i'm not sure what's the answer?
:)​

Answer:

15 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is C. 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

question please

Step-by-step explanation:

1; x <-2 (this one has the line under the sign)

2;x>2

3;x-2<0

4;2<x ( this one has the line under the sign)

5; -2<x

Answer:

-18 + 3k

3k - 6

24k - 48

Step-by-step explanation:

thats just to name a few of the infinite possibilites

Answer:

20%, 40%, 60%, 80%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

i know d is inccorect

Answer:

she will need to buy 360 candy canes :>

merry christmas! and brainliest pls i needit and i hate to beg

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The answer is 360

Step-by-step explanation: 15 x 24 = 360

Answer:

its a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

f^-1(4) = 2

f^-1(-5) = -4

f^-1(0) = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the inverse of the function, we simply switch the places of x and y

You simply find the value given on the y-axis and trace to the x-axis

Thus, we have the following ;

f^-1(4) = 2

f^-1(-5) = -4

f^-1(0) = 0

Answer:

2

-4

0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: HL

Step-by-step explanation: Because I passed this on Acellus

Triangle ABD and ACD are congruent based on HL congruence theorem

Two figures are said to be congruent of they have the same shape and all the corresponding sides and angles are congruent.

The HL (hypotenuse leg) congruence theorem states that if the hypotenuse and one leg of a triangle is congruent to another triangle, then both triangles are congruent.

In triangle ABD and ACD;

BD = CD and AD ≅ AD

Hence Triangle ABD and ACD are congruent based on HL congruence theorem

Find out more on congruent figures at: https://brainly.com/question/1675117

Answer:

A,B,E

Step-by-step explanation:

I checked on the usa test prep and its what those three

The options satisfying expressions that result to zero are,

A. - 52 + 52.

E. - 83 - ( - 83).

A number's additive inverse is a number that is added to it until the result is zero.

A number multiplied by another such that the result is 1 is the multiplicative inverse of that number.

A number added to it's additive inverse results to zero.

From the given options the only options that satisfies the result to be zero

are,

- 52 + 52.

- 83 - (- 83).

= - 83 + 83.

As the negative signs distribute to make it a positive number.

learn more about additive and multiplicative inverses here :

https://brainly.com/question/13715269

#SPJ2

Answer:

32.50

Step-by-step explanation:

It is simple. You need to know the basics of money, fractions, and well... Math! :)

if you take 13 and multiply it by 2 you get 26

Take the 26 and put it aside ------------->         26

divide 13 in half. that would be 6.50

6.50 + 6.50 = 13      

Now get the 26 -------------------------->  26

and add 6.50 to 26.

That would be 32.50!

Please make sure to follow and like! :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

use the formula

tanФ⁻¹ = y/x

where y = 3

           x = 9

plugin values into the formula:

tanФ⁻¹ = y/x

           = 3/9

tanФ⁻¹ = 0.3

     Ф = inv. tan 0.3

     Ф = 18.4°

therefore, the angle D = 18.4°

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

y = mx + b

m is the slope and b is the y-intercept

Answer:

its 4/24 :)))))))))))))))))

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

first, you want to graph your points on a graph. A really good online graphing calculator i like is called desmos.

next, slope is rise over run. count how many units up or down from leftmost point to the other. in this case it is -8.

third, find the run part of the slope by counting units right or left from the leftmost point to the other. in this case it is 4.

last, but the two numbers together in a fraction and simplify. rise over run.

-8/4 which simplifies to -2/1 which is the same thing as -2

Answer:

62

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 149 = 180 so

x = 31

y + 149 = 180 so

y = 31

31 + 31 = 62

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{32}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

According to Reese's model, let the head of the coin represent male, and the tail represents female. The outcome can either be a male or a female.

Total outcome = 2

pr(male) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

pr(female) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Therefore the probability of male equals the probability of females i.e [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex].

Therefore,

pr(a litter of 5 puppies will be males) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

                                                           = [tex]\frac{1}{32}[/tex]

According to Reese's model, the probability that a litter of 5 puppies will be males is [tex]\frac{1}{32}[/tex].

Answer:

I think that it's 1/32 if i'm not right pleas tell me.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

fbhbgdbd

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-360

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it right

Answer:

B ; Point B

Step-by-step explanation:

ok to be honest I really don't know

Answer:

128.39

Step-by-step explanation:

37% -----> 0.37 x 347= 128.39

Answer:

Always

Step-by-step explanation:

An equiangular triangle is a triangle with three congruent interior angles. The angles of any triangle add up to 180 degrees. With three angles in a triangle that are all equal, this means each angle is 60 degrees (because 180 divided by 3 is 60).

An Acute triangle is a triangle with all of its angles being something less than 90 degrees. Since an equiangular triangle's angles all measure as 60 degrees, then the statement in the question is always true.