In a technology company, it is known that the average of network failure is 2 per week, What is the probability that in a given week there is no failure? a 0.18533 b 0.36788 c 0.04978 d 0.65341

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Answer 1

Given the average of network failure per week is 2. Therefore, the expected number of network failures in a week is 2.Using the Poisson distribution, let’s find the probability that there is no failure.

The Poisson probability mass function is given by:

[tex]$P(X = x) = e^{-\lambda} \frac{\lambda ^x}{x!}$[/tex]

Where λ is the expected value or the average. Here, λ = 2 and we want the probability that there is no failure, x = 0. Substituting the values, we have

[tex]$P(X = 0) = e^{-2} \frac{2^0}{0!}$= $e^{-2} \c dot 1$= $e^{-2}$[/tex].

Therefore, the probability that there is no failure in a given week is [tex]$e^{-2}$[/tex] which is approximately 0.1353 (to 4 decimal places). Now, let’s check which of the given options is closest to 0.1353.a) 0.18533 b) 0.36788 c) 0.04978 d) 0.65341Therefore, the answer is (c) 0.04978.

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Related Questions

An aircraft engine develops 150kW at 1500rpm. The engine output shaft is steel which fails when the shear stress is 160N/mm². a) If the output shaft is solid, determine a suitable diameter to give a safety factor of three. b) If the shaft is hollow with an external diameter of 50mm, calculate a suitable internal diameter to give a safety factor of three. Also, determine the percentage saving in weight.

Answers

a) Solid output shaft diameter for a safety factor of three: approximately 53.69 mm.  b) Hollow shaft internal diameter: around 32.63 mm, with 52.72% weight savings.

a) To determine the suitable diameter for a solid output shaft with a safety factor of three, we can use the formula for shear stress:

τ = 16T / (πd³)

Rearranging the formula to solve for the diameter (d), we have:

d = (16T / (πτ))^(1/3)

Given function that the engine develops 150 kW (150,000 W) at 1500 rpm, we need to convert the power to torque:

Torque (T) = Power (P) / (2πN/60)

Substituting the Linear program values, we have:

T = 150,000 / (2π(1500/60))
 = 150,000 / (2π(25))
 = 150,000 / (50π)
 = 3000 / π

Now, we can calculate the suitable diameter:

d = (16(3000/π) / (π(160/3)))^(1/3)
 ≈ 53.69 mm

Therefore, a suitable diameter for the solid output shaft to achieve a safety factor of three is approximately 53.69 mm.

b) If the shaft is hollow with an external diameter of 50 mm, the internal diameter (di) can be determined using the same shear stress formula and considering the new external diameter (de) and the safety factor:

di = ((16T) / (πτ))^(1/3) - de

Given an external diameter (de) of 50 mm, we can calculate the suitable internal diameter:

di = ((16(3000/π)) / (π(160/3)))^(1/3) - 50
  ≈ 32.63 mm

Thus, a suitable internal diameter for the hollow shaft to achieve a safety factor of three is approximately 32.63 mm.

To calculate the percentage saving in weight, we compare the cross-sectional areas of the solid and hollow shafts:

Weight saving percentage = ((A_solid - A_hollow) / A_solid) * 100

Where A_solid = π(d_solid)^2 / 4 and A_hollow = π(de^2 - di^2) / 4.

By substituting the values, we can determine the weight saving percentage.

To calculate the weight saving percentage, we first need to calculate the cross-sectional areas of the solid and hollow shafts.

For the solid shaft:
A_solid = π(d_solid^2) / 4
       = π(53.69^2) / 4
       ≈ 2256.54 mm^2

For the hollow shaft:
A_hollow = π(de^2 - di^2) / 4
        = π(50^2 - 32.63^2) / 4
        ≈ 1066.81 mm^2

Next, we can calculate the weight saving percentage:
Weight saving percentage = ((A_solid - A_hollow) / A_solid) * 100
                       = ((2256.54 - 1066.81) / 2256.54) * 100
                       ≈ 52.72%

Therefore, by using a hollow shaft with an internal diameter of approximately 32.63 mm and an external diameter of 50 mm, we achieve a weight saving of about 52.72% compared to a solid shaft with a diameter of 53.69 mm.

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For a pipe flow of a given flow rate, will the pressure drop in a given length of pipe be more, less, or the same if the flow is laminar compared to turbulent? Why? Define static, stagnation, and dynamic pressures. Explain why a square entrance to a pipe has a significantly greater loss than a rounded entrance. Is there a similar difference in exit loss for a square exit and a rounded exit?

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For a pipe flow of a given flow rate, the pressure drop in a given length of pipe will be less if the flow is laminar compared to turbulent.

This is because turbulent flows cause more friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which causes the pressure to drop faster over a given length of pipe compared to laminar flows. Laminar flows, on the other hand, have less friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which causes the pressure to drop slower over a given length of pipe.

Static pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest. It is the same in all directions and is measured perpendicular to the surface. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface. Dynamic pressure is the pressure of a fluid in motion. It is measured parallel to the flow and increases as the speed of the fluid increases.

A square entrance to a pipe has a significantly greater loss than a rounded entrance because the sharp corners of the square entrance cause a sudden change in the direction of the flow, which creates eddies and turbulence that increase the loss of energy and pressure. A rounded entrance, on the other hand, allows for a smoother transition from the entrance to the pipe and reduces the amount of turbulence that is created. There is a similar difference in exit loss for a square exit and a rounded exit, with the squared exit experiencing a greater loss than the rounded exit.

Fluid flow in pipes is an essential concept in engineering and physics.

To understand how a fluid moves through a pipe, we need to know the pressure drop, which is the difference in pressure between two points in a pipe. The pressure drop is caused by the friction and resistance that the fluid experiences as it flows through the pipe.The type of flow that the fluid exhibits inside the pipe can affect the pressure drop. If the flow is laminar, the pressure drop will be less than if the flow is turbulent. Laminar flows occur at low Reynolds numbers, which are a dimensionless parameter that describes the ratio of the inertial forces to the viscous forces in a fluid. Turbulent flows, on the other hand, occur at high Reynolds numbers.

In turbulent flows, the fluid particles move chaotically, and this causes a greater amount of friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which leads to a greater pressure drop over a given length of pipe.Static pressure is the pressure that is exerted by a fluid at rest. It is the same in all directions and is measured perpendicular to the surface. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface. Dynamic pressure is the pressure of a fluid in motion. It is measured parallel to the flow and increases as the speed of the fluid increases. Static pressure is the pressure that we measure in the absence of motion. In contrast, dynamic pressure is the pressure that we measure due to the motion of the fluid.A square entrance to a pipe has a significantly greater loss than a rounded entrance. This is because the sharp corners of the square entrance cause a sudden change in the direction of the flow, which creates eddies and turbulence that increase the loss of energy and pressure. A rounded entrance, on the other hand, allows for a smoother transition from the entrance to the pipe and reduces the amount of turbulence that is created. There is a similar difference in exit loss for a square exit and a rounded exit, with the squared exit experiencing a greater loss than the rounded exit.

The pressure drop in a given length of pipe will be less if the flow is laminar compared to turbulent because of the less friction and resistance against the pipe walls in laminar flows. Static pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface.

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The roof of an airconditioned home is 7 m long, 9 m wide, and 20 cm thick. It is made of a flat layer of concrete whose thermal conductivity is k = 0.8 W/m·K. The temperatures of the outer and the inner surfaces of the roof one afternoon are measured to be 34°C and 18°C, respectively, for a period of 4 hours. Determine the ff: (Round off your final answers to two (2) decimal places.)
(a) the rate of heat through the roof in W =
(b) the cost of the heat gain to the homeowner if the cost of electricity is ₱9.00/kWh =

Answers

To determine the rate of heat through the roof, we have;Area = Length × WidthA = 7 m × 9 m = 63 m².The thickness of the roof is 20 cm. We convert it to meters by dividing by 100.

That is 20 cm/100 cm/m = 0.20 mothed temperature difference, ΔT = 34°C – 18°C = 16°C.The formula for the rate of heat is given bee's = kAΔT/tq = (0.8 W/make)(63 m²)(16°C)/(4 hours × 3600 s/hour) q = 1.00 W

The cost of the heat gain = Energy used × Cost of electricity Cost of electricity

=[tex]₱9.00/kWh = ₱0.009/kJ.[/tex]

For 4 hours, Energy used = q × energy used

= (1.00 W) (4 hours × 3600 s/hour)

= 14,400

Jute cost of the heat gain

= [tex](14,400 J)/(3,600,000 J/kWh) (₱0.009/kJ)[/tex]

The cost of the heat gain = ₱0.000504Therefore, the cost of the heat gain to the homeowner is

₱0.000504.

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Beams are classified to four types. If the beam is supported at only one end and in such a manner that the axis of the beam cannot rotate at that point. If the material homogeneous ,constant cross section, and the load must be axial,then the strain may be a assumed constant. The lateral strain is inversely proportional to the longitudinal strain. Radial lines remain straight after deformation.

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Beams are long, rigid structures that can withstand loads by resisting bending moments. They are widely used in construction, bridges, and machine frames, among other applications.

There are four types of beams, each with a distinct set of characteristics. A cantilever beam is one of the four types of beams. It is supported at one end and cannot rotate on that point's axis. It can only flex along the beam's longitudinal axis.In engineering, the term "homogeneous" refers to a material that has a uniform composition and lacks any visible differentiation.

A material with constant cross-section will maintain the same cross-sectional area throughout its length. The load in an axial beam is along the beam's longitudinal axis. As a result, the axial strain may be considered uniform.In addition, the lateral strain is inversely proportional to the longitudinal strain. Radial lines remain straight after deformation.

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50. A 7.6 cm solid shaft is to be replaced with a hollow shaft of equal torsional strength Calculate the inside dimeter given that the outside diameter of the hollow shaft is 10 cm,
A. 86.55 mm
B. 75.44 mm
C. 95.43 mm
D. 35.41 mm

Answers

Given, Outside diameter of hollow shaft = 10 cm

= 100 mm.

The area of the solid shaft and hollow shaft would be the same.

Therefore, Torsional strength of solid shaft = Torsional strength of hollow shaft. Where J is the polar moment of inertia of the hollow shaft and D1 and dare the outside and inside diameters of the hollow shaft, respectively.

J =[tex]π / 32 × (D1⁴ - d⁴[/tex]).

Now the polar moment of inertia for the solid shaft,

J1= π / 32 × D1⁴J1

= J / 2⇒ π / 32 × D1⁴

= π / 32 × (D1⁴ - d⁴) / 2 ⇒ D1⁴

= 2(D1⁴ - d⁴)⇒ D1⁴

= 2D1⁴ - 2d⁴ ⇒ d⁴

= (2 / 3)D1⁴. Therefore, Inside diameter (d) = D1 × (2 / 3)

= 10 × (2 / 3)

= 6.67 cm

= 66.7 mm.

Hence, the inside diameter of the hollow shaft is 66.7 mm.

Therefore, the correct option is D. 35.41 mm.

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You are asked to design a small wind turbine (D = 48 + 1.25 ft). Assume the wind speed is 15 mph at T = 10°C and p = 0.9 bar. The efficiency of the turbine is η = 25%, meaning that 25% of the kinetic energy in the wind can be extracted. Calculate the power in watts that can be produced by your turbine.

Answers

The power that can be produced by the wind turbine is approximately 1.79 watts.

To calculate the power that can be produced by the wind turbine, we need to determine the kinetic energy in the wind and then multiply it by the efficiency.

First, we need to convert the given wind speed from mph to m/s:

15 mph = 6.7 m/s (approximately)

Next, we can calculate the density of the air using the given temperature and pressure. We can use the ideal gas law to find the density (ρ) of air:

pV = nRT

Where:

p = pressure (0.9 bar)

V = volume (1 m³)

n = number of moles of air (unknown)

R = ideal gas constant (0.287 J/(mol·K))

T = temperature in Kelvin (10°C + 273.15 = 283.15 K)

Rearranging the equation, we have:

n = pV / RT

Substituting the values, we get:

n = (0.9 * 1) / (0.287 * 283.15) ≈ 0.0113 mol

Now, we can calculate the mass of air (m) in kilograms:

m = n * molecular mass of air

The molecular mass of air is approximately 28.97 g/mol, so:

m = 0.0113 * 28.97 kg/mol ≈ 0.33 kg

Next, we can calculate the kinetic energy (KE) in the wind using the mass of air and the wind speed:

KE = (1/2) * m * v²

Substituting the values, we get:

KE = (1/2) * 0.33 * 6.7² ≈ 7.17 J

Finally, we can calculate the power (P) that can be produced by the turbine using the efficiency (η):

P = η * KE

Substituting the values, we get:

P = 0.25 * 7.17 ≈ 1.79 W

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1. The modern rocket design is based on the staging of rocket operations. Analyse the rocket velocity AV performances for 5-stage and 6-stage rockets as in the general forms without numerics. Both the series and parallel rocket engine types must be chosen as examples. Compare and identify your preference based on all the 4 rocket velocity AV options.

Answers

The modern rocket design is based on the staging of rocket operations. The rocket staging is based on the concept of shedding stages as they are expended, rather than carrying them along throughout the entire journey, and the result is that modern rockets can achieve impressive speeds and altitudes.

In rocket staging, the concept of velocity is crucial. In both the series and parallel rocket engine types, the rocket velocity AV performances for 5-stage and 6-stage rockets, as in general forms without numerics, can be analysed as follows:Series Rocket Engine Type: A series rocket engine type is used when each engine is fired separately, one after the other. The exhaust velocity Ve is constant throughout all stages. The general velocity AV expression is expressed as AV = Ve ln (W1 / W2).

Parallel Rocket Engine Type: A parallel rocket engine type has multiple engines that are fired simultaneously during all stages of flight. The general velocity AV expression is expressed as AV = Ve ln (W1 / W2) + (P2 - P1)A / m. Where A is the cross-sectional area of the nozzle throat, and P1 and P2 are the chamber pressure at the throat and nozzle exit, respectively.Both rocket engines can be compared based on their 4 rocket velocity AV options.

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A parcel of land, with boundaries as described below is to be subdivided into two lots of equal areas. The dividing line is to pass through a point midway between corners A and E, and through a point along the boundary BC. Find the bearing and distance of this dividing line. Course E-A :lat= +57.81 m, Dep = +16.03 m; Distance: 60.0 m Course B-C: Lat = -9.63 m, Dep = +72.04 m; Distance: 72.69 m Course C-D: Lat -42.79 m, Dep = +13.36 m; Distance: 44.83 m Course D-E: Lat = -18.75 m, Dep = -53,25 m; Distance: 56.45 m Course E-A: Lat = +13,36 m, Dep = -48.18 m; Distance: 50.0 m

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A parcel of land is to be divided into two lots of equal areas. The line of demarcation will pass through a midpoint between corners A and E and a point along the boundary BC. Find the distance and bearing of the dividing line. The first step in determining the bearing and distance of the dividing line of a parcel of land is to depict the figure as accurately as possible.

Here is an illustration of the problem:

Find the Bearing and Distance of the Dividing Line The line connecting A and E serves as the baseline (E-A). In addition, the coordinates of each corner are shown in the figure. The length of each course and the bearing of each line must be calculated.

The midpoint and the point on BC are shown in the figure below:

Now that the midpoint and point on BC have been determined, the bearing and distance of the dividing line can be calculated:

Thus, the bearing of the dividing line is N30°E, and its distance is 57.96 m (to the nearest hundredth of a meter).

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The aerodynamic Lift of the Aircraft is created mainly by the influenced by the aerodynamic interference between these parts of the aircraft the and the Its magnitude is significantly

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The aerodynamic lift of the aircraft is created mainly by the influenced by the aerodynamic interference between the wings and the air.

Its magnitude is significantly affected by the airspeed of the aircraft as well as the shape of the wings and their angle of attack. What creates lift in an aircraft?Lift is created by a difference in air pressure. The wings are specially shaped so that the air moving over the top surface must travel farther and faster than the air moving beneath the wing. This creates a difference in air pressure above and below the wing, which produces an upward force called lift.How is the magnitude of aerodynamic lift affected?

The magnitude of aerodynamic lift is significantly affected by the airspeed of the aircraft as well as the shape of the wings and their angle of attack. When the angle of attack of the wings is increased, the lift also increases. However, if the angle of attack is increased too much, the lift can reach a maximum point and then start to decrease. Additionally, if the airspeed of the aircraft is too low, there may not be enough air moving over the wings to create the necessary lift.

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A spark-ignition engine operates on hot-air standard with Cu = 0.82 kJ/kg-K. The initial pressure, volume, and temperature before compression stroke are 98 kPa, 0.045 m3, and 310K respectively. If there is a clearance of 7.5 percent and 18 kN-m of heat is added every cycle, what is the mean effective pressure?

Answers

The mean effective pressure of a spark-ignition engine can be calculated using the following formula:Mean effective pressure (MEP) = Work done per cycle / Displacement volume Work done per cycle can be calculated by subtracting the heat rejected to the surroundings from the heat added during the combustion process.

The mean effective pressure can now be calculated by finding the work done per cycle and displacement volume. Since the clearance volume is 7.5% of the total volume, the displacement volume can be calculated as follows:Displacement volume = (1 - clearance volume) *[tex]total volume= (1 - 0.075) * 0.045= 0.0416 m3[/tex]The work done per cycle can be calculated as follows:Work done per cycle = Heat added - Heat rejected= 18 - (m * Cp * (T3 - T2))where m is the mass of air, Cp is the specific heat at constant pressure, T3 is the temperature at the end of the power stroke, and T2 is the temperature at the end of the compression stroke. Since there is no information given about the mass of air, we cannot calculate the heat rejected and hence, the work done per cycle.

However, we can assume that the heat rejected is negligible and that the work done per cycle is equal to the work done during the power stroke. This is because the heat rejected occurs during the exhaust stroke, which is the same volume as the clearance volume and hence, does not contribute to the work done per cycle. Using this assumption, we get:Work done per cycle = m * Cv * (T3 - T2)where Cv is the specific heat at constant volume.

Using the hot-air standard, the temperature at the end of the power stroke can be calculated as follows:[tex]T3 = T2 * (V1 / V2)^(γ - 1)= 582.2 * (0.045 * (1 - 0.075) / 0.045)^(1.4 - 1)= 1114.2 K[/tex] Substituting the given values, we get:Work done per[tex]cycle = m * Cv * (T3 - T2)= 1 * 0.718 * (1114.2 - 582.2)= 327.1 kJ/kg[/tex] The mean effective pressure can now be calculated by dividing the work done per cycle by the displacement volume:Mean effective pressure (MEP) = Work done per cycle / Displacement volume[tex]= 327.1 / 0.0416= 7867.8 k[/tex]Pa, the mean effective pressure is 7867.8 kPa.

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I need a full scientific and detailed explanation about cutting tools , how they work and operate , how they cut (scientifically) , how they function and any interesting and scientific fact about them please clear hand writing or word doc words.

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Cutting tools are essential in manufacturing processes to remove material from workpieces and give them their desired shape.

The functioning of these tools involves complex science, including material interactions, thermal dynamics, and mechanical principles. The material, coating, geometry, and cutting parameters of a tool all influence its efficiency and effectiveness. More specifically, cutting tools operate through a process known as shear deformation. The sharp edge of the tool applies pressure on the workpiece material, exceeding its shear strength, causing it to deform and separate from the bulk material. This process generates heat and friction, affecting tool wear and the quality of the cut. Material science plays a pivotal role in developing cutting tools with specific properties, such as hardness, toughness, and thermal stability, to withstand the harsh conditions during cutting operations. Cutting parameters like speed, feed, and depth of cut are optimized based on the workpiece material and desired output. An interesting scientific fact is that some advanced cutting tools use a coating of materials like Titanium Nitride (TiN), which significantly improves tool life by providing a hard, low friction surface that resists wear.

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To construct a grading curve, what do you need in y-axis: A. Mass Retained and Cumulative Percentage B. Cumulative Percentage Passing. Retained. Sieve size and Cumulative Percentage D. Sieve size and Percentage Passing. Passing. E. Cumulative Percentage Passing and F. None of them Cumulative Percentage Retained. 3........... Listare routine test for checking variation and consistence of concrete mixes for control purpose A. Setting time test B. Ball penetration test C. Flow table test D. compacting factor test E. A+B F. None of them

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For constructing a grading curve, the y-axis should represent the Cumulative Percentage Passing, and routine tests for checking variation and consistency of concrete mixes for control purposes include Setting time test and Ball penetration test.

To construct a grading curve, the y-axis should represent the Cumulative Percentage Passing (option B). This axis indicates the percentage of material that passes through a given sieve size.

A grading curve is a graphical representation of the particle size distribution of a material, typically used in the context of aggregates or soils. The x-axis represents the sieve size (particle size), and the y-axis represents the cumulative percentage passing at each sieve size. The curve shows how the material is distributed across different sieve sizes, providing valuable information about its gradation.

Regarding the routine tests for checking variation and consistency of concrete mixes for control purposes, the correct options are A+B (Setting time test and Ball penetration test).

Setting time test measures the time it takes for concrete to reach specific stages of hardening, providing insights into its workability and setting characteristics. Ball penetration test determines the consistency and strength of the concrete by measuring the depth to which a standardized ball penetrates into the concrete sample.

Flow table test, compacting factor test, and the other options listed do not directly pertain to the variation and consistency of concrete mixes.

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A simple steam cycle has the following conditions, (station labels shown in brackets); > Boiler exit conditions (1); Pressure SMN/m² and Temperature 450°C > Condenser inlet conditions (2); Pressure 0.08 MN/m² > Turbine Adiabatic efficiency, 88% > The flow at condenser exit is saturated water at 0.02 MN/m². > The boiler feed pump work is negligible. > The steam mass flow rate is 400 kg/s a) Produce a hardware diagram of this simple steam cycle, label each of the points. [2 marks] [3 marks] b) Draw the steam cycle on the steam enthalpy-entropy chart provided. c) Evaluate the specific enthalpy at each point around the cycle including the isentropic turbine exit conditions (2). Include the enthalpy at condenser exit. [2 marks] What is the dryness fraction at turbine exit? [1 mark] e) Evaluate the thermal efficiency of the cycle. [1 mark] f) Evaluate the power output of the cycle assuming that the electric generator has no losses. [1 mark]

Answers

However, specific values are required to calculate the enthalpies and other parameters accurately.

a) Hardware diagram of the simple steam cycle, and b) Steam cycle on the steam enthalpy-entropy chart are given below:

a) Hardware diagram of the simple steam cycle:

                   (1)   ──── Boiler ────>   (2)

                  /                           |

            Turbine                          Condenser

              |                               |

              └─────────────(3)─────────────┘

Points:

(1) - Boiler exit

(2) - Condenser inlet

(3) - Turbine exit

b) Steam cycle on the steam enthalpy-entropy chart:

                  ↑

                  |

            (3)   |   (2)

                  |

  ────────────────┼───────────────

                  |

                  |

            (1)   |

                  |

                  ↓

c) Specific enthalpy at each point:

Boiler exit (1): h1 = Enthalpy at boiler exit (Given value)

Turbine exit (3): h3 = Isentropic turbine exit enthalpy (Calculate using turbine efficiency)

Condenser inlet (2): h2 = Enthalpy at condenser inlet (Given value)

Condenser exit: h4 = Enthalpy at condenser exit (Given value)

Dryness fraction at turbine exit (3): Calculate by determining the quality of the steam at point 3 using the specific enthalpy values.

e) Thermal efficiency of the cycle: Calculate the thermal efficiency using the formula:

Thermal efficiency = (Work output / Heat input) × 100

f) Power output of the cycle: Calculate the power output using the formula:

Power output = Mass flow rate × (h1 - h2)

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make a full wave rectifier in matlab and on the rectified output wave apply fourier series calculating a0,an,bn and plotting the final result.

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The full wave rectifier in MATLAB can be built by utilizing the Simulink inbuilt blocks. The circuit diagram is displayed below;

Figure 1: Full Wave Rectifier Circuit Diagram

We have the following constituents;

Two 1N4001 diodes, a 10kohms load resistor, a 10V AC input, and ground.

Initially, the MATLAB environment needs to be opened. Then navigate to the Simulink library browser and find the Simulink sources block set. Utilize the function generator block and the scope block. Next, connect them in series by dragging a wire. Then, the scope block can be connected to the output and the function generator to the input. By clicking the function generator block, set the frequency to 100Hz and the amplitude to 10V rms. Finally, select the Simulate option in the Simulink environment. The final result is shown below;

Figure 2: MATLAB Full Wave Rectified Output Wave

To calculate Fourier series we will first derive the harmonic coefficients. In the waveform, the fundamental frequency is f=50Hz. Thus, the nth harmonic frequency is n*50.

The Fourier series equation for this waveform is given as shown below;Eqn 1: Fourier Series EquationWhere;a_0 = 0a_n = (2/π)* ∫0πV_sin(nωt)dt (1)bn = (2/π)* ∫0πV_cos(nωt)dt (2)To obtain a_n and b_n we will need to obtain the integral of the wave;

Figure 3: Integral WaveformThus;a_n = (2/π)*∫0πV_sin(nωt)dt= (2/π)*V*((1-cos(nωt))/n) from 0 to π, we substitute π= 180° and V=1∴a_n = (2/π)*1*(1-cos(n*π)/n) = 2*(1-(-1)^n)/nπb_n = (2/π)*∫0πV_cos(nωt)dt = (2/π)*V*(sin(nωt)/n) from 0 to π∴b_n = 0

The waveform Fourier series coefficients are given below;

ao = 0,

a1 = 0.9091,

a2 = 0,

a3 = 0.3030,

a4 = 0,

a5 = 0.1818,

a6 = 0,

a7 = 0.1306,

a8 = 0,

a9 = 0.1010,

a10 = 0,

a11 = 0.0826,

a12 = 0,

a13 = 0.0693,

a14 = 0,

a15 = 0.0590,

a16 = 0,

a17 = 0.0510,

a18 = 0,

a19 = 0.0448,

a20 = 0

The Fourier series waveform is shown below;

Figure 4: Final Fourier Series Waveform.

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You are to design a heat exchanger that will cool ethylene glycol from an industry process flowing at 2.38 kg/s from a temperature of 95°C to 59°C. Water is available at a flow rate of 3 kg/s, entering the heat exchanger at 18°C and exiting at 36°C. With an overall heat transfer coefficient of 10,000 W/m²/K, either a co-current or counter-current design are being considered. Please answer the following: A. What is the NTU of each of the designs? B. What heat transfer area is required for each of the designs? C. What is the physical background of the difference in size between the co-current and countercurrent heat exchanger designs?

Answers

A. NTU_co-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C)

B. NTU_counter-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C)

C. A_co-current = NTU_co-current * min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

How to solve for the NTU

Cp1 = specific heat capacity of ethylene glycol = 2.42 kJ/kg°C

Cp2 = specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 kJ/kg°C

C1 = m1 * Cp1

C2 = m2 * Cp2

B. Calculating the heat transfer area:

The heat transfer area is calculated using the formula:

A = NTU * min(C1, C2) / U

C. Difference in size between co-current and counter-current designs:

The difference in size between co-current and counter-current heat exchangers lies in their effectiveness (ε) values. Co-current heat exchangers typically have lower effectiveness compared to counter-current heat exchangers.

Counter-current design allows for better heat transfer between the two fluids, resulting in higher effectiveness and smaller heat transfer area requirements.

Now, let's calculate the values:

A. Calculating the NTU:

C1 = 2.38 kg/s * 2.42 kJ/kg°C = 5.7596 kW/°C

C2 = 3 kg/s * 4.18 kJ/kg°C = 12.54 kW/°C

NTU_co-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C)

NTU_counter-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C)

B. Calculating the heat transfer area:

A_co-current

= NTU_co-current * min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

A_counter-current

= NTU_counter-current * (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

C. The physical background of the difference in size:

The difference in size between co-current and counter-current designs can be explained by the different flow patterns of the two designs.

In a counter-current heat exchanger, the hot and cold fluids flow in opposite directions, which allows for a larger temperature difference between the fluids along the heat transfer surface

D. A_counter-current = NTU_counter-current * (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

E. Counter-current design has higher effectiveness, resulting in smaller heat transfer area requirements.

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what are the most 10 common things FAILURE MODE of the Automatic Rescue Breathing medical device? ( device without electric component)
Failure Mode Effects of each
Causes of each
RPN of each
Action plan for each

Answers

The most 10 common things FAILURE MODE of the Automatic Rescue Breathing medical device are as follows:

Failure Mode Effects of each causes of each RPN of each action plan for each :lack of Ventilation, During the Rescue Process, Increased Carbon Dioxide Levels in the Patient, Defective Tubing, Poor Seal of the Mask, Ruptured diaphragm, Material Degradation, Regulator Malfunction, Weak Bladder Bag, Valve Failure, Storage Damage

1. Lack of Ventilation: This is one of the most common failure modes of automatic rescue breathing devices. When the device is in use, the patient will experience an increase in carbon dioxide levels, which can be fatal if left untreated.

2. Increased Carbon Dioxide Levels in the Patient: During rescue operations, if the device is not properly calibrated, it can lead to increased carbon dioxide levels in the patient. This can cause dizziness, nausea, and even unconsciousness.

3. Defective Tubing: The tubing is responsible for delivering oxygen to the patient. If the tubing is defective, it can lead to the patient receiving less oxygen than required, which can result in hypoxia.

4. Poor Seal of the Mask: The mask is responsible for maintaining a seal between the device and the patient's face. If the seal is not tight enough, it can lead to air leaks and the patient not receiving the required amount of oxygen.

5. Ruptured Diaphragm: The diaphragm is responsible for regulating the flow of oxygen to the patient. If the diaphragm ruptures, it can lead to the patient receiving too much or too little oxygen, which can result in hypoxia.

6. Material Degradation: The components of the device can degrade over time, leading to a decrease in performance and possible device failure.

7. Regulator Malfunction: The regulator is responsible for controlling the amount of oxygen delivered to the patient. If the regulator malfunctions, it can result in the patient receiving too much or too little oxygen.

8. Weak Bladder Bag: The bladder bag is responsible for storing and delivering oxygen to the patient. If the bladder bag is weak, it can result in a decrease in performance and possible device failure.

9. Valve Failure: The valves are responsible for regulating the flow of oxygen to the patient. If the valves fail, it can result in the patient receiving too much or too little oxygen.

10. Storage Damage: The device can sustain damage during storage, which can lead to a decrease in performance and possible device failure.

The Automatic Rescue Breathing medical device is an essential medical tool used in rescue operations. However, it can fail due to several reasons. The ten most common reasons for failure include lack of ventilation, increased carbon dioxide levels in the patient, defective tubing, poor seal of the mask, ruptured diaphragm, material degradation, regulator malfunction, weak bladder bag, valve failure, and storage damage. In order to ensure the safety of the patient, it is important to regularly check the device for any defects and replace any damaged components.

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Question 1 25 Marks A railway buffer consists of two spring / damper cylinders placed side by side. The stiffness of the spring in each cylinder is 56.25 kN/m. A rigid train of mass 200 tonnes moving at 2 m/s collides with the buffer. If the displacement for a critically damped system is: x=(A+Bte- Where t is time and on is the natural frequency. Calculate: (a) The damping co-efficient (4 marks) (b) The displacement as a function of time (8 marks) (c) The time taken by the train before coming to rest. (4 marks) (d) The distance travelled by the train before coming to rest. (4 marks) (e) Sketch the response of the system (time versus distance). (5 marks)

Answers

A railway buffer consists of two spring / damper cylinders placed side by side. The stiffness of the spring in each cylinder is 56.25 kN/m. A rigid train of mass 200 tonnes moving at 2 m/s collides with the buffer.

If the displacement for a critically damped system is:x=(A+Bte-Where t is time and on is the natural frequency. Calculation. The damping co-efficient. The damping coefficient for a critically damped system is calculated by using the formula given below.

[tex]2 * sqrt(K * m[/tex]) where, [tex]K = stiffness of the spring in each cylinder = 56.25 kN/mm = 56,250 N/mm = 56.25 × 10⁶ N/m.m = mass of the rigid train = 200 tonnes = 2 × 10⁵ kg[/tex], The damping coefficient will be:[tex]2 * sqrt(K * m) = 2 * sqrt(56.25 × 10⁶ × 2 × 10⁵)= 6000 Ns/m[/tex]. The displacement as a function of time.

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Person (approximated as a cylinder of 50 cm diameter and 160 cm long) walks with a velocity of 1 m/s in air(y = 15*10⁻⁶ m²/s). If the person velocity was doubled, the rate of heat loss from that person by convection. A-) increases 2 times. B-) decreases 2 times. C-) increases 1.7 times. D-) increases 1.3 times E-) No Change.

Answers

The correct answer is A) increases 2 times. The rate of heat loss from a person by convection can be calculated using the equation:

Q = h * A * ΔT

where:

Q is the rate of heat loss (in watts),

h is the convective heat transfer coefficient (in watts per square meter per degree Celsius),

A is the surface area of the person,

ΔT is the temperature difference between the person's skin and the surrounding air.

The convective heat transfer coefficient can be approximated using empirical correlations for flow around a cylinder. For laminar flow around a cylinder, the convective heat transfer coefficient can be estimated as:

h = 2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3))

where:

k is the thermal conductivity of air,

D is the characteristic length of the person (diameter),

Re is the Reynolds number,

Pr is the Prandtl number.

Given that the person's diameter is 50 cm (0.5 m) and the length is 160 cm (1.6 m), the characteristic length (D) is 0.5 m.

Now, let's consider the velocity of the person. If the velocity is doubled, it means the Reynolds number (Re) will also double. The Reynolds number is defined as:

Re = (ρ * v * D) / μ

where:

ρ is the density of air,

v is the velocity of the person,

D is the characteristic length,

μ is the dynamic viscosity of air.

Since the density (ρ) and dynamic viscosity (μ) of air remain constant, doubling the velocity will double the Reynolds number (Re).

To determine the rate of heat loss when the person's velocity is doubled, we need to compare the convective heat transfer coefficients for the two cases.

For the initial velocity (v), the convective heat transfer coefficient is h1. For the doubled velocity (2v), the convective heat transfer coefficient is h2.

The ratio of the convective heat transfer coefficients is given by:

h2 / h1 = (2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * (2 * Re)^0.5 * Pr^(1/3))) / (2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)))

Notice that the constants cancel out, as well as the thermal conductivity (k) and the characteristic length (D).

Therefore, the ratio simplifies to:

h2 / h1 = (2 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)) / (Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)) = 2

This means that the rate of heat loss from the person by convection will increase 2 times when the velocity is doubled.

So, the correct answer is A) increases 2 times.

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B.b. Determine the Inverse Laplace transforms of the following. Show your solution.
1. 7b / s
2. 3b / 2s+1
3. b / s²+25
4. 5bs / 2s²+25
5. 5b / s³
6. 3bs / 1/2s²-8
7. 15b / 3s²-27
8. b / (s²+2s+16)²
9. 2b(s-3) / s²-6s+13
10. 2bs+5b / s²+4s-5
11. 2b / s-5
12. 2bs / s²+4 13. 4b / s²+4
14. 11b - 3bs / s²+2s-3
15. 2bs²-9bs-35b / (s+1)(s-2)(s+3)
16. 5bs²-2bs-19b (s-1)²(s+3)
17. 3bs²+16sb+15b / (s+3)³
18. 13b+5bs+7bs² / (s²+2)(s+1)
19. 3b+6bs+4bs²-2bs³ / s²(s²+3)
20. 26b-cb / s(s²+4s+13)

Answers

1. 7b / s -  7b
As we know, the inverse Laplace transform of a constant multiplied by s is the unit step function multiplied by the constant. Therefore, the inverse Laplace transform of 7b/s is 7b.

2. 3b / 2s+1 -  (3/2b)e^(-t/2)sin(t)
To find the inverse Laplace transform of 3b/2s + 1, we need to use partial fraction decomposition to get it in the form of known Laplace transforms. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
3. b / s²+25 -  bcos(5t)
The given expression is already in the form of a known Laplace transform, so we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
4. 5bs / 2s²+25 - 5bcos(5t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
5. 5b / s³ - (5b/2)t²
We can use the inverse Laplace transform of 1/s^n, which is (1/(n-1)!)t^(n-1), to find the answer.
6. 3bs / 1/2s²-8 -  (3b/2)sin(2t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
7. 15b / 3s²-27 -  5bcos(3t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
8. b / (s²+2s+16)² -  (1/8b)te^(-t/2)sin(3t)
To find the inverse Laplace transform of b/(s^2+2s+16)^2, we need to use partial fraction decomposition and complete the square. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
9. 2b(s-3) / s²-6s+13 -  (2b/13)e^(3t/2)sin((sqrt(10)/2)t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
10. 2bs+5b / s²+4s-5 -  (2b+5b)e^(t/2)sin((sqrt(21)/2)t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.

11. 2b / s-5 - : 2be^(5t)
The given expression is already in the form of a known Laplace transform, so we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
12. 2bs / s²+4 -  2bcos(2t)

We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
13. 4b / s²+4 -  2bsin(2t)
The given expression is already in the form of a known Laplace transform, so we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
14. 11b - 3bs / s²+2s-3 -11b/2 - (3b/2)e^(-t) - (b/2)e^(3t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
15. 2bs²-9bs-35b / (s+1)(s-2)(s+3) - (7b/2)e^(-t) + (3b/2)e^(2t) - (5b/2)e^(-3t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
16. 5bs²-2bs-19b (s-1)²(s+3) - (3b/4)e^(t) - (3b/4)e^(3t) + (2b/3)e^(2t)sin(t) - (b/9)e^(2t)(3cos(t)+sin(t))
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
17. 3bs²+16sb+15b / (s+3)³ - (3b/2)e^(-3t) + (13b/4)te^(-3t) + (7b/4)t²e^(-3t)

We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
18. 13b+5bs+7bs² / (s²+2)(s+1) -  (6b/5)e^(-t) + (3b/5)e^(t) + (7b/5)sin(t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
19. 3b+6bs+4bs²-2bs³ / s²(s²+3) -  (3b/2)t - (9b/2)e^(0t) + (2b/3)sin(sqrt(3)t) - (b/3)sqrt(3)cos(sqrt(3)t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
20. 26b-cb / s(s²+4s+13) -  (2b-cb/13)e^(0t) - (2b/13)sin(2t) + (5b/13)cos(2t)

We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.

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Write down the three combinations of permanent load, wind load and floor variable load, and summarize the most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structures?

Answers

The three combinations of permanent load, wind load and floor variable load are:
Case I: Dead load + wind load
Case II: Dead load + wind load + floor variable load
Case III: Dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load
The most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure is the maximum moment of each floor beam under the most unfavorable load combination.

General frame structures carry a combination of permanent load, wind load, and floor variable load. The three combinations of permanent load, wind load and floor variable load are case I (dead load + wind load), case II (dead load + wind load + floor variable load), and case III (dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load). Of these, the most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure is the maximum moment of each floor beam under the most unfavorable load combination. The maximum moment of each floor beam is calculated to determine the most unfavorable internal force.  

The maximum moment of each floor beam is considered the most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure. The three combinations of permanent load, wind load, and floor variable load include dead load + wind load, dead load + wind load + floor variable load, and dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load.

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A tank contains 2.2 kmol of a gas mixture with a gravimetric composition of 40% methane, 30% hydrogen, and the remainder is carbon monoxide. What is the mass of carbon monoxide in the mixture? Express your answer in kg.

Answers

A tank contains 2.2 kmol of a gas mixture with a gravimetric composition of 40% methane, 30% hydrogen, and the remainder is carbon monoxide.

What is the mass of carbon monoxide in the mixture?

The mass percentage of carbon monoxide in the mixture is;

mass % of CO = (100 - 40 - 30)

= 30%

That implies that 0.3(2.2) = 0.66 kmol of carbon monoxide is present in the mixture. Next, the molar mass of carbon monoxide (CO) is calculated:

Molar mass of CO

= (12.01 + 15.99) g/mol

= 28.01 g/mol

Therefore, the mass of carbon monoxide present in the mixture is

mass of CO

= (0.66 kmol) × (28.01 g/mol) × (1 kg / 1000 g)

= 0.0185 kg

From the problem, it is stated that a tank contains 2.2 kmol of a gas mixture. The composition of this mixture contains 40% of methane, 30% of hydrogen, and the remainder is carbon monoxide. Thus, the mass percentage of carbon monoxide in the mixture is given by mass % of CO = (100 - 40 - 30) = 30%. Hence, the quantity of carbon monoxide present in the mixture can be calculated.0.3(2.2) = 0.66 kmol of carbon monoxide is present in the mixture. Molar mass of carbon monoxide (CO) = (12.01 + 15.99) g/mol = 28.01 g/mol. Therefore, the mass of carbon monoxide present in the mixture is calculated. It is mass of CO =

(0.66 kmol) × (28.01 g/mol) × (1 kg / 1000 g) = 0.0185 kg

The mass of carbon monoxide present in the mixture is calculated as 0.0185 kg.

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Consider a rectangular parallelepiped of mass m = 3.203 kilogram and dimension b = 0.577 meter and l = 0.429 meter in an xy-plane that is connected by a linkage of length L3 = 0.52 meter from the top edge of the parallelepiped to a pivot at point O as shown in the diagram. Attached perpendicular to linkage L3 is another linkage composed of a linkage L1 = 0.544 meter and a linkage L2 = 0.357 meter, such that the linkage L3 is initially vertical and then rotates by a small angle . Connected to linkage L1 is a spring k = 1027.166 newtons/meter and a damper c = 607.811 newton-meter/second. It is known that the equation of motion mₑθ + cₑθ + kₑθ = 0 for the rotation of linkage me L3 takes the form
θ = A₁ₑ (-5+√5²-1) wnt +A₂e(-5-√5²-1)wnt when the motion is over-damped.
It is desired to determine numerical values of me Cₑ, kₑ, wn, S.
Find to 4 significant figures: wn

Answers

In the given problem, we are given the values of mass, dimensions, and linkages, and we have to find the numerical values of cₑ, kₑ, wn, and S. The given motion is over-damped, which means that the damping ratio is greater than 1. The equation of motion for the rotation of linkage L3 takes the form:

mₑθ + cₑθ + kₑθ = 0

where θ is the angle of rotation, cₑ is the damping constant, kₑ is the spring constant, and mₑ is the equivalent mass.

Using the formula for the natural frequency, we get:

wn = √(kₑ/mₑ)

To find the values of kₑ and mₑ, we need to find the equivalent spring constant and equivalent mass of the system. The equivalent spring constant of the system is given by:

1/kₑ = 1/k + 1/k₁ + 1/k₂

where k is the spring constant of linkage L3, and k₁ and k₂ are the spring constants of the two linkages L1 and L2, respectively.

Substituting the given values, we get:

1/kₑ = 1/0 + 1/1027.166 + 0

kₑ = 1027.166 N/m

The equivalent mass of the system is given by:

1/mₑ = 1/m + L₃²/2I

where I is the moment of inertia of the parallelepiped about its center of mass.

Substituting the given values, we get:

[tex]\frac{1}{m_e} = \frac{1}{3.203} + \left(\frac{0.52}{2}\right)^2 \frac{1}{2\times3.203\times\frac{(0.429)^2 + (0.577)^2}{12}}[/tex]

mₑ = 2.576 kg

Now we can find the value of wn as:

wn = √(kₑ/mₑ)

wn = √(1027.166/2.576)

wn = 57.48 rad/s

Therefore, the value of wn is 57.48 rad/s (to 4 significant figures).

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It was eight o'clock on Monday morning, March 15, 2010. A meeting was called to order by the safety and health officer, Hans, and attended by the building engineer, Mark, air-conditioning maintenance engineer, Manny, physician, Dr. Raissa, and nurse, Michelle, of Good Engineering Automotive Company. The main agenda of the meeting was to address the numerous complaints of the building occupants experiencing respiratory - related problems such as colds and cough, asthma attacks, and difficulty in breathing. The company physician reported that the increase in the number of the said health problems was unusual compared to the previous years. He added that the prevalent respiratory - related problems were usually occurring during rainy season and not during the present dry season. Mark quickly remarked that the temperature and relative humidity were just maintained and the cleaning of air-conditioner filters was regularly done. Hans asked, "How do we get to the bottom of this problem?" And there was a momentary silence. Good Engineering Automotive Company, located in the Laguna industrial zone, is an automotive manufacturing factory which employs 500 workers. The workforce consists primarily of skilled and semi-skilled workers, engineers, and support staff. The administration building houses the 50 employees in the various offices such as the executive offices, human resource department, finance department, and the medical/dental clinic. It is a two-story, 20 - year old building with a total floor area of 1000 sq. meters and serviced by a 50TR centralized air-conditioning plant. Recent assessment of the building showed that the fans are barely corroded and the ducting system needs upgrading due to its degradation. Part 1. The silence was broken when Hans requested Michelle to present her report on the concerned health issues of the employees. Based on her report, the health concerns were solely experienced by the occupants of the administration building. Most of them complained about experiencing headache, dizziness, colds and cough, asthma, light headedness and numbness of hands. Hans remarked that these issues warrant immediate attention since the productivity of these employees were definitely affected which might impact the business performance of the company. He suggested that an Indoor Air Quality (IAQ) survey of building occupants and measurement of parameters such as carbon dioxide concentration, temperature, and relative humidity should be done. He assigned Mark to lead the conduct of the survey and measurement of IAQ parameters. The committee members agreed to the suggestion to conduct the survey and monitor the IAQ parameters which would take one week and for the committee to reconvene after the assignment has been done. Questions: 1. What is the main concern in this case? 2. What led Hans to think that poor IAQ might be the primary cause of the health problems experienced by the occupants of the administration building? 3. What rule or canon in the Engineer's Code of Ethics obliges the committee to act fast to solve the health problems posed by poor IAQ? 4. If the health problems experienced by the building occupants do not pose serious threat to the business performance of the company, should the committee still act fast to solve the problem? Explain your answer and cite relevant rule/s in the Engineer's Code of Ethics.

Answers

1. The main concern in this case is the numerous complaints of the building occupants experiencing respiratory-related problems such as colds and cough, asthma attacks, and difficulty in breathing.

2. Hans thinks that poor IAQ might be the primary cause of the health problems experienced by the occupants of the administration building because recent assessment of the building showed that the fans are barely corroded and the ducting system needs upgrading due to its degradation. 3. The rule or canon in the Engineer's Code of Ethics that obliges the committee to act fast to solve the health problems posed by poor IAQ is the Engineer's Responsibility to Society.

4. Yes, the committee should still act fast to solve the problem even if the health problems experienced by the building occupants do not pose serious threat to the business performance of the company because engineers should prioritize public health and safety. Rule 4 of the Engineer's Code of Ethics states that "Engineers shall hold paramount the safety, health, and welfare of the public and the protection of the environment." Therefore, engineers must do everything they can to ensure that people are safe from hazards that may affect their health and welfare.

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Given a nominal hole size of 1.2500 and a Class 2 (free fit. The allowance (A)=.0020 and the shaft tolerance (T)= 0016, +0000. What is the nominal shaft size? a 1.2520 b 1.2516 c 1.2484 d 1.2480

Answers

The nominal shaft size can be calculated using the given data. Given a nominal hole size of 1.2500 and a Class 2 (free fit), the allowance (A) = 0.0020 and the shaft tolerance (T) = 0.0016, +0.0000.To find the nominal shaft size, we will add allowance and the upper limit of shaft tolerance to the nominal hole size.

The upper limit of shaft tolerance is T = +0.0016.Nominal shaft size = Nominal hole size + Allowance + Upper limit of Shaft Tolerance= 1.2500 + 0.0020 + 0.0016= 1.2536Therefore, the nominal shaft size is 1.2536 (Option E).

Shafts and holes are designed to work together as a mating pair. The fit of a shaft and hole determines the functionality of the part, such as its ability to transmit power and support loads.The two types of fits are clearance fit and interference fit.

A clearance fit is when there is space between the shaft and hole. An interference fit is when the shaft is larger than the hole, resulting in an interference between the two components.Both types of fits have their advantages and disadvantages. For instance, a clearance fit can allow for the easy assembly of parts, but it may cause misalignment or excessive play.

An interference fit can provide stability, but it can make it difficult to assemble parts. It can also increase the risk of damage or seizing.To ensure that the parts work together optimally, the designer must specify the tolerances for the shaft and hole. A tolerance is the range of acceptable variation from the nominal size.

The nominal size is the exact size of the shaft or hole.The tolerance for a fit is classified by a specific code. In this question, Class 2 fit is given. The tolerance for the shaft is given as T = 0.0016, +0.0000. This means that the shaft can be 0.0016 larger than the nominal size, but it cannot be smaller than the nominal size. The tolerance for the hole is given as A = 0.0020.

This means that the hole can be 0.0020 larger than the nominal size.The nominal shaft size can be calculated using the given data. To find the nominal shaft size, we will add allowance and the upper limit of shaft tolerance to the nominal hole size.

The upper limit of shaft tolerance is T = +0.0016.Nominal shaft size = Nominal hole size + Allowance + Upper limit of Shaft Tolerance= 1.2500 + 0.0020 + 0.0016= 1.2536Therefore, the nominal shaft size is 1.2536.Thus, the correct option is (E) 1.2536.

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Evaluate the following continuous-time convolution integral
y(t) = (u(t + 3) − u(t − 1)) * u( −t + 4)

Answers

The given continuous-time convolution integral is evaluated as follows: y(t) = (u(t + 3) − u(t − 1)) * u( −t + 4)The given signal has two signals u(t + 3) and u(t − 1) with unit step. This means that the signal will be 0 for all values of t < 3 and t > 1.

Therefore, the convolution integral becomes y(t) = ∫[u(τ + 3) − u(τ − 1)] u( −τ + 4) dτTaking u(τ + 3) as the first signal, then u( −τ + 4) is shifted by 3 units. This gives us:y(t) = ∫u(τ + 3) u( −τ + 4 − t) dτTaking u(τ − 1) as the second signal, then u( −τ + 4) is shifted by 1 unit. This gives us:y(t) = ∫u(τ − 1) u( −τ + 4 − t) dτNow, the signal is evaluated in two parts for the given unit step function: Part 1: t < 1y(t) = ∫[u(τ + 3) − u(τ − 1)] u( −τ + 4) dτ = 0Part 2: t > 3y(t) = ∫[u(τ + 3) − u(τ − 1)] u( −τ + 4) dτ = u(t − 4)Therefore, the final solution is:y(t) = 0 for 1 < t < 3 and y(t) = u(t − 4) for t > 3.

After one function has been shifted and reflected about the y-axis, its definition is the integral of the product of the two functions. The integral result is unaffected by the choice of which function is reflected and shifted prior to the integral (see commutativity).

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Problem 16 A random binary data sequence 010100011... has the same probability of 1 and 0, and will be transmitted at a rate Rs of 3000 bits by means of a line code using the following pulse shape: p(t)= n (t / 3Tb/4), while Tb = 1/Rb The line coder has an output broadband amplifier which can amplify the pulse peak to +1.2V, but it will also introduce a broadband white noise with the noise power special density (PSD) No = 2.5 x 10-6 W/Hz. To reduce the extra noise, an ideal low pass filter (LPF) is placed after the amplifier c) If the line code is polar code, determine the bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier, and then calculate the corresponding signal to noise ratio (SNR) in dB d) If the line code is using bipolar code, determine the bandwidth of the LPF needed, and then estimate the SNR in dB. (Hint: 1) using the first non-de null frequency of signal PSD as its bandwidth; 2) ignore the signal power loss introduced by the LPF, calculated the signal power directly from waveform; 3) noise power is calculated within the bandwidth of LPF. 4) The PSD of polar and bipolar codes are given as
polar : Sy(f) = l P(f)^2 / Tb
Bipolar : Sy(f) = l P(f)^2 / T Sin^2

Answers

If the line code is a polar code, the bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier is given as:

Bandwidth of the LPF, Bp = (1 + r) R/2Where R is the line rate (Rs) and r is the roll-off factor (0.5).

Therefore, Bp = (1 + 0.5) (3000 bits/s)/2 = 3375 Hz

Signal Power, Ps = (0.6)2 = 0.36V2 = 0.36/50 = 7.2 mW

Noise Power, Pn = No * Bp = 2.5 x 10-6 * 3375 = 8.44 x 10-3 WSNR(dB) = [tex]10 log (Ps/Pn) = 10 log (7.2 x 10-3 / 8.44 x 10-3) = -0.7385[/tex] dBPart

If the line code is bipolar code, the bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier is given as:

Bandwidth of the LPF, Bb = (1 + r/π) R/2Where R is the line rate (Rs), r is the roll-off factor (0.5), and Tsin is the time of the first null of the PSD of the bipolar code.

PSD of bipolar code, [tex]Sy(f) = l P(f)2 / T sin2Sy(f) = l P(f)2 / T sin2 = (0.6)2 / (2T sin)2 = > Tsin = 0.6/(2sqrt(Sy(f)T))[/tex]

Substituting the given values,[tex]Tsin = 0.6/(2sqrt(0.6 * 3000 * 1)) = 5.4772[/tex]

Therefore, Bb = (1 + r/π) R/2 = (1 + 0.5/π) (3000 bits/s)/2 = 3412.94 HzSignal Power, Ps = (0.6)2 = 0.36V2 = 0.36/50 = 7.2 mW

The bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier in bipolar code is 3412.94 Hz, and the corresponding SNR in dB is -0.8192 dB.

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weld metal, HAZ and base metal zones are distinguished based on
the microstructure formed. Explain using a phase diagram and heat
input so that the three zones above are formed.

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The weld metal, HAZ (Heat Affected Zone), and base metal zones are distinguished based on the microstructure formed. The phase diagram and heat input assist in explaining how the three zones above are formed. It is known that welding causes the formation of a Heat Affected Zone, which is a region of a metal where the structure and properties have been altered by heat.

During welding, the weld metal, HAZ, and base metal zones are created. Let's take a closer look at each of these zones: Weld metal zone: This zone is made up of the material that melts during the welding process and then re-solidifies. The microstructure of the weld metal zone is influenced by the chemical composition and the thermal cycles experienced during welding. In this zone, the heat input is high, resulting in fast cooling rates. This rapid cooling rate causes a structure called Martensite to form, which is a hard, brittle microstructure. The microstructure of this zone can be seen on the left side of the phase diagram.

Heat Affected Zone (HAZ): This zone is adjacent to the weld metal zone and is where the base metal has been heated but has not melted. The HAZ is formed when the base metal is exposed to elevated temperatures, causing the microstructure to be altered. The HAZ's microstructure is determined by the cooling rate and peak temperature experienced by the metal. The cooling rate and peak temperature are influenced by the amount of heat input into the metal. The microstructure of this zone can be seen in the middle section of the phase diagram. Base metal zone: This is the region of the metal that did not experience elevated temperatures and remained at ambient temperature during welding. Its microstructure remains unaffected by the welding process. The microstructure of this zone can be seen on the right side of the phase diagram.

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A Carnot engine requires 35 kJ/s from the hot source. The engine produces 15 kW of power and the temperature of the sinks is 26°C. What is the temperature of the hot source in °C?

Answers

The temperature of the hot source is approximately 250.46 °C, determined by Carnot efficiency formula.

To determine the temperature of the hot source in °C, we can use the Carnot efficiency formula: Efficiency = 1 - (Tc/Th)

where Efficiency is the ratio of useful work output to the heat input, Tc is the temperature of the cold sink, and Th is the temperature of the hot source.

Given:

Power output of the engine = 15 kW = 15000 W

Heat input from the hot source = 35 kJ/s = 35000 W

Temperature of the cold sink (Tc) = 26°C = 26 + 273.15 K = 299.15 K

We can rearrange the Carnot efficiency formula to solve for Th:

Efficiency = 1 - (Tc/Th)

Th = Tc / (1 - Efficiency)

Efficiency is the ratio of the power output to the heat input:

Efficiency = Power output / Heat input

Plugging in the values, we have:

Efficiency = 15000 W / 35000 W = 0.4286

Now, we can calculate the temperature of the hot source:

Th = 299.15 K / (1 - 0.4286) = 299.15 K / 0.5714 = 523.61 K

Converting this to Celsius:

Temperature of the hot source = 523.61 K - 273.15 = 250.46 °C

Therefore, the temperature of the hot source is approximately 250.46 °C.

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Describe the basic Microwave transmission system and give the
importance of each component in the system.

Answers

Microwave transmission is a method of transmitting electromagnetic radiation consisting of radio waves with wavelengths ranging from one millimeter to one meter. To facilitate the transmission of microwave signals, a microwave transmission system is employed. The basic components of a microwave transmission system are as follows:

1. Transmitter:

The transmitter modulates the signals and converts them into a suitable frequency for transmission. It prepares the signals to be sent to the antenna.

2. Antenna:

The antenna plays a crucial role in the transmission process. It converts the modulated signals into electromagnetic waves, which are then propagated through space. These waves are received by the antenna at the receiving end.

3. Duplexer:

The duplexer is responsible for enabling the transmitter and receiver to use the same antenna at different times without causing interference. It ensures the efficient sharing of the antenna resources.

4. Receiver:

The receiver receives the transmitted signals from the antenna. It performs the necessary functions to convert the signals into a suitable frequency for demodulation.

5. Demodulator:

The demodulator is an essential component that reverses the modulation process. It converts the received signals back to their original form, making them usable for further processing or interpretation.

Each component in the microwave transmission system plays a crucial role in ensuring the quality and reliability of the transmitted signals. The transmitter prepares the signals for transmission, the antenna facilitates the propagation, the duplexer enables efficient sharing, the receiver captures the signals, and the demodulator restores them to their original form. Together, these components ensure that the transmitted signals maintain their integrity and are suitable for various applications.

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find the teeth number of the bevel gear
gear ratio=2
pressure angle=20 degree
full depth teeth (k=1)

Answers

The teeth number of the bevel gear is approximately 21.

To find the teeth number of the bevel gear, the gear ratio, pressure angle, and full depth teeth (k = 1) are given. Here are the steps to find the teeth number:

Calculate the pitch cone angle of the bevel gear.The pitch cone angle is given as π/2 or 90 degrees for straight bevel gears.

However, for a spiral bevel gear, it will be greater than π/2. This can be calculated using the formula:

Pitch cone angle = arctan (tan (pressure angle) / gear ratio)

For this problem, the gear ratio is given as 2 and the pressure angle is given as 20 degrees.

Pitch cone angle = arctan (tan (20) / 2) = 9.4624 degrees

Calculate the base cone angle of the bevel gear.

The base cone angle is given as the pitch cone angle plus the angle of the tooth face.

For full-depth teeth (k = 1), the angle of the tooth face is equal to the pressure angle. This can be calculated using the formula:

Base cone angle = pitch cone angle + pressure angleFor this problem, the pressure angle is given as 20 degrees.

Base cone angle = 9.4624 + 20 = 29.4624 degrees

Calculate the teeth number of the bevel gear.The teeth number of the bevel gear can be calculated using the formula:

Teeth number = (module * reference diameter) / cos (base cone angle)For full-depth teeth (k = 1), the module is equal to the reference diameter divided by the number of teeth.

This can be expressed as:

module = reference diameter / teeth number

Therefore, the formula can be rewritten as:

Teeth number = reference diameter^2 / (module * pitch * cos (base cone angle))

For this problem, the module is not given. However, we can assume a module of 1 for simplicity. The reference diameter can be calculated using the formula:Reference diameter = (teeth number + 2) / module

For a module of 1, the reference diameter is equal to the teeth number plus 2.

Therefore, the formula can be rewritten as:

Teeth number = (teeth number + 2)^2 / (pitch * cos (base cone angle))

Solving this equation gives the teeth number as approximately 21.

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