The correct procedure for making the correction is : Draw a single line through info, note recorded in area, initial and date.
What constitutes the medical reports ?A patient's medical history, clinical findings, diagnostic test results, pre- and postoperative treatment, patient progress, and medication are all explained in detail in their medical records. If notes are properly documented, they will support the doctor's assessment of the efficacy of the treatment.
Important elements of a medical record:
information on the patient's age, sex, nationality, etc.
social assessments of people's occupations, etc.
details regarding their genetic makeup.
We currently have a medical history and a diagnosis.
a list of drugs.
a list of the patient's vaccinations.
lab test outcomes.
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the antiviral drug oseltamivir (tamiflu) blocks the release of the virus from infected cells and must be given within 24-48 hours of infection to be effective against the duration of the flu symptoms. based on how the influenzavirus manifests signs and symptoms, why is the 24-48 hour window important? the antiviral drug oseltamivir (tamiflu) blocks the release of the virus from infected cells and must be given within 24-48 hours of infection to be effective against the duration of the flu symptoms. based on how the influenzavirus manifests signs and symptoms, why is the 24-48 hour window important? after 48 hours, the virus particl
The 24–48-hour window is important because if you attempt to take Tamiflu after that 48-hour timeframe, the drug might not be effective. "The drug will be of little value if started after 48 hours for normal, healthy people and children with normal immune systems.
What does Tamiflu actually do?
The antiviral medication Tamiflu (oseltamivir phosphate). It functions by fighting the influenza virus to prevent it from proliferating in your body and by lessening flu symptoms. If you take Tamiflu before being sick, it may occasionally prevent you from getting the flu. Tamiflu doesn't heal the flu completely or instantly. But it decreases the severity of your flu symptoms and can shorten your illness by 1 to 2 days.
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which statement by the student nurse requires further teaching about which action would be provided for a client who survived an earthquake and presents with abdominal trauma to the emergency department?
"I should remove an impaled object immediately." by the student nurse requires further teaching about which action would be provided for a client who survived an earthquake and presents with abdominal trauma to the emergency department.
Trauma is an emotional reaction to a traumatic incident, such as an accident, , or natural disaster. Shock and denial are frequent feelings right after an incident. For a longer period of time, reactions can include erratic emotions, flashbacks, strained relationships, and even physical complaints like headaches or nausea. A person experiencing trauma may initially experience fatigue, disorientation, melancholy, worry, agitation, numbness, and detachment. The Latin word nutire, which means to suckle, is the source of the word nurse. This is because it originally solely referred to a wet-nurse and didn't change to refer to someone who looks after the sick until the late 16th century.
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what to do with a patient who just delivered 2 hours ago and has a history of thromboembolic disease.
Working with your doctor will help you lower your risk of blood clots, especially if you're on bed rest or had a C-section. Exactly how much exercise your doctor recommends. thromboembolic disease Spending a lot of time sitting down Stand up and stretch every hour to two hours. Drink plenty of liquids.
What is thrombosis management?clotting agents.
These medications, which are often referred to as anticoagulants, help to stop blood clots from spreading. Blood thinners reduce the possibility of developing new clots. Blood thinners can be given intravenously, subcutaneously, or orally
Are your legs elevated to avoid thromboembolism?In the evenings, while unwinding and sleeping, keeping your feet elevated can help to promote healthy circulation.
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an infant has been born to a client who is hiv positive. what is the infant's most likely prognosis for developing aids?
Supposing an infant (new born baby) has been born to a client who is HIV positive. the infant's most likely prognosis for developing aids can be that he can be HIV antibody positive up to 18 months of age without getting actively infectious with HIV.
Prognosis:
Medically predicting the likely or expected improvement or worsen symptoms or sign of a disease is termed as prognosis.
What is HIV?It Stands for Human Immunodeficiency VirusHuman Immunodeficiency Virus directly attacks the human body immune system.If not properly treated on time can lead to AIDS.Symptoms:Fever, ChillsRash Fatigue, Swollen lymph nodesCureTake proper sleepRelieve your stressperform meditationtalk about your feelings
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the nurse would anticipate what kind of treatment for patient with end-stage renal disease (esrd)? patho
When faced with a lifetime of dialysis, a kidney transplant is frequently the preferred course of treatment for end-stage renal disease.
End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients receiving home health care have a nursing diagnostic of powerlessness caused by a serious illness. The most beneficial nursing intervention would be to involve the patient in creating the care plan.
What does end-stage renal illness mean to you? (ESRD)
End-stage renal disease, also known as end-stage kidney disease or kidney failure, is the result of chronic kidney disease, which is the progressive loss of kidney function, when it reaches an advanced state. If you have end-stage renal illness, your kidneys no longer support your body's demands as they should.
Your kidneys eliminate wastes and surplus fluid from the bloodstream and release them in urine. When your kidneys fail, dangerous quantities of fluid, electrolytes, and poisons can build up in your body.
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a nurse is teaching a client how to use their epipen autoinjector. what client statements indicate the need for further teaching? select all that apply.
Nurse is teaching a client to use their EpiPen autoinjector. Client statements indicate the need for further teaching: "The EpiPen autoinjector needs to be pointed upward."
How to use EpiPen autoinjector?Place the tip against the middle of the outer thigh at a right angle (perpendicular) to the thigh. Push the auto-injector firmly until it “clicks.” This click gives a signal that the injection has started and then hold firmly in place for 3 seconds.
EpiPen auto injectors are automatic injection devices having adrenaline for allergic emergencies. The auto injectors can be used only by a person with a history or an acknowledged risk of anaphylactic reaction.
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the nurse administers a bolus tube feeding to a client with cancer. to decrease the risk of aspiration, what should the nurse do?
To lessen the chance of aspiration, the nurse should always elevate the head of the bed by 30 degrees.
What can the nurse do to lessen the chance that an enteral nutrition patient will aspirate?To lessen the risk of aspiration, the head of the bed should be elevated 30-45 degrees during feeding and for at least 30 minutes following the feed if the patient is unable to sit up for a bolus feed or is receiving continuous feeding.
What does bolus feeding accomplish?Without using a feeding pump, bolus feeding allows you to administer a predetermined amount of food as needed. This is administered using an enteral feeding syringe over a period of time as recommended by your healthcare provider.
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the nurse is assessing a 3-day old infant with a cephalohematoma in the newborn nursery. which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Skin with a yellowish tint.
What is the cephalohematoma treatment?Cephalohematoma typically resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention, so your newborn won't typically require any therapy. After a few weeks or months, the bulge disappears. A doctor might try to drain it occasionally, though it's not usually necessary.
What is a baby who has a cephalohematoma at danger for?Cephalohematomas do raise a baby's risk of anemia, infections, and jaundice. Rarely, a newborn may also have a skull fracture that will naturally mend. If your infant is overly fussy, exhibiting symptoms of jaundice, or refusing to eat or sleep, you should get in touch with your child's healthcare provider.
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a client with small cell carcinoma lung cancer may secrete an excess of which hormone, causing an ectopic form of cushing syndrome due to a nonpituitary tumor?
Because ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone is improperly secreted, small cell lung cancer (SCLC), which arises from neuroendocrine tissue, can lead to paraneoplastic endocrine disorders including Cushing syndrome (ACTH).
Cushing's is caused by small cell lung carcinoma in what way?In the neuroendocrine cells of your lungs, SCLC begins. These cells behave somewhat similarly to nerve cells. But they are also capable of producing hormones, such as glucocorticoids. You can get Cushing syndrome when a tumour that began in your lungs continuously exposes your body to the hormones it produces.
What triggers ectopic ACTH release?Usually, a hidden, slowly expanding bronchial carcinoid tumour causes ectopic ACTH output. Conventional imaging techniques, such as computerised tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging, might make it challenging to diagnose these very small tumours (MRI).
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which percentage of his or her adult weight does an individual gain during the adolescent years
Because they gain at least 40% of their adult weight and 15% of their adult height during this time, adolescents require more nutrition than adults do.
What changes do young adolescents go through?
Growth spurts and changes brought on by puberty occur during adolescence. An adolescent may gain several inches in a few months, then experience very slow development for a while before experiencing another growth spurt. Puberty (sexual maturation) changes can occur suddenly or gradually, depending on the individual.
Which factor has the biggest impact on adolescent obesity?
One of the main factors being researched as an obesity cause is genetics. According to some studies, BMI has a 25–40% heritability.
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in a client with a dislocation, the nurse should initially perform neurovascular assessments a minimum of every 15 minutes until stable. which complication does the assessments help the nurse to monitor in the client?
Storage-related disorder, A patient with a dislocation should initially have neurovascular assessments done at least once every 15 minutes until stable to check for compartment syndrome.
Describe compartment syndrome.Compartment syndrome develops when pressure inside a compartment rises, limiting blood supply to the area and perhaps harming the muscles and adjacent nerves. As long as there is an enclosed space inside the body, it can happen anywhere. It typically happens in the legs, feet, arms, or hands.
How may compartment syndrome be cured?The best treatment for chronic exertional compartment syndrome is surgery, specifically a procedure known as fasciotomy. It entails slicing apart the rigid tissue that surrounds each compartment of the damaged muscles. Thus, the pressure is reduced.
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a client reports mild tenderness and swelling near the ankle while running. which nursing instruction would help the client prevent future injury?
Warm up your muscles before engaging in an activity is the nursing instruction would help the client prevent future injury.
What is the ideal pressure injury intervention?The body should be moved around and repositioned frequently to prevent persistent pressure on the body's bony structures. When turned in bed, pressure is relieved on bony parts of the body by using pillows and foam wedges. maintaining a healthy diet to prevent undernourishment and to speed up the healing of wounds.
Edema is a term used to describe an abnormal fluid buildup in the body. Edema frequently affects the feet and ankles; as a result of gravity, swelling is more obvious in these areas. Edema is frequently brought on by prolonged standing or sitting, pregnancy, being overweight, and aging.
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ory therapist is assessing a ventilator-dependent patient's ability to be weaned. the weaning protocol states that the patient can be weaned when the patient's spontaneous tidal volume is at least 3 ml/lb of the patient's ideal body weight, which is 60 kg (132 lb). the therapist measures the patient's spontaneous minute ventilation (ve) to be 8 l/min and the respiratory rate to be 20 breaths/min. what is the most appropriate recommendation?
Tidal volume is at least 3 mL/lb of the patient's ideal body weight, which is 60 kg (132 lb).
What is a respiratory therapist responsible for?
Patients with breathing or cardiopulmonary issues get examinations and interviews by respiratory therapists. Patients who have breathing difficulties, such as those who have asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, are treated by respiratory therapists.
Patients with breathing difficulties receive assistance from a respiratory therapist. Under the supervision of physicians, respiratory therapists provide care for a variety of patients, including premature infants with underdeveloped lungs and elderly patients with lung diseases. They administer medications to the lungs, control ventilators, and provide oxygen to patients.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (egd). what action would the nurse take to prepare the client for this procedure?
As per protocol, make sure the client fasts between six and twelve hours before the exam. this action would the nurse take to prepare the client for this procedure.
What steps should a nurse take in order to appropriately collect a feces sample?Put on clean gloves, gather a feces sample, and immediately place it inside a leak-proof container with a tight-fitting lid. If the patient is bedridden, gather the sample in a dry, clean bedpan.
Which nursing practice has the biggest influence on reducing risk when taking a stool sample?The use of disposable gloves has the biggest impact because they act as a barrier against direct skin contamination by the stool itself. While all precautions help prevent contact with the stool and thereby help minimize the risk for injury to the staff, they have the biggest impact in preventing contact with the stool itself.
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a client with type 1 diabetes has told the nurse that the client's most recent urine test for ketones was positive. what is the nurse's most plausible conclusion based on this assessment finding?
The patient's insulin levels are inadequate is the nurse's most plausible conclusion based on this assessment finding.
Ketones in the urine are a sign of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes and an insulin deficit. The patient's ketonuria would worsen if the insulin was stopped or food was consumed. Hyperglycemia is difficult for metformin to manage.
In urine, ketones are relatively prevalent. On the other hand, if your pee contains a lot of ketone molecules, your body may be overly acidic. Ketoacidosis is the medical term for this illness. Diabetes is the most typical cause of diabetic ketoacidosis.
Healthy individuals who use fat as opposed to glucose for energy can detect ketones in their urine. Risk factors include excessive exercise, low-carbohydrate diets, and frequent vomiting.
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A nurse administers desmopressin (DDAVP) to a client who has a diagnosis of diabetes insidious. Which of the following indicates the desired therapeutic effect?
A. Serum sodium 146 mEq/L
B. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL
C. Urine specific gravity 1.015
D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL
The finding that indicates the effectiveness of desmopressin (DDAVP) to treat the patient's diabetes insipidus is a urine specific gravity of 1.015. The correct answer is C.
Diabetes insipidus develops is when posterior pituitary gland fails to produce enough antidiuretic hormone, resulting in excessive, diluted urine. Desmopressin replaces posterior pituitary hormone, thus the nurse should evaluate for a urine specific gravity level within the predicted range, which would show the medication's effectiveness. Apart from diabetes insipidus, desmopressin is also used to treat bedwetting (nocturnal enuresis) and the frequent urination and excessive thirst induced by some forms of brain damage or brain surgery.
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which condition would the nurse expect the client to develop if their paratyroid glands have become damaged
If the client's parathyroid glands are destroyed, the nurse expects them to develop hypoparathyroidism.
What exactly is a parathyroid disorder?Hypoparathyroidism occurs when the parathyroid glands create an excessive amount of parathyroid hormone (PTH). This could be due to a variety of factors, and the explanation helps decide the best sort of treatment. When the parathyroid gland is responding appropriately to a problem elsewhere in the body, treatment might be as simple as supplementing vitamin D. In some circumstances, the gland itself is the problem, and surgery is required. Excess parathyroid hormone can cause osteoporosis, fractures, kidney stones, decreased kidney function, heart disease, pancreatitis, increased acid secretion in the stomach, and ulcers. Many patients report fatigue, depression, anxiety, difficulty concentrating, memory problems, insomnia, generalized muscle aches and pains, frequent urination, and constipation.
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the nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (ngt) which is connected to suction. after ensuring correct tube placement, which action should the nurse take next?
Through a suction-connected nasogastric tube (NGT), the nurse is giving patients their meds. The nurse should B) flush the tube with water once she has made sure it is in the proper position.
Before, after, and in between each medicine provided, the NGT should be flushed (B). The NGT should be clamped for 20 minutes following the administration of all drugs (A). Only when the tubing has been flushed may (C and D) be used. A thin, soft tube called a nasogastric (NG) tube is inserted through the nose, down the throat, and into the stomach. Children occasionally receive medicine through a tube. The typical duration of use for NGT is a few weeks to months.
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a nurse is preparing to conduct a neurological physical assessment of a neonate, including an evaluation of the major congenital reflexes. which reflexes would the nurse assess? select all that apply.
The reflexes nurse would asses are : gag reflex , Babinski reflex Moro and Galant reflex.
What are gag, Babinski, Moro, Galant reflexes ?Babinski reflex: A baby's foot is stroked from the top of the sole toward the heel to assess the Babinski reflex.
A baby is gently placed in a sitting position with their heads supported to test the Moro reflex. The person conducting the test allows the infant's head to droop slightly backward before catching it just in time to prevent it from hitting the pillow or mat behind it.
The gag reflex, often known as gagging, occurs when the back of the mouth or the throat are activated, whether by choking or another action.
A neonatal reaction known as the galant reflex or truncal incurvation reflex. It is induced by gently massaging one side of the spine while holding the infant in ventral suspension (face down).
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the medical crew member knows when suction has been prescribed using a dry suction drainage system, the wall or transport suction should be dialed to:
To provide consistent suction for the patient, a dry suction system employs a self-controlled regulator that regulates the amount of suction and responds to air leakage.
Is it necessary to link the chest drainage system to suction?The drainage unit's suction should be set to the recommended level, as shown below. Suction is not always necessary since it might cause tissue damage and prolong an air leak in some individuals.
Dry suction control systems have several advantages: they can attain greater suction pressure levels, they are simple to set up, and there is no fluid to evaporate, which would reduce the amount of suction administered to the patient.
In principle, suctioning a chest tube aids in pleural apposition and hence aids in sealing.
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a patient with suspected esophageal varices is scheduled for an upper endoscopy with moderate sedation. after the procedure is performed, how long should the nurse withhold food and fluids?
Food and liquids should be withheld by the nurse until the gag reflex recovers.
What is gag reflex?The pharyngeal reflex, commonly referred to as the gag reflex, is an uncontrollable response that causes the soft palate to rise and the bilateral pharyngeal muscles to tighten. The posterior pharyngeal wall, the tonsil region, or the base of the tongue can all be stimulated to cause this reaction. The gag reflex is thought to be an evolutionary reaction that emerged as a means of preventing choking and swallowing foreign items. It is crucial for assessing the medullary brainstem and contributes to the diagnosis of brain death.
What is esophageal varices?Esophageal varices are abnormal, enlarged veins in the tube that connects the throat and the stomach (esophagus). This condition occurs most often in the people with serious liver diseases.
Esophageal varices develop when normal blood flow to the liver is blocked by a clot or a scar tissue in the liver.
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the nursing leaders at a county hospital are aware of the need for rigor during the implementation of an ebqi project that will address emergency department triage. how should the leaders apply rigor to this project?
The nursing leaders at the county hospital should apply rigor to the eBQI project by "ensuring resources will not be wasted and clients will not be placed at risk". The correct answer is D.
Triage includes deciding in which someone should go and allocating resources. This would provide rigor while still ensuring fairness.
What exactly is triage in the emergency room?In the medical community, triage is used to classify patients depending on the severity of their illnesses and, by extension, the order in which numerous patients need care and monitoring. Emergency triage began in the military for use by field doctors.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. By ensuring that instruments for measuring effectiveness have face and content validityB. By justifying their choice of methodology in terms of the clinical question and the characteristics of the siteC. By seeking ethical approval and client consent prior to beginning the projectD. By ensuring resources will not be wasted and clients will not be placed at riskThe correct answer is D.
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the nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with cancer about chemotherapy. the nurse tells the client he'll receive an antitumor antibiotic. the nurse knows that this type of medications is:
Nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with cancer about chemotherapy, and nurse tells the client he'll receive an antitumor antibiotic. Nurse knows that this type of medications is: cell-cycle nonspecific.
What is cell- cycle non specific?Antitumor antibiotics are cell-cycle nonspecific as they interfere with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis by binding with DNA. They also prevent synthesis of ribonucleic acid.
Cell-cycle nonspecific drugs are nitrosoureas and hormonal agents and drugs that are cell-cycle specific in the S phase are topoisomerase I inhibitors and antimetabolites. Miotic spindle poisons are cell-cycle specific in the M phase but there isn't a drug class that's specific to P phase.
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a 43-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tb. he is prescribed a multiple drug therapy, including inh and rifampin. a priority assessment by the nurse will be to monitor which combination of laboratory test results?
For the first six months of treatment, most regimens should contain at least four medications that are likely to be successful, and three drugs for the following six months. Longer MDR-TB regimens should last for a total of 18 to 20 months, with modifications based on patient response.
Why is combination treatment used to treat TB?the development of antibiotic resistance in TB (4–6). Since the early uses of pharmacological therapy for the disease, treating TB has necessitated the combination of numerous antimicrobial medications.
If you have active TB illness, you will likely get treatment for six to twelve months with a mix of antibiotics. Isoniazid INH is frequently used in conjunction with the medications rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol to treat active TB.
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an older adult client has developed pneumonia. what initial assessment finding would most concern the nurse?
A nursing care plan for pneumonia will prioritise making sure the patient gets enough oxygen. If there are no other issues, the oxygen is delivered using a nasal cannula.
The patient's medical management makes up the majority of a nursing care plan for a patient with pneumonia.
Describe pneumonia
The air sacs in one or both lungs become inflamed when someone has pneumonia. The air sacs may become blocked with liquid or pus (purulent material), causing breathing problems, a fever, chills, and a cough that produces pus or phlegm.
A step-by-step process that focuses on treating the condition by identifying the source and culturing blood is required for the management of pneumonia.
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while taking a client history, which assessment findings lead the nurse to suspect the client may have polycystic kidney disease? select all that apply.
Your blood pressure will be measured by your doctor to see whether it is higher than usual.
They could also perform further tests, such urine examinations to look for blood or protein. blood tests to evaluate how quickly your kidneys are filtering your blood.
What is a contributing factor to polycystic kidney disease?Polycystic kidney disease is brought on by abnormal genes, which implies that it typically runs in families. Sometimes a gene will change spontaneously, leaving neither parent with a copy of the altered gene.
The most prevalent PKD symptom is high blood pressure. Patients may have headaches linked to high blood pressure, or clinicians may notice high blood pressure when doing normal procedures.
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a client with a t4 spinal cord injury has a severe throbbing headache and appears flushed and diaphoretic. which priority interventions should the nurse perform? select all that apply.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a danger for patients with high-level spinal cord injuries (T6 or higher) (autonomic hyperreflexia). It is a sympathetic nervous system activation without compensation.
Which tasks may a patient with a spinal cord injury level 4 undertake on their own?Routine tasks: possesses the ability to live freely without the use of assistance aids for food, bathing, grooming, oral and face hygiene, dressing, bladder control, and bowel control.
For a patient with a spinal cord injury who is having autonomic symptoms, which action would the nurse undertake first?Since most spinal cord injured patients have low blood pressure, it is important to take a blood pressure reading right once and begin corrective treatment if the patient's reading is much higher than baseline.
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a 7-year-old child must remain quietly in bed while undergoing peritoneal dialysis. which activity is most appropriate for the nurse to plan for this child?
The most appropriate activity for the nurse to plan is : Working multiple-piece puzzles with another child.
What is peritoneal dialysis?When your kidneys are no longer able to adequately complete the job, peritoneal dialysis is a treatment option.
Compared to hemodialysis, which is a more popular blood-filtering method, this process filters the blood in a different way.
Dialysate (dialysis fluid) is steadily injected through the catheter into the abdominal cavity, also known as the peritoneal cavity, during the course of the procedure.
Blood remains in the peritoneal cavity's arteries and veins (blood vessels).
The dialysate is filled with extra fluid and waste items that are taken from the blood.
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How can a woman who is planning to get pregnant prevent lifelong intellectual disabilities and other tragedies associated with fetal alcohol syndrome in her child?.
Answer: She can abstain/stop from drinking alcohol.
Explanation:
What are some important qualities that are helpful in performing this work of
Integrity
Honesty. Morality. Virtue. Organizations want to be able to trust their employees. They want employees who will not lie, cheat or steal. There is nothing more valuable to organizations than their intellectual property; leaders want new hires who they can trust to not give away company secrets. This also means making the right decisions for the company and looking out for the organization’s best interest.
So, if you’re on the job market, remember these characteristics. Share examples in the hiring process that illustrate how you have displayed these behaviors in the past. If you are in a position to hire this year’s new crop of talent, how do you ensure that you’re bringing in people with these traits? Clearly, relying on GPA will not work. Rather, build measures of these traits into your selection system. Measure these traits with validated assessment content and well developed, structured behavioral-based interviews. High performing employees possess many desirable characteristics; make sure you’re looking for them all.
Changing success criteria
What will be important and why?
The world of work is constantly evolving: from the digital disruption of the Fourth Industrial Revolution and the seismic impact of the recent pandemic, to a long overdue focus on building diverse and inclusive organizations.
To deal with this continuous disruption and change, your workforce will need to be able to cope, adapt, and perform in different ways to be effective, and your hiring strategies need to align.