Both plants and photosynthetic algae are producers in relation to their position in a food chain.
Autotrophs, another name for producers, grow their own food. Every food chain's initial level is comprised of these. Plants or single-celled creatures are the majority of autotrophs. The majority of autotrophs produce their "food" (a nutrient called glucose) from sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water through a process known as photosynthesis.
Algae are at the bottom of the food chain in an ecological sense. They mark the start of the process by which solar energy moves from biomass up the food chain to apex predators. This primary production is mostly due to phytoplankton.
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Which of the following options is correct?
A stretch reflex
a) is an example of a polysynaptic reflex.
b) is important in regulating muscle length.
c) involves a receptor called the Golgi tendon.
d) is activated when a skeletal muscle lengthens.
e) Both b and d
The correct answer is (e). Muscle lengthening triggers the stretch reflex, which also alters the sensitivity of the muscle. often known as the stretch reflex. The stretch reflex controls a muscle's length.
The stretch reflex can be triggered by internal forces, such as the stimulation of the motor neurons, or external forces, such as a load applied to the muscle. A person being served food while carrying a plate is an illustration of the former. On the muscle opposing side, A stretch reflex contracts in reaction to its passive stretching, These muscles spindles will sense any muscle stretching and trigger a contraction to restore proper posture.
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which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs? liver kidneys gallbladder spleen stomach
The liver is in charge of metabolizing and detoxifying foreign substances, including medications, in the blood.
How does the liver metabolize drugs?Numerous medicines are metabolised by the liver, and as a result, water-soluble molecules that can be eliminated in the bile are produced. This is the consequence of phase 1 reactions, such as oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis reactions, which are mediated by cytochrome p450. Phase 2 reactions, which are conjugative, come next.
What is Cytochrome P450?A class of enzymes known as cytochrome P450 performs oxidation and reduction activities (phase 1) using iron to increase the solubility of medicines in water, which helps with excretion. Because they are attached to cell membranes and have a haem pigment that absorbs light at a wavelength of 450 nm when exposed to carbon monoxide, CYP450 enzymes get their name.
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which of the following is likely to cause the precipitation of lime out of a water solution? a) photosynthesis in heat-loving algae b) rain falling out of clouds c) reduction of temperature and pressure d) water squeezed into rock joints e) sublimation of liquid water
C) Reduction of temperature and pressure is likely to cause the precipitation of lime out of a water solution.
To precipitate limestone add the lime to water to form calcium hydroxide to from hydrated lime or slake. Remove additional impurities from the slaked lime. Combine the solution with carbon dioxide and slaked lime.
In general ,When limestone is heated, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas are formed. When carbon dioxide gas is passed through freshly prepared lime water, the solution turns milky due to the formation of calcium carbonate, that is not soluble in water.
Hence, C is the correct option
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Repeated, wavelike smooth muscle contractions in the gi tract that move food through the tract are called.
Peristalsis refers to the repeated, wavelike smooth muscle contractions in the GI tract that move food through the tract.
Peristalsis is a radially well-proportioned shortening and relaxation of influences that breed in a call to a tube, in an anterograde route. The parasympathetic central nervous system (PNS) provokes peristalsis via the myenteric network.
The affecting animate nerve organs (sensory) strain of the myenteric network gives information to interneurons inside the network. Interneurons' ideas radiate from a central point of sleeplessness, exciting an action potential (pierce-wave) inside smooth power cells causing Peristalsis. Smooth muscle fibers are situated in a divider of hollow visceral means (to a degree the liver, pancreas, and entrails), except the courage, perform spindle-formed, and are still under automatic control.
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which hormone does not play a direct role in triggering the adolescent musculoskeletal growth spurt? g
Answer: thyroid hormone
Explanation: The role of thyroid hormone during the later stages of growth and development is mediated by its effects on X metabolism, release, and receptor formation.
The great seal of the united states features an eagle clutching an olive branch in the talons of its right foot, symbolizing the power of peace. What is it grasping in the talons of its other foot?.
A peace sign, an olive branch, and thirteen arrows, which stand for war, are placed in each of the claws of an eagle bearing the motto "E Pluribus Unum," which is written on a scroll.
In the US seal, what does the eagle represent?The Founders made the proper choice when they decided to make the bald eagle the country's emblem. This majestic bird serves as an appropriate symbol for America's strength and freedom because of its ferocious beauty and audacious independence.
On the Great Seal of the United States, what is the American eagle holding?On June 20, 1782, the United States' Great Seal was officially approved by Congress after six years of research. clutching an olive branch in its beak, the bald eagle.
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PLS HURRY
Figure 1 below shows the structure of a(an)
O DNA molecule.
O amino acid.
RNA molecule.
O protein.
The given figure shows the structure of DNA molecule.
What is DNA molecule?
Deoxyribonucleic acid, also known as DNA, is the molecule that carries the genetic material necessary for an organism's growth and operation.
The structure of DNA is a double helix, which is made up of two connected strands that loop around one another to resemble a twisted ladder. Deoxyribose and phosphate groups alternately form the backbone of each strand.
One of the four bases—adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), or thymine—is joined to each sugar (T). Adenine forms chemical bonds with thymine while cytosine forms chemical bonds with guanine to join the two strands together.
Therefore, The given figure shows the structure of DNA molecule.
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How eukaryotic cell’s chromosomes change as a cell prepares to divide?
Before a mobileular starts to divide, its chromosomes are first replicated into copies, one for every daughter mobileular. Once the chromosomes are replicated, they start to condense and coil tightly.
During metaphase, the chromosomes line up throughout the middle of the mobileular. During anaphase, the chromosomes separate and flow alongside spindle fibers to contrary ends of the mobileular. During telophase, the chromosomes, which had been wonderful and condensed, start to unfold out into tangle of chromatin.
As mitosis progresses, the microtubules connect to the chromosomes, that have already duplicated their DNA and aligned throughout the middle of the mobileular. The spindle tubules then shorten and flow closer to the poles of the mobileular. As they flow, they pull the only reproduction of every chromosome with them to contrary poles of the mobileular.
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a eukaryotic cell in g1 has 10 dna double helices. if this cell underwent mitosis, how many dna molecules (i.e. dna double helices) would be present in the cell during prophase?
Ten DNA double helices make up a eukaryotic cell in g1. There would be 20 DNA molecules (or DNA double helices) in the cell during prophase if this cell underwent mitosis.
Cells that have a nucleus, organelles, and a plasma membrane are referred to as eukaryotic cells. Protozoa, fungi, plants, and animals are examples of eukaryotic organisms. The biological domain Eukaryota includes these creatures. When chromosomes are split during cell division in eukaryotic cells, the process is referred to as mitosis. Cell division occurs when the parent cell divides into two daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell. The cell's nucleus and chromosomes are divided to create two new daughter cell nuclei during the mitosis process.
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Match the historical selection pressure with the secondary evolutionary outcome that resulted.
-A mutation that provides resistance to malaria
-A mutation that provides some resistance to tuberculosis
-A CCR-5 cell receptor mutation that provides resistance to small pox
The sickle-cell allele is well-known as a mutation that causes red blood cells to deform into a sickle shape when deoxygenated in AS heterozygotes, where A represents the non-mutant version of the -globin gene, and also confers malaria resistance in AS heterozygotes.
MDR-TB refers to TB bacteria that are resistant to two of the most significant TB medications, isoniazid (INH) and rifampicin (R).
Extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) occurs when an individual develops MDR-TB that is resistant to additional medications such as fluoroquinolones and injectables.
The CCR5-delta 32 mutation effectively closes "the door," preventing HIV from entering the cell. Only 1% of Northern Europeans, notably Swedes, are resistant to HIV infection.
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What is the most important reason a cell exhibits tight transcriptional control over the regulation of gene expression?.
For the cell, regulation at the transcriptional level saves energy.
Why is the regulation of transcription so crucial?A vital biological process called transcriptional regulation enables a cell or an organism to respond to a variety of intra- and extracellular inputs, to establish a cell's identity during development, to maintain it throughout its existence, and to coordinate cellular activity.
How does gene expression affect the regulation of transcriptional control?In particular, there are two levels of control over gene expression. The first way transcription is regulated is by regulating the amount of mRNA that can be generated from a given gene. The translation of mRNA into proteins is regulated by post-transcriptional events, which constitute the second level of control.
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If a triplet on template DNA is AAA, what will be the anticodon on tRNA
a. UUU
b. AAA
c. TTT
d. AUG
If a triplet on template DNA is AAA, AAA will be the anticodon on tRNA. If AAA is present on the template strand of DNA, it will be translated to mRNA as UUU.
The anticodon sequence of the tRNA that would bind to this mRNA is AAA. Option B is the proper response since AAA is the anticodon sequence on tRNA. An anticodon is a three-nucleotide unit that has the same three bases as an mRNA codon. With the use of three complimentary base pairings with one or more amino acid codons, each tRNA molecule's unique anticodon triplet sequence may be used to create three different amino acid codons. Anticodons can only couple with one codon because of wobble base pairing. The first nucleotide of the anticodon is often inosine, which can form hydrogen bonds with several bases in the corresponding codon position.
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why were the eggshells cultured seprately from the egg contents? why were the eggs sanitized before contenets were cultured
There is a big chance that microscopic fungus will contaminate the eggshell surface during egg collection. On the eggshell's surface and inside the egg, mycelial hyphae may develop.
Can bacteria pass through eggshells?Salmonellae and other bacteria can pass through the membranes and eggshells. Penetration is measurable and detectable, and it has the potential to cross-contaminate many of chicks in the hatchery.
How does the egg shell protect the egg from bacteria?Additionally, the shell includes a thin outer layer known as the bloom or cuticle, which aids in blocking out dust and pathogens. These two translucent protein membranes, which are located between the eggshell and egg white, offer effective protection against bacterial invasion.
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baldness was thought to be a simple x-linked recessive trait, but is now considered likely due to polygenic inheritance. polygenic inheritance is most supported by an assigned man being bald and having:
Polygenic inheritance is most supported by an assigned man being bald and having his mother's father be bald. The correct answer is option (A).
Therefore, a type of gene is referred to as polygenic (many genes) inheritances when it has impacts on a certain phenotype both individually and in the context of their environment. This type of pattern is followed by features like empathy, hostility, and shyness, yet this phrase is not exclusively used to refer to these psychological characteristics. For instance, Rd baldness is thought to be polygenic given the genes that contribute to the disease. Consequently, it has become a common term used in any science or other field that considers anything having to do with genes.
The complete question is:
Rd baldness was thought to be a simple x-linked recessive trait but is now considered likely due to polygenic inheritance. Polygenic inheritance is most supported by an assigned man being bald and having:
(A). His mother's father is bald
(B). A mother who has hair loss
(C). His father be bald
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carbohydrate loading: group of answer choices eating carbohydrate-laden foods the day before an endurance event tapering in the intensity of workouts with a corresponding increase in the percentage of carbohydrate intake minimal exercise and a high-carbohydrate diet the first 3 days, followed by heavy exercise and a low-carbohydrate diet right before competition does not increase glycogen stores to any significant degree
By increasing the amount of fuel stored in your muscles, or carbohydrate-loading diet, you can increase your athletic performance during endurance events.
When you consume a high-carbohydrate "training diet" and reduce your activity level in the days leading up to an event, this is known as carbohydrate loading.
Purpose
Carbohydrates are the essential fuel for all physical exertion. The majority of recreational activities require your body to draw on its stored energy.
However, your body need more energy to continue when you participate in lengthy, demanding sports activity. The goal of carbohydrate loading is to increase your athletic performance by providing you with the energy you need to finish an endurance exercise with less exhaustion.
If you're an endurance athlete, such as a marathon runner, swimmer, cyclist, or all three, training for a competition that will last 90 minutes or longer, carbohydrate loading may be especially helpful. generally among other athletes
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many game species (e.g. elk, turkey, white-tail deer, antelope) populations have greatly decreased over the past decade due to over-hunting.
False, many game species (e.g. elk, turkey, white-tail deer, antelope) populations have not greatly decreased over the past decade due to over-hunting.
Overhunting is an activity that causes a significant reduction in the population of a species or harm to wildlife. It is also defined as the relentless pursuit of wild or game animals in order to kill or capture them for economic, personal, or food reasons. Local extinctions can result from local hunting and illegal wildlife trade, which can drive species to extinction. Because of hunting, wildlife populations have declined in forests throughout the tropics, and vulnerable species have often been extirpated, resulting in what is known as the 'empty forest syndrome.'
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1. describe the basic process of an elisa. what binds to what? when you get a positive or negative result from an elisa, what are you actually seeing?
Antigen-antibodies has interaction in the foundation of ELISA. Here, the particular antibodies unite with or bind to their target antigen. The substrate can only bind to the enzyme when the contact occurs.
A favorable outcome is attained because substrate conversion may then be seen. Proteins called antibodies serve as your body's defence against foreign substances. Your immune system creates antibodies, which bind to these foreign molecules and transport them out of your body. Immunoglobulin is a different term for antibody. An antigen is a material from outside your body that reacts with it. An enzyme is a protein that serves as a biological catalyst. A certain chemical reaction in the cell is accelerated by it. During the process, the enzyme is not destroyed.
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chemical reactions proceed spontaneously if the change in free energy g, is a negative number. at times, cells must make reactions with positive g values proceed. explain how atp (adenosine triphosphate) can be used by the cell to make reactions with positive g proceed in the direction necessary.
In coupled reaction, one reaction has a positive delta G while other has large negative delta G. And combining these two reaction net reaction has negative delta-G, thus proceed in desired direction.
Most of the anabolic reactions or constructive reactions in the cells are not energetically favourable that is, delta G is positive. And chemically only those reactions occur which are energetically favourable that is delta G is negative. To overcome this problem cell utilize the energy which is conserved in the form of ATP. Phosphate bonds are present in ATP are high energy bonds, when it is hydrolyze, hey will produce large amount of energy. This high energy is used by the cell to overcome from the energy requirement in the other non favourable reaction where delta G is positive. This is termed as the coupled reaction, in which one reaction has a positive delta G while other has large negative delta G. Thus, combining these two reactions the net delta-G of the reaction becomes negative and reaction moves into the desired direction.
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write your own sequence of dna that could be turned into a protein. this should be approximately 30 letters long (10 codons). it should be in the format 3' aag ccc ….. 5'
The DNA sequence is 3' TACAAGAACTGCTACGCAAGCCTTAGCATC 5'.
What are the roles of proteins ?
Proteins play a significant structural role in the body, including the muscles, bones, and hair. Many biological reactions can proceed more quickly thanks to the proteins that make up enzymes. The ribosomes in the cytoplasm of the cells translate the mRNA sequence into the protein
The stop codon is UAG and the start codon is AUG in mRNA.
mRNA sequence :
5' AUGUUCUUGACGAUGCGUUCGGAAUCGUAG 3'
Hence , The DNA sequence is 3' TACAAGAACTGCTACGCAAGCCTTAGCATC 5'.
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how do the different types of proteins in plasma membranes play a role in the different forms of transport of materials into and out of the cell g
Membrane proteins are involved in a variety of biological processes, including cell adhesion, energy transduction, signalling, cell recognition, and transport.
Hydrophilic molecules can pass through the cell membrane thanks to membrane proteins. Some transport membrane proteins require energy to change shape and actively move molecules and other substances across the cell membrane. They accomplish this by releasing ATP as an energy source. The proteins allow a cell to choose which compound will be transported, meeting the cell's needs while excluding anything else.
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A relatively small area with numerous endemic species and a large number of endangered or threatened species is called a _________.
you are in charge of creating a mathematical model that describes the population growth of a species of butterfly where the adults lay their eggs in the fall and then die. what type of population growth best describe this species?
The mathematical model that describes the butterfly growth is exponential growth curve.
Exponential growth, a populace's in line with capita (in line with individual) boom price remains the identical irrespective of populace size, making the populace develop quicker and quicker because it receives larger. In nature, populations can also additionally develop exponentially for a few period, however they may in the long run be restrained through aid availability.
The Exponential Growth Model:
Malthus proposed a mathematical version of populace boom. Here as the butterfly shows immigration and migration along with the growth.
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localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, is characterized by which bone disorder?
localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae are characterized by Osteitis deformans.
Bone turnover is the process of physical resistance followed by a substitute by new cartilage accompanying little change in shape, and it happens throughout one's life. Osteoclasts decay cartilage (cartilage physical resistance), releasing the mineral, developing in a transfer of calcium from cartilage fluid to the blood.
High cartilage change is guided bone turnover in postmenopausal wives (9) and BTMs have been intentional in judgment concerning this relationship. A never-ending condition at which point two together the breakdown and regrowth of cartilage are raised. Osteitis deformans happens often in the pelvic and leg cartilages, brain, and lower backbone. It is most common in earlier things and can lead to cartilage pain, deformities, and fractures.
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The complete question is:
Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, is characterized by which bone disorder?
a. Osteomalacia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteitis deformans
d. Osteomyelitis
how do antiviral drugs help to treat viral infections? question 7 options: they remove all viral proteins from the host. they interfere with viral replication. they remove all viral mrnas from the host. they remove all viruses from the infected host.
Antiviral drugs aid the body's defense against dangerous viruses. The medications can lessen viral infection symptoms and minimize their duration. Antivirals also reduce the likelihood of contracting or transmitting the herpes and HIV viruses.
Treatments for the majority of viral illnesses only provide temporary relief from symptoms while you wait for your immune system to eradicate the virus. Viral infections cannot be treated with antibiotics. Antiviral medications are available to treat several viral infections. Numerous viral infections might be stayed away from with the aid of vaccinations. They seek to lessen illness symptoms and cut down Antiviral on its length. They can also aid in stopping the spread of viruses.
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for protein synthesis on the ribosomes. which three statements correctly describe the processing that takes place before a mature mrna exits the nucleus?
Beginning, extending, and ending are its three stages. Pre-mRNA processing is made up of (a) 5′-end capping, (b) splicing, and (c) 3′-end polyadenylation.
The beginning, elongation, and termination phases of an mRNA molecule's translation by the ribosome occur sequentially. The small ribosomal subunit binds to the first sequence of the mRNA during initiation. Two closely related stages are involved in the attachment of a polyA tail to the 3′ end of mRNA. The first step is endonucleolytic cleavage of the pre-mRNA to produce a free 3′ hydroxyl that serves as the substrate for the next step, the insertion of adenosines without using a template (polyadenylation). The genetic code found in mRNA is read and utilised to create a protein during translation. The fundamental tenet of molecular biology summarizes these two processes as follows
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atp is produced in all stages of cellular respiration. which two statements describe the process of atp synthesis in the electron transport chain?
Since there are so many hydrogen ions there, they can permeate across the membrane and into the matrix.
What two main activities take place in the mitochondria as part of cellular respiration as a whole?The citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, and glycolysis are the three primary phases of cellular respiration. The cytosol is where glycolysis occurs, the mitochondrial matrix is where the citric acid cycle happens, and the inner mitochondrial membrane is where oxidative phosphorylation happens.
What exactly are the two stages of cellular respiration?The three steps of cellular respiration are glycolysis (stage 1), the Krebs cycle (also known as the citric acid cycle), and electron transport (stage 3).
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The nematode c. Elegans has approximately 19,000 genes, while humans have 25,000. Although the number of genes is similar, humans can make more than 4x as many proteins as c. Elegans. What is the most plausible explanation for this phenomenon?.
The majority of nematodes eat bacteria, fungus, or other tiny organisms as food. As a result, they play a significant role in soil and sediment ecosystems.
What is nematodes?Caenorhabditis elegans, a species that consumes soil bacteria, has become well-known as a study model: three experts on the worm's biology were awarded the 2002 Nobel Prize in medicine.
Only a small portion of all nematode species are parasites of people, animals, or crops. These have therefore gotten the most consideration from nematology researchers.
Pinworms, hookworms, trichina, and dog heartworm are well-known animal parasites that can have an adverse effect on health and the economy.
Therefore, The majority of nematodes eat bacteria, fungus, or other tiny organisms as food. As a result, they play a significant role in soil and sediment ecosystems.
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cirque de soleil's shift from animals, candy and beverage concessionaires in the aisles, and feature performers to a live theater, operatic-style format exemplifies this type of value innovation: group of answer choices reduce create eliminate raise
In cirque de solei's shift from animals, candy and beverage concessionaires in the aisles, and feature performers to a live theater, operatic-style format exemplifies this type of value innovation eliminate.
The system of innovation: The enterprise prefers to apply the perception that ‘no concept is a horrific concept’ method (Avi 2012, para. 2) to inspire a non-judgemental environment. This, in turn, promotes the way of life of innovation and creativity, wherein disagreements and debates are used to the benefit of the enterprise to spur new thoughts and take away the ones that don't fit.
The technique of looking for a consensus can result in improvements for use in destiny shows (Heward & 1st Baron Verulam 2006); it's far the anxiety in the course of the innovative system that could simply result in an revolutionary breakthrough.
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amylose and cellulose? amylose and cellulose? amylose has αα -1,4'-glycosidic linkages, whereas cellulose has ββ -1,4'-glycosidic linkages amylose has ββ -1,4'-glycosidic linkages, whereas cellulose has αα -1,4'-glycosidic linkages cellulose has a higher frequency of αα -1,4'-glycosidic linkages amylose has αα -1,4'-glycosidic linkages, whereas cellulose has both αα -1,4'-glycosidic linkages and ββ -1,4'-glycosidic linkages
Amylase and amylopectin are two different types of glucose polymers found in starch, a homopolysaccharide of D-glucose.
Amylase is the name for the lengthy, unbranched chains of D-glucose residues joined by alpha 1,4 linkages.
The glucose branching polymer, where alpha 1,4 glycosidic connections connect subsequent glucose with alpha 1,6 linkage branch sites.
Another homopolysaccharide of D-glucose is glycogen, which shares the same bonding pattern as starch but is heavily branched (every 8–12 residues as opposed to every 24–30 residues in starch).
A glucose polymer called starch is made up of glucose residues joined by an alpha-1,4 glycosidic linkage.
The linear homopolysaccharide cellulose is made up of D-glucose units joined by beta-1,4 glycosidic bonds.
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Michelle and Keith are apparently normal, but their daughter was born with alkaptonuria, an inherited metabolic disorder. If alkaptonuria is like most human hereditary disorders, the probability of their next child being born with alkaptonuria is:
Alkaptonuria is a very uncommon inborn error of amino acid metabolism caused by a deficiency in the enzyme homogentisic acid (HGA) oxidase, which causes HGA to accumulate in the body's tissues such cartilage and plasma and be excreted in the urine.
The likelihood that their subsequent child will be born with alkaptonuria is 1/4 if the ailment is genetic like the majority of human diseases. A hereditary disease called alkaptonuria causes urine to turn dark from birth. Additional symptoms, however, typically don't surface until adulthood. Symptoms typically advance gradually. Alkaptonuria patients' urine may be unusually dark or it may turn black after prolonged exposure to the air. Nevertheless, because this transition typically takes several hours, it frequently passes unnoticed. Diapers may become discolored black during infancy.
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