DNA methylation would be found on this imprinted prompter ,Dna is found in every body on the earth.
DNA methylation is a heritable epigenetic mark that involves DNA methyltransferases covalently transferring a methyl group to the C-5 position of the cytosine ring of DNA (DNMTs). 1. Cytidines are methylated in plants in both symmetrical (CG or CHG) and asymmetrical (CHH, where H is A, T, or C) contexts. A chemical reaction in the body that involves the addition of a small molecule known as a methyl group to DNA, proteins, or other molecules. The addition of methyl groups can change how certain molecules behave in the body. For example, methylation of a gene's DNA sequence may turn the gene off, preventing it from producing a protein.
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Which lipids are long chains of fatty acids?
one molecule of glycerol.
Some natural resources are renewable—nature produces them fast enough that humans can obtain valuable and useful supplies of a resource without depleting it. Other natural resources are nonrenewable—if we use the resource at a rate fast enough to matter to our economy, the resource will run out because use is much faster than natural production. What do we know about oil and coal?.
In sedimentary rock formations, which are collections of rock, dead plant and animal materials, and layers of silt, coal is a substance that is frequently present. One type of sedimentary rock that contains oil in its natural state is shale.
What ties coal and oil together?Oil and coal are both fossil fuels. That indicates that they were created from organic material, or things that were once living on Earth and covered in thick layers of rock. The decomposed material was eventually converted to coal or oil due to the increased pressure and heat brought on by the underlying rock over time.
What are the uses of coal and oil?The three fossil fuels that make up oil, coal, and natural gas account for 81% of all the energy used in the United States. We rely on those fuels to heat our homes, power our cars, supply electricity to us, and power manufacturing and industry.
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What is the most important reason a cell exhibits tight transcriptional control over the regulation of gene expression?.
For most genes transcriptional controls are paramount. This makes sense because, of all the possible control points illustrated in Figure 7-5, only transcriptional control ensures that the cell will not synthesize superfluous intermediates.
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A patient with a poor diet showing symptoms of diarrhea, confusion, and discoloration of the skin suggests a possible.
A patient with a poor diet showing symptoms of diarrhea, confusion, and discoloration of the skin suggests a possible niacin deficiency.
What happens in niacin deficiency?A severe niacin deficiency causes pellagra which is a condition that causes dark, sometimes scaly rash on skin areas exposed to sunlight; bright redness of the tongue and constipation/diarrhea.
Pellagra defines systemic disease as resulting from a marked cellular deficiency of niacin and it is characterized by 4 "D's" that are as :diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and death.
Nicotinamide is used to treat niacin deficiency because nicotinamide does not cause flushing, itching, burning, or tingling sensations, unlike nicotinic acid.
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Which of the following is a derived trait of Sahelanthropus tchandensis which identifies it as a hominin? big toe opposability larger body size shape of the hand bones perihoning chewing complex
Its cranium's form suggests that it is a bipedal station. Sahelanthropus's three limb bones have been described, and they do not only support habitual bipedalism
Sahelanthropus is grouped with hominins for what reason?Sahelanthropus may be the oldest known hominin, the group that includes modern humans, extinct human species, and all of our direct predecessors. Many believe that bipedalism was the turning point that diverted our ancestry from the apes in terms of evolutionary development.
Which of the following characterizes hominins?The closest relatives of contemporary humans are known as hominins. They comprise any species that emerged from the human ancestry after it split from the chimpanzee ancestry around 6 million years ago. Bipedalism is the primary characteristic of hominins.
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The prompt contains several characteristics of cell transport. Which of these applies to facilitated diffusion?.
Facilitated diffusion is the process by which molecules move across the plasma membrane with the aid of membrane proteins like channels and carriers. These molecules move down a concentration gradient, which gives them the potential to diffuse into (or out of) the cell.
Passive transport is a subset of facilitated diffusion. Because the solution is travelling down the concentration gradient, assisted diffusion is still passive transport even when it incorporates transport proteins. The cell membrane can easily be traversed by small, nonpolar substances.image outcome.A case of enhanced diffusion is glucose transfer. The lipid bilayer of the membrane prevents glucose from passing through since it is a big, polar molecule. In order to pass through, it requires carriers known as glucose transporters.
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in a certain group of african people, 4% are born with sickle-cell disease, an autosomal recessive disorder. heterozygous individuals not only don't have sickle-cell disease, but also are resistant to malaria. if this group is in hardy-weinberg equilibrium, what percentage of the population is heterozygous and resistant to malaria?
A whopping 32% of people have the heterozygous malaria resistance gene.
A hereditary condition known as sickle-cell anemia is autosomal recessive. Blood cells in homozygous recessive individuals have the sickle shape. Contrarily, the sickle cell trait is exclusively carried by heterozygous people. The carriers do not experience malaria because they are immune to the parasites that cause it.
If 4% of people in an African population are born with sickle cell disease, therefore the population's proportion of heterozygous people who are malaria resistant will be:
Equilibrium is the Hardy-Weinberg formula.
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
p = frequency of the population's dominant allele
q is the population's prevalence of the recessive allele.
p² = the proportion of homozygous dominant people
q² is the proportion of homozygous recessive people.
2pq = the proportion of heterozygous people
Given that the square root of the homozygous recessive allele for this gene (q2) is 0.2 (20%) and the homozygous allele (q2) is 4%, or 0.04, then p should be 1-0.2 = 0.8 (20%).
Therefore, the percentage of heterozygous people is 2pq.2 (0.8 x 0.2) = 0.32 (32%).
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Which of the following is a true statement about the relationship between organisms and the environment? Group of answer choices Animal populations are controlled by abiotic characteristics only in the environment. Organisms are both influenced by the environment through biotic and abiotic characteristics and can change those characteristics through their own processes. Plants are only influenced by the abiotic environment and animals are only impacted by the biotic components of the environment. Animals do not have any impact on the abiotic characteristics of the environment.
The correct question about the relationship between organisms and the environment is that organisms are affected by the environment through biotic and abiotic characteristics and can change these characteristics through their processes.
Abiotic elements or spectacles are environmental elements that consist of inanimate objects and are very influential on the life of living things, such as air, wind, sunlight, degree of acidity, salt, humidity, temperature, and soil. Biotic elements or biological elements are environmental elements consisting of invisible humans, animals, plants, and small organisms.
These two elements are interconnected to form an ecosystem. So that plants or animals need biotic and abiotic elements. i.e. for example animals need oxygen to breathe and plants need sunlight to carry out photosynthesis.
The correct option is B.
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Which combination of environmental conditions would give you the highest concentration of air pollutants?.
When the weather is constant and there is little breeze, the concentration of air contaminants is highest.
Which three factors cause the most air pollution?Air pollution is frequently caused by household combustion appliances, automobiles, industrial operations, and forest fires. Particulate matter, carbon monoxide, ozone, nitrogen dioxide, and sulfur dioxide are among the pollutants that pose the greatest threat to human health.
What elements raise the amount of air pollution in the atmosphere?The chemical processes that take place in the atmosphere to generate photochemical smog from other pollutants depend heavily on temperature and sunlight (solar radiation). Favorable circumstances may result in higher smog concentrations.
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Refer to Model 2. Study the bone arrangement in the bird and whale. Propose an explanation for
the similarity of elongated bone arrangement in the lower parts of the forelimb (metacarpals and
phalanges), given the differences in the animals?
how are the ranks going in end with the same the big animals
evaluate this statement: evolution is said to occur when new traits accumulate over time, increasing complexity.
While it is true that evolution happens as new features build up, it is not true that evolution exclusively happens at this point.
Why was the development of the wing such a significant step in insect evolution?Long before birds, bats, or pterosaurs, insects first ascended to the skies between 300 and 360 million years ago. With the aid of wings, they were able to colonize new habitats and ecological niches, and the Insecta swiftly became one of the most diverse and successful animal classes, a title they still maintain today.
What transpires anthropology when adaptive radiation is place?When a member of a species spreads out into other places, it is known as adaptive radiation. They develop characteristics that allow it in their new environments.
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charles darwin studied the relationship between the adrenal medulla and emotions. which chemical, produced in the adrenal medulla, causes the fight or flight response?
Answer: adrenaline, noradrenaline
Explanation:
Which statement (or statements) describes a mechanism by which the active site of an enzyme can lower the EA of an exergonic reaction? The active site may orient two substrates such that a collision becomes more likely within a small interval of time The active site may stress and bend the bonds of the substrate (or substrates) making those bonds more likely to break in a small interval of time The active site may transfer H+ ions to ot from the substrate making a reaction more likely in a given interval of time The active site may form one or more covalent bonds with the substrate (or substrates) making a the reaction more likely in a small interval of time All of the above
The active site of an enzyme can lower the EA of an exergonic reaction by stressing and bending the bonds of the substrate (or substrates) making those bonds more likely to break in a small interval of time.
WHAT IS ACTIVATION ENERGY?
In chemistry, activation energy is the minimal amount of energy needed to bring atoms or molecules into a state where they can undergo chemical transformation or physical transport.
By bending the molecules of the substrate in a way that makes bond-breaking easier and aids in transitioning to the transition state, the enzyme-substrate complex can also reduce activation energy. Enzymes do not alter the G value of a reaction. They remain the same whether a reaction is generally exergonic or endergonic.
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Individuals that are heterozygous for a deletion of a locus on chromosome 11 show severe developmental disorders and growth abnormalities, but only when the deletion is inherited from the mother. The cause of these phenotypes has been localized to a promoter sequence located within a CpG island.
What epigenetic mark would you predict to be found on this imprinted promoter?
The anomalies in the promoter sequence have been identified as the source of these symptoms, but only when the deletion is inherited from the mother.
What part does a CpG island play in imprinting?CpG islands are helpful loci for genes in species whose genomes contain 5-methylcytosine. Furthermore, CpG islands in the promoter regions of genes can be crucial in the silencing of genes during procedures like X-chromosome inactivation, imprinting, and the silencing of intragenomic parasites.
When DNA is methylated at CpG islands, what happens to gene expression?It is possible to recruit repressive methyl-binding proteins, inhibit transcription factor binding, and permanently mute gene expression by methylating CpG islands.
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what cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway? what cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway? carbohydrates lipids nucleic acids proteins
Proteins are the biological macromolecules that make it up the complement pathway.
Each and every living thing contains organic molecules like lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids.Large carbon-based structures make up these macromolecules.Through a chemical process known as dehydration synthesis, numerous smaller units, known as monomers, are joined together to form the macromolecules.
How do lipids, proteins, or nucleic acids differ from carbohydrates?Amino acid polymers make up proteins.Nitrogen is a part of the amino group that is connected to the -carbon atom in amino acids.The nitrogen in nucleic acids is found inside the nitrogenous bases, that make up nucleotides.Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen make up lipids and carbohydrates.
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which of these describes a strain? a.) muscle tissue grows uncontrollably b.) muscle fiber tears or stretches too far c.) muscle tissue doesn't grow from exercise d.) muscle tissue shrinks
The correct answer id option D
D muscle tissue shrinks
What is Muscle Tissue?
Animals have a specific tissue called muscle that contracts when activated, applying forces to various body parts. Muscle tissue is made up of sheets and fibers of muscle cells woven together
The muscle contracts in response to a signal coming from the outside world or a nerve impulse leaving the brain. The entire muscle contracts as soon as the nerve impulse reaches all of the muscular tissue's nerve cells, which happens virtually instantly.
Each muscle cell has a combination of actin and myosin-containing proteins at the cellular level. Whenever the signal to contract is received, these proteins move past one another. The cells' ends are attached to the filaments, which shorten the cell as they glide past one another. When a muscle contracts, a single cell can shrink by up to 70% of its original length, shortening the entire muscle.
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describe the theory that explains the origin of eukaryotic cells. which two organelles are thought to be prokaryotes?
Studies of mitochondria and chloroplasts, which are assumed to have originated from bacteria living in big cells, provide credence to the notion that eukaryotic cells arose from a symbiotic relationship of prokaryotes called endosymbiosis.
According to the dominant explanation, known as the endosymbiotic theory, eukaryotes developed when an ancient Archaean cell fused with an aerobic, ancient bacterial cell (without actually eating it).
Eukaryotes are creatures whose cells contain nuclei Eukaryotes include all animals, all plants, all fungi, and many unicellular creatures. They are a part of the Eukaryota or Eukarya group of organisms, one of the three categories of life. The other two domains are represented by prokaryotes Bacteria and Archaea.
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what is the most common way that nitrogen fixation occurs? lightning nitrogen fixing bacteria fossil fuel combustion forest fires
Legumes harbor nitrogen-fixing bacteria and are therefore good crops to grow to replenish the soil. Most nitrogen fixation occurs naturally, in the soil, by bacteria.
Nitrogen fixation and exchange of form that occurs in the soil. Some bacteria attach to plant roots and have a symbiotic relationship that is beneficial to both the plant and the bacteria with the plant. Nitrogen fixing bacteria accomplish more than 90 percent of all nitrogen fixation and therefore play an important role in the nitrogen cycle. processes that can fix nitrogen atmospheric, be process and biological. Atmospheric fixation occurs when the high temperature of lightning splits nitrogen gas so that it unites with oxygen and moisture in the air to form nitrates that fall to the ground. Nitrogen fixation occurs among some termites and fungi. It occurs naturally in the air through the production of NOx by lightning. All biological reactions that involve the process of nitrogen fixation are catalyzed by enzymes called nitrogenases.
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In relation to their position in a food chain, what do plants and photosynthetic algae have in common?.
Both plants and photosynthetic algae are producers in relation to their position in a food chain.
Autotrophs, another name for producers, grow their own food. Every food chain's initial level is comprised of these. Plants or single-celled creatures are the majority of autotrophs. The majority of autotrophs produce their "food" (a nutrient called glucose) from sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water through a process known as photosynthesis.
Algae are at the bottom of the food chain in an ecological sense. They mark the start of the process by which solar energy moves from biomass up the food chain to apex predators. This primary production is mostly due to phytoplankton.
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a drosophila larva that develops from an oocyte that has no bicoid mrna will have what developmental defect?
A Drosophila larva that develops from an oocyte that has no Bicoid mRNA will have a developmental defect : only posterior structure.
What is the order of Drosophila development?The Drosophila life cycle is divided into four stages namely embryo, larva, pupa, and adult. Like the eggs of other insects, it begins its development in an unusual way that is a series of nuclear divisions without cell division creates a syncytium. The early nuclear divisions are synchronous and rapid occurring every 8 minutes.
Embryogenesis in Drosophila is unique among model organisms as in that cleavage occurs in a multinucleate syncytium. 256 nuclei migrate to the perimeter of the egg, hence creating the syncytial blastoderm.
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which of the following is a recommendation that could improve the breeding success of a colony
The selective breeding is a recommendation that could improve the breeding success of a colony.
Both dad and mom want long-time period pre-breeding care—what canine human beings name conditioning—to supply the exceptional offspring. This method normal veterinary care, screening for genetic problems, pre-breeding tests, and normal exercising and right nutrition.
Selective breeding (additionally known as synthetic selection) is the method via way of means of which people use animal breeding and plant breeding to selectively broaden precise phenotypic traits (characteristics) via way of means of deciding on which normally animal or plant ladies and men will sexually reproduce and feature offspring together.
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how would mutations that completely ablate [remove/destroy] the function of the androgen receptor impact the phenotypic development of humans with xy chromosomes?
Patients with mutations that entirely abolish the androgen receptor's function and affect the phenotypic development of persons with XY chromosomes will manifest as phenotypically female.
Dose-Sensitive Sex Reversal Locus on Chromosome X, Gene 1 (DAX1), also known as Nuclear Receptor Subfamily 0, Group B, Member 1 (NR0B1), is a transcription factor that belongs to the nuclear hormone receptor superfamily and primarily functions as a transcriptional repressor.
Male-to-female sex reversal is associated with duplication of the DAX1/NROB1 gene because external genital differentiation ranges are unknown.
The XX males who are SRY-positive have two X chromosomes, one of which contains genetic material from the Y chromosome, making them phenotypically male but genetically female. Males and females differ by having one X and one Y chromosome in each diploid cell of their bodies.
The DAX1 protein may have a direct or indirect impact on how gonadal hormones regulate the hypothalamic-pituitary system.
The complete question is:
How would mutations that completely ablate the function of the androgen receptor impact the phenotypic development of humans with XY chromosomes?
(A). Patients would appear phenotypically female.
(B). Patients would appear phenotypically male with underdeveloped secondary sex characteristics.
(C). Patients would appear phenotypically male, but cannot produce sperm.
(D). Patients would express both male and female secondary sex characteristics.
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activity 4. in a monohybrid cross of corn plants, purple seeds (p) are dominant to yellow (y). both parents in the original cross are homozygous. one has purple seeds, and one has yellow seeds. what is the genotype of the purple plant?pyyyppp
In a monohybrid cross of corn plants, purple seeds (p) are dominant to yellow (y). both parents in the original cross are homozygous. one has purple seeds, and one has yellow seeds.The genotype of the purple plant would be PP.
An organism's genotype generally refers to the genetic makeup of the organism. Each gene is represented by two alleles, also known as alternative forms of the gene.
When the same alleles represent a gene, such gene is said to be homzygous, but when the alleles are different, such genes are said to be heterozygous.
In this case, the purple seed allele is represented by P and the purple parent is said to be homzygous. Hence, the genotype would definitely be PP.
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for the rna molecule shown, write out the sequence of the bases on the template and nontemplate strands of dna from which this rna is transcribed.
The RNA molecule will be produced in an antiparallel manner, include uracil, and be complementary to the dna.The pattern would be: The RNA strand has same sequence also as non-template DNA strand
Nontemplate Strand:What Is It?Because its sequence should match that of new RNA molecule, the nontemplate thread is known as the coding strand.The nontemplate string for other genes on the same chromosome may be the DNA strand that acts as the template for one gene in the majority of animals.
What does a DNA non-coding strand do?The pro DNA strand of the a gene is called antisense.In a cell, messenger RNA (mRNA), that controls the synthesis of a protein, is produced using antisense DNA as a template.
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if you had to advise a farmer about what light level is best for growing potatoes, which light level would you suggest? if you had to advise a farmer about what light level is best for growing potatoes, which light level would you suggest? 0% par 50% par 100% par 150% par 200% par
The answer should be Minimum of 500-700 µmol m-2 s-1.
Plant potatoes in a sunny location that receives at least 6 hours of direct sunshine every day. Tubers require rich, loose, well-drained soil to thrive; hard or compacted soil results in deformed tubers. The soil should be somewhat acidic (pH 5.8 to 6.5) and at least 45o to 55oF (7° to 13°C).
Can you grow potatoes under a grow light?
You can grow potatoes indoors all year if you have a sunny window or grow lights! You only need a bucket, a glass of water, some toothpicks, and soil to start growing potatoes inside. Potatoes are a great source of nutrients that can be stored for a long time after harvesting.
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What is the total number of atp molecules produced through cellular respiration per molecule of glucose?.
Per molecule of glucose, cellular respiration results in the production of 38 atp molecules in total.
Do cells produce 36 or 38 ATP during respiration?As a result, a single molecule of glucose can produce up to 36 molecules of ATP throughout the process of cellular respiration. A series of procedures known as glycolysis converts glucose into two pyruvate molecules, each of which has three carbons, and uses them to produce energy.
How is 38 ATP produced from glucose?Aerobic respiration results in a net ATP gain of 38 from one glucose molecule. The electron transport system's oxidative phosphorylation, the link reaction, the TCA cycle, and ATP produced during glycolysis are all included.
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explain why 37oc is the optimal incubation temperature for enzyme activity (i.e. what is the significance of using that temperature in the experiment)?
Answer:
These experiments indicate that incubation at 37 degrees C prior to separation improves the quality of leukocyte- and platelet-depleted red cells.
In animals, the life-prolonging benefits of energy restriction become evident when the diet provides enough food to prevent malnutrition and an energy intake of about _____ of normal.
When an animal's diet offers enough food to avoid malnutrition as well as an energy intake of around 70% of normal, the life-extending effects of energy restriction becomes apparent.
A dietary plan known as calorie restriction (also known as energy restriction or calorie restriction) lowers the amount of energy that is consumed from caloric foods and beverages without causing malnutrition. In addition to increased weight loss, severe calorie restriction also caused more bone loss. Although severe caloric restriction (800 kcal/day) is helpful for weight loss, its usage has been restricted because to documented adverse effects (such as hair loss and exhaustion). A unique kind of diet known as intermittent energy restrictions (IER) involves taking periodic breaks from eating food. Alternate-day fasting (ADF) & time-restricted eating are two examples of the various types of IER diets (TRF). The IER diet is regarded as an efficient way to lose weight in the literature.
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50 points
During telephase, the
A. Nuclear membrane breaks down
B. Spindle fibers reappear
C. Chromosomes have reached opposite poles of the cell
D. Chromosomes replicate
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
By telophase, the chromosomes are moved to opposite poles.