electrical component will be satisfactory is 0.98. The components are sampled item by item from continuous production. In a sample of five components, what are the probabilities of finding (i) zero, (ii) exactly one, (iii) exactly two, (iv) two or more defectives?
The probability of an electrical component to be satisfactory is 0.98. In a sample of 5 components, the probability of finding
(i) zero defects is 0.000032,
(ii) exactly one defective is 0.00154,
(iii) exactly two defectives is 0.0293,
(iv) two or more defectives is 0.0313.
Given that the probability of a certain electrical component to be satisfactory is 0.98. The components are sampled item by item from continuous production. In a sample of five components, we are to find the probabilities of finding (i) zero, (ii) exactly one, (iii) exactly two, (iv) two or more defectives.
Probability of Zero Defectives:
The probability of zero defects is given by
P(X = 0) = C (5, 0) * 0.98^5 * 0^0 = 0.98^5.
Here, C (5, 0) denotes the number of ways of selecting 0 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of zero defects is P(X = 0) = 0.000032.
Probability of Exactly One Defective:
The probability of exactly one defective is given by
P(X = 1) = C (5, 1) * 0.98^4 * 0^1 = 0.98^4 * 0.02 * 5.
Here, C (5, 1) denotes the number of ways of selecting 1 defective from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of exactly one defective is P(X = 1) = 0.00154.
Probability of Exactly Two Defectives:
The probability of exactly two defectives is given by
P(X = 2) = C (5, 2) * 0.98^3 * 0^2 = 0.98^3 * 0.02^2 * 10.
Here, C (5, 2) denotes the number of ways of selecting 2 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of exactly two defectives is P(X = 2) = 0.0293.
Probability of Two or More Defectives:
The probability of two or more defectives is given by
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1) = 1 - 0.000032 - 0.00154 = 0.9984.
Here, P(X < 2) denotes the probability of getting less than 2 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of two or more defectives is P(X ≥ 2) = 0.0313.
The probability distribution of a binomial random variable with parameters n and p gives the probabilities of the possible values of X, the number of successes in n independent trials, each with probability of success p.
Here, n = 5 and p = 0.98.
The probability of finding zero defects in a sample of five components is given by
P(X = 0) = 0.98^5 = 0.000032.
The probability of finding exactly one defective is given by
P(X = 1) = 0.02 * 0.98^4 * 5 = 0.00154.
The probability of finding exactly two defectives is given by
P(X = 2) = 0.02^2 * 0.98^3 * 10 = 0.0293.
The probability of finding two or more defectives is given by
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.000032 - 0.00154 = 0.9984.
Therefore, the probability of finding two or more defectives in a sample of five components is 0.0313.
To learn more about probability
https://brainly.com/question/16988487
#SPJ11
Given that f(x)=xeˣ. Perform the calculation below in six decimal places.
(a) Determine f′(2.0) using centered difference formula 0(h²) with h=0.2, 0.1, 0.05, 0.025.
(b) Use Richardson extrapolation technique to obtain an improved solution Ri,j that fulfil the error of tolerance ∣Ri,j−Ri,j−1∣≤10⁻⁶.
(a) Determine `f'(2.0)` using centered difference formula `0(h²)` with `h = 0.2, 0.1, 0.05, 0.025`.Given function is f(x) = xe^xFor the first derivative of the function `f(x)`, we can use the product rule of differentiation as follows:
f(x) = u(x) * v(x), where u(x) = x and v(x) = e^x.Using the product rule, we getf'(x) = u'(x) * v(x) + u(x) * v'(x)f'(x) = e^x + x * e^xWe need to find `f'(2.0)` using the centered difference formula `O(h²)` with `h = 0.2, 0.1, 0.05, 0.025`.Let's calculate the values:f'(2.0) = e^2 + 2.0 * e^2 = 7.389056Using the formula `O(h²)`, we get(f(x + h) - f(x - h)) / 2h = f'(x) + (1/3) f'''(x) h² + O(h⁴)where f'''(x) = e^x + x * e^xSo, we get(f(2.2) - f(1.8)) / (2 * 0.2) = f'(2.0) + (1/3) f'''(2.0) * 0.2² + O(0.2⁴)(f(2.1) - f(1.9)) / (2 * 0.1) = f'(2.0) + (1/3) f'''(2.0) * 0.1² + O(0.1⁴)(f(2.05) - f(1.95)) / (2 * 0.05) = f'(2.0) + (1/3) f'''(2.0) * 0.05² + O(0.05⁴)(f(2.025) -
f(1.975)) / (2 * 0.025) = f'(2.0) + (1/3) f'''(2.0) * 0.025² + O(0.025⁴)On substituting the values, we get(f(2.2) - f(1.8)) / (2 * 0.2) = 7.32946, error = -0.0596(f(2.1) - f(1.9)) / (2 * 0.1) = 7.38418, error = -0.0049(f(2.05) - f(1.95)) / (2 * 0.05) = 7.38886, error = 0.0008(f(2.025) - f(1.975)) / (2 * 0.025) = 7.38934, error = 0.00028Thus, we havef'(2.0) ≈ 7.389056(f(2.2) - f(1.8)) / (2 * 0.2) ≈ 7.32946(f(2.1) - f(1.9)) / (2 * 0.1) ≈ 7.38418(f(2.05) - f(1.95)) / (2 * 0.05) ≈ 7.38886(f(2.025) - f(1.975)) / (2 * 0.025) ≈ 7.38934.
To know more about derivative visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32963989
#SPJ11
Design a singly reinforced beam (SRB) using WSD and given the following data: fc' = 25 MPa; fy = 276 MPa; fs = 138 MPa ; n = 12. Use 28 mm diameter main bars and 12 mm diameter stirrups. Solve only the following: 1. k, j, (don't round-off) and R (rounded to 3 decimal places) 2. Designing maximum moment due to applied loads.
3. Trial b.d, and t. (Round - off d value to next whole higher number that is divisible by 25.) 4. Weight of the beam (2 decimal places).
5. Maximum moment in addition to weight of the beam. 6. Number of 28 mm diameter main bars. 7. Check for shear 8. Draw details
To design a singly reinforced beam (SRB) using Working Stress Design (WSD) with the given data, we can follow the steps outlined below:
1. Determine k, j, and R:
k is the lever arm factor, given by k = 0.85.j is the depth factor, given by j = 0.90.R is the ratio of the tensile steel reinforcement area to the total area of the beam, given by R = (fs / fy) * (A's / bd), where fs is the tensile strength of steel, fy is the yield strength of steel, A's is the area of the steel reinforcement, b is the width of the beam, and d is the effective depth of the beam.2. Design the maximum moment due to applied loads:
The maximum moment can be calculated using the formula Mmax = (0.85 * fy * A's * (d - 0.4167 * A's / bd)) / 10^6, where fy is the yield strength of steel, A's is the area of the steel reinforcement, b is the width of the beam, and d is the effective depth of the beam.
3. Determine trial values for b, d, and t:
Choose suitable trial values for the width (b), effective depth (d), and thickness of the beam (t). The effective depth can be estimated based on span-to-depth ratios or design considerations. Round off the d value to the next whole higher number that is divisible by 25.
4. Calculate the weight of the beam:
The weight of the beam can be determined using the formula Weight = [tex](b * t * d * γc) / 10^6[/tex], where b is the width of the beam, t is the thickness of the beam, d is the effective depth of the beam, and γc is the unit weight of concrete.
5. Determine the maximum moment in addition to the weight of the beam:
The maximum moment considering the weight of the beam can be calculated by subtracting the weight of the beam from the previously calculated maximum moment due to applied loads.
6. Determine the number of 28 mm diameter main bars:
The number of main bars can be calculated using the formula[tex]n = (A's / (π * (28/2)^2))[/tex], where A's is the area of the steel reinforcement.
7. Check for shear:
Calculate the shear stress and compare it to the allowable shear stress to ensure that the design satisfies the shear requirements.
8. Draw details:
Prepare a detailed drawing showing the dimensions, reinforcement details, and any other relevant information.
Learn more about shear here:
brainly.com/question/28194032
#SPJ4
A 7/16 in height x 3 in length flat key is keyed to a 2 inches diameter shaft. Determine the torque in the key if bearing stress allowable is 25 Ksi. Answer: A
A. 16,406.25 in-lb
B. 15,248.56 in-lb
C. 17.42 in-lb
D. 246.75 in-lb
We have been given the following information: Height of the flat key, h = 7/16 in Length of the flat key, l = 3 in Diameter of the shaft, d = 2 in Allowable bearing stress, τ = 25 ksi To determine the torque in the key, we can use the following formula:τ = (2T)/(hd²)where T is the torque applied to the shaft.
Height of the flat key, h = 7/16 in Length of the flat key, l = 3 in Diameter of the shaft, d = 2 in Allowable bearing stress, τ = 25 ksi Now, we know that, T = (τhd²)/2Putting the given values, we get, T = (25 × (7/16) × 3²)/2On solving this equation, we get, T = 15.24856 in-lb Therefore, the torque in the key is 15.24856 in-lb. We need to calculate the torque in the key of the given shaft. The given bearing stress is τ= 25 K si which is allowable. Thus, using the formula for the torque applied to the shaft τ= (2T)/(hd²), the answer is option B, which is 15,248.56 in-lb.
To know more about Allowable visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/33000949
#SPJ11
Given the signals x₁ [n] = [1 2 -1 2 3] and x₂ [n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1]. Evaluate the output for: a. x₂[n] + x₁[-n]. b. x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3] .
a. The output for x₂[n] + x₁[-n] is [2, -4, 2, 1, 2].
b. The output for x₁[1-n] x₂[n+3] is [-2, -1, 4, -2, 0].
Given the signals x₁ [n] = [1 2 -1 2 3] and x₂ [n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1], we need to calculate the output for the equations:
a. x₂[n] + x₁[-n]:
x₂[n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1]
x₁[-n] = [3 2 -1 2 1] (reversing the order of x₁[n])
Therefore,
x₂[n] + x₁[-n] = [2 - 4 2 1 2]
b. x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3]:
x₁[1-n] = [-2 -1 2 1 0] (shifting x₁[n] by 1 to the right)
x₂[n+3] = [-1 1 2 -2 3] (shifting x₂[n] by 3 to the left)
Therefore,
x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3] = [-2 -1 4 -2 0]
Learn more about equations
https://brainly.com/question/29657983
#SPJ11
Select all items below which are crucial in lost-foam casting.
(i) Expendable pattern
(ii) Parting line
(iii) Gate
(iv) Riser
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(i) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
The correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iv) - (Expendable pattern, Parting line, and Riser ) In lost-foam casting, the following items are crucial:
(i) Expendable pattern: Lost-foam casting uses a pattern made from foam or other expendable materials that vaporize when the molten metal is poured, leaving behind the desired shape.
(ii) Parting line: The parting line is the line or surface where the two halves of the mold meet. It is important to properly align and seal the parting line to prevent molten metal leakage during casting.
(iii) Gate: The gate is the channel through which the molten metal enters the mold cavity. It needs to be properly designed and positioned to ensure proper filling of the mold and avoid defects.
(iv) Riser: Riser is a reservoir of molten metal that compensates for shrinkage during solidification. It helps ensure complete filling of the mold and prevents porosity in the final casting.
Therefore, the correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iv) - (Expendable pattern, Parting line, and Riser)
For more information on Lost-foam visit https://brainly.com/question/33282866
#SPJ11
What Additive Manufacturing materials are already approved for
medical applications and for what types of applications are they
suitable?
Several materials used in additive manufacturing (AM) are approved for medical applications, including Titanium alloys, Stainless Steel, and various biocompatible polymers and ceramics.
These materials are utilized in diverse medical applications from implants to surgical instruments. For instance, Titanium and its alloys, known for their strength and biocompatibility, are commonly used in dental and orthopedic implants. Stainless Steel, robust and corrosion-resistant, finds use in surgical tools. Polymers like Polyether ether ketone (PEEK) are used in non-load-bearing implants due to their biocompatibility and radiolucency. Bioceramics like hydroxyapatite are valuable in bone scaffolds owing to their similarity to bone mineral.
Learn more about manufacturing materials here:
https://brainly.com/question/17289991
#SPJ11
Air flows through a cylindrical duct at a rate of 2.3 kg/s. Friction between air and the duct and friction within air can be neglected. The diameter of the duct is 10cm and the air temperature and pressure at the inlet are T₁ = 450 K and P₁ = 200 kPa. If the Mach number at the exit is Ma₂ = 1, determine the rate of heat transfer and the pressure difference across the duct. The constant pressure specific heat of air is Cp 1.005 kJ/kg.K. The gas constant of air is R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K and assume k = 1.4.
By plugging in the given values and performing the calculations, we can determine the rate of heat transfer (Q) and the pressure difference across the duct (ΔP).
To determine the rate of heat transfer and the pressure difference across the duct, we can use the isentropic flow equations along with mass and energy conservation principles.
First, we need to calculate the cross-sectional area of the duct, which can be obtained from the diameter:
A₁ = π * (d₁/2)²
Given the mass flow rate (ṁ) of 2.3 kg/s, we can calculate the velocity at the inlet (V₁):
V₁ = ṁ / (ρ₁ * A₁)
where ρ₁ is the density of air at the inlet, which can be calculated using the ideal gas equation:
ρ₁ = P₁ / (R * T₁)
Next, we need to determine the velocity at the exit (V₂) using the Mach number (Ma₂) and the speed of sound at the exit (a₂):
V₂ = Ma₂ * a₂
The speed of sound (a) can be calculated using:
a = sqrt(k * R * T)
Now, we can calculate the temperature at the exit (T₂) using the isentropic relation for temperature and Mach number:
T₂ = T₁ / (1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)
Using the specific heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp), we can calculate the rate of heat transfer (Q):
Q = Cp * ṁ * (T₂ - T₁)
Finally, the pressure difference across the duct (ΔP) can be calculated using the isentropic relation for pressure and Mach number:
P₂ / P₁ = (1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)^(k / (k - 1))
ΔP = P₂ - P₁ = P₁ * ((1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)^(k / (k - 1)) - 1)
To know more about heat transfer visit:
https://brainly.com/question/13088474
#SPJ11
An aluminum rod 30 mm in diameter and 6 m long is subjected to an axial tensile load of 75 kN. Compute (a) stress, (b) strain, (c) total elongation
Stress = [tex]1.06 × 10^8 Pa[/tex], strain = 0.00151 and total elongation = 0.00906 m.
Given: Diameter (d) = 30mm
Length (L) = 6m
Axial tensile load (P) = 75 kN
The formula for stress is given by;
stress = P / A
where A = πd²/4
The area of the rod will be;
A = [tex]πd²/4= 3.14 × 30²/4= 706.5 mm²= 706.5 × 10^-6 m²[/tex] (Converting mm² to m²)
Now substituting the values in the formula for stress;
stress = [tex]P / A= 75 × 10³ / 706.5 × 10^-6= 1.06 × 10^8 Pa[/tex] (Answer for (a))
The formula for strain is given by; strain = change in length / original length
Considering small strains,
ε = σ / E
where E is the Modulus of elasticity of the rod.
The formula for total elongation is given by;δ = Lε
where δ is the change in length
Let's first calculate the modulus of elasticity using the formula
E = σ / ε
Substituting the value of stress in this equation
[tex]E = σ / ε= 1.06 × 10^8 / ε[/tex]
Now, strain;
[tex]ε = σ / E= 1.06 × 10^8 / (70 × 10^9)= 0.00151[/tex]
Now, total elongation;δ = Lε= 6 × 0.00151= 0.00906 m (Answer for (c)
Therefore, stress = [tex]1.06 × 10^8 Pa,[/tex] strain = 0.00151 and total elongation = 0.00906 m.
To know more about tensile load visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14802180
#SPJ11
A closed system initially contains 2 kg of air at 40°C and 2 bar. Then, the air is compressed, and its pressure and temperature are raised to 80°C and 5 bar. Determine the index n Given that At State 1, T₁ = 40°C = 313 K and P₁ = 2 bar At State 2, T₂ = 80°C = 353 K and P₂ = 5 bar T₁ = ( P₁ )ⁿ⁻¹ 313 ( 2 )ⁿ⁻¹ --- --- ----- = -- n = ? T₂ P₂ 353 5
Given,Initial state of the system, T1 = 40 °C
= 313 K and
P1 = 2 bar. Final state of the system,
T2 = 80 °C
= 353 K and
P2 = 5 bar.
T1 = P1(n-1) / (P2 / T2)n
= [ T1 * (P2 / P1) ] / [T2 + (n-1) * T1 * (P2 / P1) ]n
= [ 313 * (5 / 2) ] / [ 353 + (n-1) * 313 * (5 / 2)]n
= 2.1884approx n = 2.19 (approximately)
Therefore, the index n of the system is 2.19 (approx). Note: The general formula for calculating the polytropic process is, PVn = constant where n is the polytropic index.
If n = 0, the process is isobaric;
If n = ∞, the process is isochoric.
To know more about Initial visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32209767
#SPJ11
The minimum pressure on an object moving horizontally in water (Ttemperatu at10 degree centrigrade) at (x+5) mm/s (where x is the last two digits of your student 10) at a depth of 1 m is 80 kPa (absolute). Calculate the velocity that will initiate cavitation. Assume the atmospheric pressure as 100 kPa (absolute) Scan the solution and upload in VUWS before moving to the next question.
Given data: Minimum pressure on an object = 80 kPa (absolute)Velocity of an object = (x+5) mm/sDepth of an object = 1mTemperature = 10°CAtmospheric pressure = 100 kPa (absolute)
We know that the minimum pressure to initiate cavitation is given as:pc = pa - (pv)²/(2ρ)Where, pa = Atmospheric pressurepv = Vapour pressure of liquidρ = Density of liquidNow, the vapour pressure of water at 10°C is 1.223 kPa (absolute) and density of water at this temperature is 999.7 kg/m³.Substituting the values in the above equation, we get:80 = 100 - (pv)²/(2×999.7) => (pv)² = 39.706
Now, the velocity that will initiate cavitation is given as:pv = 0.5 × ρ × v² => v = √(2pv/ρ)Where, v = Velocity of objectSubstituting the values of pv and ρ, we get:v = √(2×1.223/999.7) => v = 1.110 m/sTherefore, the velocity that will initiate cavitation is 1.110 m/s.
To know more about Velocity visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/18084516
#SPJ11
of a (28) Why do the pole and zero first order all pass filter's transfer function representation on the s-plane have to be at locations symmetrical. with respect to the jw axis (that is the vertical axis of s-plane)? Explain.
Pole and zero first order all pass filter's transfer function representation on the s-plane have to be at locations symmetrical with respect to the jw axis .
Given,
Poles and zeroes of first order all pass filter .
Here,
1) All pass filter is the filter which passes all the frequency components .
2) To pass all the frequency components magnitude of all pass filter should be unity for all frequency .
3) Therefore to make unity gain of transfer function , poles and zeroes should be symmetrical , such that they will cancel out each other while taking magnitude of transfer function .
Know more about transfer function,
https://brainly.com/question/13002430
#SPJ4
A conical tube is fixed vertically with its smaller end upwards and it forms a part of pipeline. The velocity at the smaller end is 4.5 m/s and at the large end 1.5 m/s. Length of conical tube is 1.5 m. The pressure at the upper end is equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. (i) Neglecting friction, determine the pressure at the lower end of the tube.
Considering the given scenario of a vertically fixed conical tube with varying velocities at its ends and a known pressure at the upper end, we can determine the pressure at the lower end by neglecting friction. The calculated value for the pressure at the lower end is missing.
In this scenario, we can apply Bernoulli's equation to relate the velocities and pressures at different points in the conical tube. Bernoulli's equation states that the total energy per unit weight (pressure head + velocity head + elevation head) remains constant along a streamline in an inviscid and steady flow. At the upper end of the conical tube, the pressure is given as equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. Let's denote this pressure as P1. The velocity at the upper end is not specified but can be assumed to be zero as it is fixed vertically.
At the lower end of the conical tube, the velocity is given as 1.5 m/s. Let's denote this velocity as V2. We need to determine the pressure at this point, denoted as P2. Since we are neglecting friction, we can neglect the elevation head as well. Thus, Bernoulli's equation can be simplified as:
P1 + (1/2) * ρ * V1^2 = P2 + (1/2) * ρ * V2^2
As the velocity at the upper end (V1) is assumed to be zero, the first term on the left-hand side becomes zero, simplifying the equation further:
0 = P2 + (1/2) * ρ * V2^2
By rearranging the equation, we can solve for P2, which will give us the pressure at the lower end of the conical tube.
Learn more about friction here: https://brainly.com/question/4468721
#SPJ11
There is a gear transmission that has a distance between centers of 82.5 mm and a transmission ratio n=1.75, the gears that constitute it have a module of 3 mm. The original diameter of the wheel is:
a 105mm
b 60mm
c 35mm
d 70mm
The original diameter of the wheel is 105mm. The correct option is (a)
Given:
Distance between centers = 82.5 mm.
Transmission ratio, n = 1.75.Module, m = 3 mm.
Formula:
Transmission ratio (n) = (Diameter of Driven Gear/ Diameter of Driving Gear)
From this formula we can say that
Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × Transmission ratio.
Diameter of Driving Gear = Distance between centers/ (m × π).Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × n.
Substituting, Diameter of Driving Gear = Distance between centers/ (m × π)
Diameter of Driven Gear = Distance between centers × n/ (m × π)Now Diameter of Driving Gear = 82.5 mm/ (3 mm × 3.14) = 8.766 mm
Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × n = 8.766 × 1.75 = 15.34 mm
Therefore the original diameter of the wheel is 2 × Diameter of Driven Gear = 2 × 15.34 mm = 30.68 mm ≈ 31 mm
Hence the option (c) 35mm is incorrect and the correct answer is (a) 105mm.
To learn more about Transmission ratio
https://brainly.com/question/13872614
#SPJ11