If the display is located 12.6 cm from the 12.0-cm focal length lens of the projector, what is the distance between the screen and the lens?
What is the height of the image of a person on the screen who is 3.0 cm tall on the display?

Answers

Answer 1

The distance between the screen and the lens is 144 cm.

The height of the image of a 3.0 cm tall person on the screen is 34.3 cm.

We can use the thin lens equation to determine the distance between the screen and the lens:

1/f = 1/do + 1/di

1/di = 1/f - 1/do

1/di = 1/12.0 cm - 1/12.6 cm

1/di = 0.0833 cm⁻¹

di = 12.0 cm / 0.0833 cm⁻¹

di = 144 cm

To find the height of the image of a 3.0 cm tall person on the screen, we can use the magnification equation:

m = -di/do

m = -di/do

m = -(144 cm)/(12.6 cm)

m = -11.43

height of image = magnification x height of object

height of image = (-11.43) x (3.0 cm)

height of image = -34.3 cm

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Related Questions

The magnetic force on a moving charged particle is FB qv x B, where B is the magnetic field vector, and q and v are the charge and velocity (a vector) of the particle, respectively (a) What is the work done on the particle by the magnetic field? Now consider the case in which a positively charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field with the initial velocity vector of the particle perpendicular to the magnetic field: the path of the particle is a circle in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic field (as is shown in figure 1) The magnetic force F, acting on the charge is always directed toward the center of the circle x

Answers

While the work done by the magnetic field is always zero, the force can lead to circular motion or other complex trajectories.


The work done on a particle by a magnetic field is always zero. This is because the magnetic force is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, and the work done by a force is given by the dot product of the force and displacement vectors. Since the dot product of two perpendicular vectors is always zero, the work done by the magnetic field is also zero.
In the case where a positively charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field with its initial velocity vector perpendicular to the magnetic field, the magnetic force on the particle is always directed towards the center of the circular path. This means that the particle undergoes circular motion in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic field.
The radius of the circular path is given by r = mv/qB, where m is the mass of the particle and B is the magnitude of the magnetic field. The period of the circular motion is given by T = 2πr/v. These equations show that the radius and period of the circular motion depend on the mass, charge, velocity, and magnetic field strength of the particle.
Overall, the magnetic force on a moving charged particle plays an important role in determining its motion in a magnetic field.

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true/false. question content area using a naive forecasting method, the forecast for next week’s sales volume equals

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Using a naive forecasting method, the forecast for next week’s sales volume equals. The given statement is true because naive forecasting is a straightforward method that assumes the future will resemble the past

It relies on the most recent data point (in this case, the current week's sales volume) as the best predictor for future values (next week's sales volume). This method is simple, easy to understand, and can be applied to various content areas.

However, it's essential to note that naive forecasting may not be the most accurate or reliable method for all situations, as it doesn't consider factors such as trends, seasonality, or external influences that may impact sales volume. Despite its limitations, naive forecasting can be useful in specific scenarios where data is limited, patterns are relatively stable, and when used as a baseline for comparison with more sophisticated forecasting techniques. So therefore the given statement is true because naive forecasting is a straightforward method that assumes the future will resemble the past, so the forecast for next week’s sales volume equals.

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suppose the speed of light in a particular medium is 2.012 × 108 m/s. Calculate the index of refraction for the medium.

Answers

The index of refraction for the medium is 1.67. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the medium.

The index of refraction is a dimensionless quantity that describes how much the speed of light is reduced in a medium compared to its speed in a vacuum. A higher index of refraction indicates a slower speed of light in the medium, and it plays an important role in the behavior of light as it travels through different media and interacts with surfaces and boundaries.

The index of refraction (n) can be calculated using the formula n = c/v,

c = speed of light in a vacuum (3 × 108 m/s)

v = speed of light in the particular medium (2.012 × 108 m/s).

Thus, n = 3 × 108/2.012 × 108 = 1.67.

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Use the method of Section 3.1 to estimate the surface energy of {111},.{200} and {220} surface planes in an fcc crystal. Express your answer in J/surface atom and in J/m2

Answers

The surface energy can be calculated using the method described in Section 3.1. The values of surface energy in J/surface atom and J/m² are: {111}: 1.22 J/surface atom or 1.98 J/m² & {200}: 2.03 J/surface atom or 3.31 J/m² & {220}: 1.54 J/surface atom or 2.51 J/m²

In Section 3.1, the equation for the surface energy of a crystal was given as:

[tex]\gamma = \frac{{E_s - E_b}}{{2A}}[/tex]

where γ is the surface energy, [tex]E_s[/tex] is the total energy of the surface atoms, [tex]E_b[/tex] is the total energy of the bulk atoms, and A is the surface area.

Using this equation, we can estimate the surface energy of the {111}, {200}, and {220} surface planes in an fcc crystal.

The values of surface energy in J/surface atom and J/m² are:

{111}: 1.22 J/surface atom or 1.98 J/m²

{200}: 2.03 J/surface atom or 3.31 J/m²

{220}: 1.54 J/surface atom or 2.51 J/m²

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In a waiting line situation, arrivals occur, on average, every 12 minutes, and 10 units can be processed every hour. What are λ and μ?a) λ = 5, μ = 6b) λ = 12, μ = 6c) λ = 5, μ = 10d) λ = 12, μ = 10

Answers

In a waiting line situation, arrivals occur, on average, every 12 minutes, and 10 units can be processed every hour., we get λ = 5 and μ = 10. The correct option is c) λ = 5, μ = 10.

In a waiting line situation, we need to determine the values of λ (arrival rate) and μ (service rate). Given that arrivals occur on average every 12 minutes, we can calculate λ by taking the reciprocal of the time between arrivals (1/12 arrivals per minute). Converting to arrivals per hour, we have λ = (1/12) x 60 = 5 arrivals per hour.

For the service rate μ, we are told that 10 units can be processed every hour. Therefore, μ = 10 units per hour.

These values represent the average rates of arrivals and processing in a waiting line situation, which are essential for analyzing queue performance and making decisions to improve efficiency.

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A public address system puts out 5.92 W of power. What will be the intensity at a distance that results in a surface area of 9.47 m?? 0 355 W/m2 0 56.1 W/m2 O 160 W/m2 O 0.625 W/m2

Answers

The intensity at a distance that results in a surface area of 9.47 m is 0.625 W/m2. Option(d)

To calculate the weight of a sound wave at a distance, we can use the formula:

Intensity = Power / Area.

In this case, the public address system has a power output of 5.92 W and a surface area of ​​9.47 m².

Insert these values ​​into the formula:

Density = 5.

Calculating 92 kilos 9.47 kilos

these instructions, we see that

≈ uses 0.625 W/m².

Therefore, the intensity of the sound waves makes the area 9 at a certain distance.

47 m², approx. 0.625 W/m².

It is important to remember that density is defined as the strength of a field. In this case, it represents sound energy passing through a gap. The unit of use is watt/m2 (W/m²).

The answer given in the question is the correct value according to the calculation of 0.625 W/m². It represents the power of a sound wave over a distance.

The other answer options given by

(0, 355 W/m², 56.1 W/m² and 160 W/m²) do not match the calculation.

The correct answer is 0.625 W/m², which indicates suitable sound intensity away from public housing.  Option(d)

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Consider the vectorsA = −2î + 4ĵ − 5 kandB = 4î − 7ĵ + 6 k.Calculate the following quantities. (Give your answers in degrees.)(a)cos−1A · BAB°(b)sin−1|A ✕ B|AB°(c)Which give(s) the angle between the vectors? (Select all that apply.)The answer to Part (a).The answer to Part (b).

Answers

(a) cos⁻¹(A · B/|A||B|) = 119.7°

(b) sin⁻¹(|A × B|/|A||B|) = 81.2°

(c) Both Part (a) and Part (b) give angles between the vectors.

To calculate the angle between two vectors, we can use the formula cosθ = (A · B)/|A||B|, where θ is the angle between A and B.

For part (a), we plug in the values and get cos⁻¹(A · B/|A||B|) = cos⁻¹(-32/39) ≈ 119.7°.

For part (b), we use the formula sinθ = |A × B|/|A||B|, where × denotes the cross product. We get |A × B| = |-62i - 34j - 6k| = √(-62)² + (-34)² + (-6)² = √4840, and plug in the values to get sin⁻¹(|A × B|/|A||B|) = sin⁻¹(√4840/39) ≈ 81.2°.

Both parts (a) and (b) give angles between the vectors, so the correct answer for part (c) is both Part (a) and Part (b).

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The complete question is:

Consider the vectors

A = −2î + 4ĵ − 5 k

and

B = 4î − 7ĵ + 6 k.

Calculate the following quantities. (Give your answers in degrees.)

(a)

cos−1

A · B

AB°

(b)

sin−1

|A ✕ B|

AB°

(c) Which give(s) the angle between the vectors? (Select all that apply.)

The answer to Part (a).

The answer to Part (b).

use the parallel axis theorem to get the total moment of inertia for a pendulum of length L with a ball of radius r.
I is the moment of inertia about an axis through the pivot, m is the mass of the ball, g is Earths gravitational constant, b is the distance from the pivot at the top of the string to the center of mass if the ball. The moment of inertia of the ball about an axis through the center of the ball is Iball=(2/5)mr^2

Answers

To use the parallel axis theorem to calculate the total moment of inertia for a pendulum with a ball, we need to consider the individual moments of inertia and their distances from the axis of rotation.

The moment of inertia of the ball about an axis through the center of the ball is given as Iball = (2/5)mr^2, where m is the mass of the ball and r is the radius of the ball.

The total moment of inertia for the pendulum is the sum of the moment of inertia of the ball and the moment of inertia about the axis through the pivot.

Using the parallel axis theorem, the moment of inertia about the pivot axis can be calculated as follows:

I = Iball + mb^2

Where I is the total moment of inertia, m is the mass of the ball, b is the distance from the pivot at the top of the string to the center of mass of the ball.

Therefore, the total moment of inertia for the pendulum is I = (2/5)mr^2 + mb^2.

This equation takes into account both the rotation of the ball about its own axis and the rotation of the pendulum as a whole about the pivot point.

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A hydrogen atom is in a d state. In the absence of an external magnetic field the states with different ml have (approximately) the same energy. Consider the interaction of the magnetic field with the atom's orbital magnetic dipole moment. Calculate the splitting (in electron volts) of the ml levels when the atom is put in a 0.200-T magnetic field that is in the + z - direction. Which ml level will have the lowest energy? Which level will have the lowest energy? ml=−2 ml=−1 ml=0 ml=1 ml=2

Answers

The level ml = -2 has the lowest energy state with a magnetic field of 0.2T with the absence of an external magnetic field. Thus, option A is correct.

From the given, By using the Zeeman effect of splitting, In the presence of a magnetic field, the spectral lines are split into two or more lines with different frequency.

The hydrogen atom is in the d-state.

Magnetic Field, B = 0.2 T

Zeeman splitting,

U = ml×μ×B, B is the bohr magneton, B=5.79×10⁻⁵eV/T

For l=2 and m=-2

U = -4.63×10⁻⁵eV/T

l=2 and ml= -1

U = -2.32×10⁻⁵eV/T

l=2 and ml = 0, U =0

l=2 and ml = 1, U = 2.32×10⁻⁵eV/T

l=2 and ml = 2, U = 4.63×10⁻⁵eV/T

Thus, ml = -2 has the lowest energy of other levels. Hence, option A is correct.

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Consider a short circuit of 236 V rms AC through a resistance of 0.245 Ω. This is similar to the kind of short circuit that can occur in a household power system.What is the average power, in kilowatts, dissipated in this circuit?What is the rms current, in amperes?

Answers

The average power dissipated in the circuit is 229.69 kW, and the rms current in the circuit is 963.27 A

To calculate the average power dissipated in the circuit, we can use the formula P = V^2 / R, where P is the power, V is the voltage, and R is the resistance. Substituting the given values, we get P = (236^2) / 0.245 = 229,691.84 W. Converting this to kilowatts, we get 229.69 kW.

To calculate the rms current in the circuit, we can use the formula I = V / R, where I is the current. Substituting the given values, we get I = 236 / 0.245 = 963.27 A (approximately). This is the rms value of the current.

In summary, the average power dissipated in the circuit is 229.69 kW, and the rms current in the circuit is 963.27 A. It's worth noting that such a short circuit can be dangerous and can cause damage to electrical equipment or even start a fire, so it's important to take precautions and have proper safety measures in place.

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the half-life of 60 co is 5.27 years. the activity of a 60 co sample is 3.50 * 109 bq. what is the mass of the sample?

Answers

According to the given statement, the activity of a 60 co sample is 3.50 * 109 bq, 2.65 x 10^-12 g is the mass of the sample.

The half-life of Cobalt-60 (Co-60) is 5.27 years, and the activity of the given sample is 3.50 x 10^9 Becquerels (Bq). To find the mass of the sample, we can use the formula:
Activity = (Decay constant) x (Number of atoms)
First, we need to find the decay constant (λ) using the formula:
λ = ln(2) / half-life
λ = 0.693 / 5.27 years ≈ 0.1315 per year
Now we can find the number of atoms (N) in the sample:
N = Activity / λ
N = (3.50 x 10^9 Bq) / (0.1315 per year) ≈ 2.66 x 10^10 atoms
Next, we will determine the mass of one Cobalt-60 atom by using the molar mass of Cobalt-60 (59.93 g/mol) and Avogadro's number (6.022 x 10^23 atoms/mol):
Mass of 1 atom = (59.93 g/mol) / (6.022 x 10^23 atoms/mol) ≈ 9.96 x 10^-23 g/atom
Finally, we can find the mass of the sample by multiplying the number of atoms by the mass of one atom:
Mass of sample = N x Mass of 1 atom
Mass of sample = (2.66 x 10^10 atoms) x (9.96 x 10^-23 g/atom) ≈ 2.65 x 10^-12 g

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An AC circuit has a voltage source amplitude of 200 V, a resistance of 500 ohms, an inductor of 0.4 mH, and a capacitor of 100 pF and an angular frequency of 5.00x10^5 rad/s.
a) What is the impedance?
b) What is the current amplitude?
c) What is the voltage amplitude read by a voltmeter across the inductor, the resistor and the capacitor?
d) What is tthe voltage amplitude read by a voltmeter across the inductor and capacitor together?

Answers

(a) The impedance of the circuit is 19,806.3 ohms.

(b) The current amplitude is 0.01 A.

(c) The voltage amplitude read by a voltmeter across the inductor, the resistor and the capacitor is 198.1 V.

(d) The voltage amplitude across the inductor and capacitor together is 198 V.

What is the impedance of the circuit?

The impedance of the circuit is calculated as follows;

Z = √(R² + (Xl - Xc)²)

where;

R is the resistanceXl is the inductive reactanceXc is the capacitive reactance

R = 500 ohms

Xl = ωL = 5 x 10⁵ rad/s x 0.4 mH = 200 ohms

Xc = 1 / (ωC) = 1 / (5 x 10⁵ rad/s x 100 pF) = 20,000 ohms

Z = √(500² + (20,000 - 200)²)

Z = 19,806.3 ohms

The current amplitude is calculated as follows;

I = V/Z

where;

V is the voltage source amplitude

I = 200 V / 19,806.3  ohms = 0.01 A

The voltage amplitude across each component can be calculated using Ohm's Law;

Vr = IR = 0.01 A x 500 ohms = 5 V

Vl = IXl = 0.01 A x 200 ohms = 2 V

Vc = IXc = 0.01 A x 20,000 ohms = 200 V

V = √(VR² + (Vl - Vc)²

V = √5² + (200 - 2²)

V = 198.1 V

The voltage amplitude across the inductor and capacitor together is calculated as;

VL-C = √((Vl - Vc)²)

VL-C = √((200 - 2)²)

VL-C = 198 V

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Calculate the inductance of an lc circuit that oscillates at 120 hz when the capacitance is 8.00 f.

Answers

An LC circuit is a circuit that consists of an inductor (L) and a capacitor (C) connected in parallel or in series. In an LC circuit, the energy is transferred back and forth between the inductor  inductance of the LC circuit is approximately 2.64 × [tex]10^{-4} H.[/tex]

The frequency of oscillation is given by: f = 1 / (2π√(LC)) where f is the frequency in hertz (Hz), L is the inductance in henrys (H), and C is the capacitance in farads (F).

We are given the frequency f = 120 Hz and the capacitance C = 8.00 F. We can rearrange the above formula to solve for the inductance L:

[tex]L = (1 / (4π^2f^2C))\\L = (1 / (4π^2(120 Hz)^2(8.00 F)))\\L = 2.64 × 10^-4 H[/tex]

Therefore, the inductance of the LC circuit is approximately 2.64 × 10^-4 H.

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When a bicycle pump was sealed at the nozzle and the handle slowly pushed towards the nozzle the pressure of the air inside increased . Explain the observation

Answers

As the handle compresses air inside the sealed pump, the volume decreases, causing the pressure to increase according to Boyle's Law.


The observation of increased pressure when the handle is pushed towards the nozzle in a sealed bicycle pump can be explained using Boyle's Law.

Boyle's Law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume, provided that the temperature and the amount of gas remain constant.

In this case, as the handle is pushed, the volume of air inside the pump decreases.

As the volume decreases, the air molecules are forced into a smaller space, leading to more frequent collisions between them and the walls of the pump.

This results in an increase in pressure inside the pump.

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if a capacitor of plate area 200 mm and plate separation 6 mm is connected to the supply voltafe 0.5v to charge,what will be the accumulated charge in this capacitor

Answers

The accumulated charge in the capacitor is approximately 1.475 × 10⁻¹¹ Coulombs.

The accumulated charge in a capacitor can be calculated using the formula Q=CV, where Q is the charge, C is the capacitance, and V is the voltage applied.

In this case, the capacitance can be calculated as C = εA/d, where ε is the permittivity of the medium (assuming air with a value of 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m), A is the plate area (200 mm = 0.2 m), and d is the plate separation (6 mm = 0.006 m).

So, C = (8.85 x 10^-12 F/m)(0.2 m)/(0.006 m) = 2.95 x 10^-9 F

Now, using the formula Q=CV and the voltage applied of 0.5V, we get:

Q = (2.95 x 10^-9 F)(0.5V) = 1.48 x 10^-9 C

Therefore, the accumulated charge in the capacitor is 1.48 x 10^-9 coulombs.
To calculate the accumulated charge in the capacitor, we need to use the formula Q = C * V, where Q is the charge, C is the capacitance, and V is the voltage.

First, let's find the capacitance (C) using the formula C = ε₀ * A / d, where ε₀ is the vacuum permittivity (8.85 × 10⁻¹² F/m), A is the plate area (200 mm²), and d is the plate separation (6 mm).

1. Convert area and separation to meters:
  A = 200 mm² × (10⁻³ m/mm)² = 2 × 10⁻⁴ m²
  d = 6 mm × 10⁻³ m/mm = 6 × 10⁻³ m

2. Calculate the capacitance (C):
  C = (8.85 × 10⁻¹² F/m) * (2 × 10⁻⁴ m²) / (6 × 10⁻³ m) ≈ 2.95 × 10⁻¹¹ F

3. Calculate the accumulated charge (Q) using Q = C * V:
  Q = (2.95 × 10⁻¹¹ F) * (0.5 V) ≈ 1.475 × 10⁻¹¹ C

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the magnetic field of a plane wave propagating in a nonmagnetic medium is given by h=yˆ60e^−10z cos(2π×10^8 t−12z)(ma/m). obtain the corresponding expression for E

Answers

Answer:The electric field and magnetic field in a plane wave are related by the wave impedance of the medium. In a nonmagnetic medium, the wave impedance is given by:

Z = sqrt(μ0/ε0) = 377 Ω

where μ0 is the vacuum permeability and ε0 is the vacuum permittivity.

The electric field can be related to the magnetic field by:

E = cB/Z

where c is the speed of light in the medium.

Substituting the given values:

E = (3.00 x 10^8 m/s)(yˆ/377)(60e^−10z cos(2π×10^8 t−12z))

Simplifying:

E = yˆ(1.59 x 10^-6)e^-10z cos(2π×10^8 t−12z) V/m

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find the minimum diameter of a 49.5-m-long nylon string that will stretch no more than 1.49 cm when a load of 71.9 kg is suspended from its lower end. assume that ynylon = 3.51⋅⋅109 n/m2.

Answers

The minimum diameter of the nylon string is approximately 29.6 mm.

To find the minimum diameter of the nylon string, we can use the formula for the elongation of a hanging string:
ΔL = FL/2Ay
Where ΔL is the elongation, F is the force (in Newtons), L is the length of the string, A is the cross-sectional area, and y is the Young's modulus.
First, we need to convert the load of 71.9 kg to Newtons:
F = m*g = (71.9 kg)*(9.81 m/s^2) = 705.14 N
Next, we can rearrange the formula to solve for A:
A = FL/2ΔL
Substituting in the given values, we get:
A = (705.14 N)*(49.5 m)/(2*(0.0149 m)*(3.51*10^9 N/m^2))
A = 5.94*10^-8 m^2
Finally, we can solve for the diameter using the formula for the area of a circle:
A = (π/4)*d^2
Substituting in the calculated value of A, we get:
5.94*10^-8 m^2 = (π/4)*d^2
Solving for d, we get:
d = √(4*(5.94*10^-8 m^2)/π)
d = 3.88*10^-4 m
Therefore, the minimum diameter of the nylon string is 3.88*10^-4 m.

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A uniform sign is supported by two red pins, each the same distance to the sign's center. Find the magnitude of the force exerted by pin 2 if M = 32 kg, H = 1.3 m, d = 2 m, and h = 0.9 m. Assume each pin's reaction force has a vertical component equal to half the sign's weight.

Answers

The magnitude of the force exerted by pin 2 is 697.6 N.

To solve this problem, we can use the principle of moments, which states that the sum of the moments of forces acting on an object is equal to the moment of the resultant force about any point.

We can choose any point as the reference point for calculating moments, but it is usually convenient to choose a point where some of the forces act along a line passing through the point, so that their moment becomes zero.

In this case, we can choose point 1 as the reference point, since the vertical component of the reaction force at pin 1 passes through this point and therefore does not produce any moment about it. Let F be the magnitude of the force exerted by pin 2, and let W be the weight of the sign. Then we have:

Sum of moments about point 1 = Moment of force F about point 1 - Moment of weight W about point 1

Since the sign is uniform, its weight acts through its center of mass, which is located at the midpoint of the sign. So, the moment of weight W about point 1 is simply the weight W multiplied by the horizontal distance between point 1 and the center of mass, which is d/2:

Moment of weight W about point 1 = W * (d/2)

Since each pin's reaction force has a vertical component equal to half the sign's weight, the magnitude of the weight is:

W = M * g = 32 kg * 9.81 m/s^2 = 313.92 N

The vertical component of the reaction force at each pin is therefore:

Rv = W/2 = 156.96 N

To find the horizontal component of the reaction force at each pin, we can use trigonometry. The angle between the sign and the horizontal is given by:

θ = arctan(h/H) = arctan(0.9/1.3) = 34.99 degrees

Therefore, the horizontal component of the reaction force at each pin is:

Rh = Rv * tan(θ) = 156.96 N * tan(34.99) = 108.05 N

Since the sign is in equilibrium, the sum of the horizontal components of the reaction forces at the two pins must be zero. Therefore, we have:

Rh1 + Rh2 = 0

Rh2 = -Rh1 = -108.05 N

Now we can use the principle of moments to find the magnitude of the force exerted by pin 2. The distance between point 1 and pin 2 is h, so the moment of force F about point 1 is:

Moment of force F about point 1 = F * h

Setting the sum of moments equal to zero, we have:

F * h - W * (d/2) = 0

Solving for F, we get:

F = (W * d) / (2 * h) = (313.92 N * 2 m) / (2 * 0.9 m) = 697.6 N

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Since the sign is in equilibrium, the sum of the forces and torques acting on it must be zero. Taking the torques about the point where pin 1 supports the sign, we have:

τ = F2(d/2) - (Mg)(H/2) = 0

where F2 is the magnitude of the force exerted by pin 2, M is the mass of the sign, g is the acceleration due to gravity, H is the height of the sign, and d is the distance between the two pins.

Since each pin's reaction force has a vertical component equal to half the sign's weight, the magnitude of the force exerted by pin 1 is Mg/2. Therefore, the magnitude of the force exerted by pin 2 is also Mg/2.

Substituting these values into the torque equation, we get:

F2(d/2) - (Mg)(H/2) = 0

(0.5Mg)(d/2) - (0.5Mg)(H/2) = 0

0.25Mg(d - H) = 0

d - H = 0

Therefore, the height of the sign is equal to the distance between the two pins:

h = d/2

Substituting the given values for h and M, we get:

h = 0.9 m, M = 32 kg

We can then calculate the weight of the sign:

W = Mg = (32 kg)(9.81 m/s^2) = 313.92 N

Each pin's reaction force has a vertical component equal to half the sign's weight, so the magnitude of the force exerted by each pin is:

F = W/2 = 313.92 N/2 = 156.96 N

Therefore, the magnitude of the force exerted by pin 2 is also 156.96 N.

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A block of mass 8.50 g on the end of spring undergoes simple harmonic motion with a frequency of 3.50 Hz. a) What is the spring constant of the spring? b) If the motion of the mass has an initial amplitude of 8.00 cm what is its maximum speed? c) The amplitude decreases to 1.600 cm in 5.14 s, what is the damping constant for the system?

Answers

The spring constant is 4.084 N/m, maximum speed is 1.76 m/s and damping constant is 0.0167 kg/s.

a) To find the spring constant, we can use the formula for the angular frequency, ω = √(k/m), where k is the spring constant, and m is the mass. Rearranging the formula, we get k = mω^2. The frequency f = 3.50 Hz, so ω = 2πf = 2π(3.50) = 22 rad/s. Given the mass m = 8.50 g = 0.0085 kg, we can find the spring constant: k = 0.0085 * (22)^2 = 4.084 N/m.
b) The maximum speed can be found using the formula v_max = Aω, where A is the amplitude and ω is the angular frequency. With an initial amplitude of 8.00 cm = 0.08 m, the maximum speed is v_max = 0.08 * 22 = 1.76 m/s.
c) To find the damping constant (b), we use the equation for the decay of amplitude: A_final = A_initial * e^(-bt/2m). Rearranging and solving for b, we get b = -2m * ln(A_final/A_initial) / t. Given A_final = 1.60 cm = 0.016 m, and the time t = 5.14 s, we find the damping constant: b = -2 * 0.0085 * ln(0.016/0.08) / 5.14 = 0.0167 kg/s.

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A thermal neutron has a speed v at temperature T = 300 K and kinetic energy m_n v^2/2 = 3 kT/2. Calculate its deBroglie wavelength. State whether a beam of these neutrons could be diffracted by a crystal, and why? (b) Use Heisenberg's Uncertainty principle to estimate the kinetic energy (in MeV) of a nucleon bound within a nucleus of radius 10^- 15 m.

Answers

a) The deBroglie wavelength is h/√(2m_nkT/3). This wavelength is on the order of the spacing between atoms in a crystal, which suggests that a beam of these neutrons could be diffracted by a crystal.

b) The estimated kinetic energy of a nucleon bound within a nucleus of radius 10⁻¹⁵ m is approximately 20 MeV.

In physics, the deBroglie wavelength is a concept that relates the wave-like properties of matter, such as particles like neutrons, to their momentum. Heisenberg's Uncertainty principle, on the other hand, states that there is an inherent uncertainty in the position and momentum of a particle. In this problem, we will use these concepts to determine the deBroglie wavelength of a neutron and estimate the kinetic energy of a nucleon bound within a nucleus.

(a) The deBroglie wavelength of a particle is given by the equation λ = h/p, where λ is the wavelength, h is Planck's constant, and p is the momentum of the particle. For a neutron with kinetic energy 3 kT/2, we can use the expression for kinetic energy in terms of momentum, which is given by 1/2 mv² = p²/2m, to find the momentum of the neutron as p = √(2m_nkT/3), where m_n is the mass of a neutron. Substituting this into the expression for deBroglie wavelength, we get λ = h/√(2m_nkT/3).

Plugging in the values of h, m_n, k, and T, we get λ = 1.23 Å. This wavelength is on the order of the spacing between atoms in a crystal, which suggests that a beam of these neutrons could be diffracted by a crystal.

(b) Heisenberg's Uncertainty principle states that the product of the uncertainties in the position and momentum of a particle is always greater than or equal to Planck's constant divided by 2π. Mathematically, this is expressed as ΔxΔp ≥ h/2π, where Δx is the uncertainty in position, and Δp is the uncertainty in momentum.

For a nucleon bound within a nucleus of radius 10⁻¹⁵ m, we can take the uncertainty in position to be roughly the size of the nucleus, which is Δx ≈ 10⁻¹⁵ m. Using the mass of a nucleon as m = 1.67 x 10⁻²⁷ kg, we can estimate the momentum uncertainty as Δp ≈ h/(2Δx). Substituting these values into the Uncertainty principle, we get:

ΔxΔp = (10⁻¹⁵ m)(h/2Δx) = h/2 ≈ 5.27 x 10⁻³⁵ J s

We can use the expression for kinetic energy in terms of momentum to find the kinetic energy associated with this momentum uncertainty. The kinetic energy is given by K = p²/2m, so we can estimate it as:

K ≈ Δp²/2m = (h^2/4Δx²)/(2m) = h²/(8mΔx²) ≈ 20 MeV

Therefore, the estimated kinetic energy of a nucleon bound within a nucleus of radius 10^-15 m is approximately 20 MeV.

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The original 24m edge length x of a cube decreases at the rate of 3m/min3.a) When x=1m, at what rate does the cube's surface area change?b) When x=1m, at what rate does the cube's volume change?

Answers

When x=1m, the cube's volume changes at a rate of -9 m³/min. We can use the formulas for surface area and volume of a cube:

Surface area = 6x²

Volume = x³

Taking the derivative with respect to time t of both sides of the above formulas, we get:

d(Surface area)/dt = 12x dx/dt

d(Volume)/dt = 3x² dx/dt

a) When x=1m, at what rate does the cube's surface area change?

Given, dx/dt = -3 m/min

x = 1 m

d(Surface area)/dt = 12x dx/dt

= 12(1)(-3)

= -36 m²/min

Therefore, when x=1m, the cube's surface area changes at a rate of -36 m²/min.

b) When x=1m, at what rate does the cube's volume change?

Given, dx/dt = -3 m/min

x = 1 m

d(Volume)/dt = 3x² dx/dt

                      = 3(1)²(-3)

                      = -9 m³/min

Therefore, when x=1m, the cube's volume changes at a rate of -9 m³/min.

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a force of 200 n is applied at a point 1.3 m from the axis of rotation, causing a revolving door to accelerate at 6.2 rad/s^2. what is the moment of inertia of the door from its axis of rotation?

Answers

The moment of inertia of the revolving door from its axis of rotation is 49.4 kg⋅m².

The moment of inertia (I) of a rotating object is a measure of its resistance to rotational acceleration and is calculated using the equation:

τ = Iα

where τ is the torque applied to the object, and α is its angular acceleration.

In this problem, we are given the applied force (F) of 200 N, the distance (r) from the axis of rotation to the point of force application as 1.3 m, and the angular acceleration (α) of the revolving door as 6.2 rad/s².

Firstly, we calculate the torque (τ) generated by the force applied at a distance of 1.3 m from the axis of rotation using the formula:

τ = Fr

τ = 200 N × 1.3 m

τ = 260 N⋅m

Now, substituting the values of τ and α in the above equation, we get:

I = τ/α

I = (260 N⋅m)/(6.2 rad/s²)

I = 41.94 kg⋅m²

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The brick wall exerts a uniform distributed load of 1.20 kip/ft on the beam. if the allowable bending stress isand the allowable shear stress is. Select the lighest wide-flange section with the shortest depth from Appendix B that will safely support of the load.

Answers

The main answer to the question is to select the lighest wide-flange section with the shortest depth from Appendix B that will safely support the load of 1.20 kip/ft exerted by the brick wall while ensuring that the allowable bending stress and shear stress are not exceeded.



To explain further, we need to use the given information to calculate the maximum allowable bending stress and shear stress for the beam. Let's assume that the span of the beam is known and is taken as the reference length for the load.

The distributed load of 1.20 kip/ft can be converted to a total load by multiplying it with the span length of the beam. Let's call the span length "L". So, the total load on the beam is 1.20 kip/ft x L.

To calculate the maximum allowable bending stress, we need to use the bending formula for a rectangular beam. This formula is given as:

Maximum Bending Stress = (Maximum Bending Moment x Distance from Neutral Axis) / Section Modulus

Assuming that the beam is subjected to maximum bending stress at the center, we can calculate the maximum bending moment as:

Maximum Bending Moment = Total Load x Span Length / 4

The distance from the neutral axis can be taken as half the depth of the beam. And the section modulus is a property of the cross-section of the beam and can be obtained from Appendix B.

Once we have the maximum allowable bending stress, we can compare it with the allowable bending stress given in the problem statement to select the appropriate wide-flange section.

Similarly, we can calculate the maximum allowable shear stress using the formula:

Maximum Shear Stress = (Maximum Shear Force x Distance from Neutral Axis) / Area Moment of Inertia

Assuming that the beam is subjected to maximum shear stress at the supports, we can calculate the maximum shear force as:

Maximum Shear Force = Total Load x Span Length / 2

The distance from the neutral axis can be taken as half the depth of the beam. And the area moment of inertia is a property of the cross-section of the beam and can be obtained from Appendix B.

Once we have the maximum allowable shear stress, we can compare it with the allowable shear stress given in the problem statement to ensure that the selected wide-flange section is safe under shear stress as well.

In summary, the main answer to the problem is to select the lighest wide-flange section with the shortest depth from Appendix B that will safely support the load of 1.20 kip/ft exerted by the brick wall while ensuring that the allowable bending stress and shear stress are not exceeded. This selection can be made by calculating the maximum allowable bending stress and shear stress based on the given information and comparing them with the allowable stress limits.

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fill in the blank. the orbits of the electron in the bohr model of the hydrogen atom are those in which the electron's _______________ is quantized in integral multiples of h/2π.

Answers

The orbits of the electron in the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom are those in which the electron's angular momentum is quantized in integral multiples of h/2π.

This means that the electron can only occupy certain discrete energy levels, rather than any arbitrary energy level. This concept is a fundamental aspect of quantum mechanics, which describes the behavior of particles on a very small scale. The reason for this quantization is related to the wave-like nature of electrons. In the Bohr model, the electron is treated as a particle orbiting around the nucleus.

However, according to quantum mechanics, the electron also behaves like a wave. The wavelength of this wave is related to the momentum of the electron. When the electron is confined to a specific orbit, its momentum must be quantized, and therefore its wavelength is also quantized. The quantization of angular momentum in the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom has important consequences for the emission and absorption of radiation.

When an electron moves from a higher energy level to a lower energy level, it emits a photon with a specific frequency. The frequency of the photon is determined by the difference in energy between the two levels. Conversely, when a photon is absorbed by an electron, it can only cause the electron to move to a specific higher energy level, corresponding to the energy of the photon.

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a wave has angular frequency 30.0 rad/srad/s and wavelength 2.10 mm What is its wave number? What is its wave speed?

Answers

The wave number of the given wave is 1.50 × 10^6 m^-1, and its wave speed is 63.0 m/s. wave number, represented by the symbol 'k', is the number of waves that exist per unit length. It is calculated by dividing the angular frequency of the wave (ω) by its speed (v): k = ω/v. I

n this case, the angular frequency is given as 30.0 rad/s, and we need to convert the wavelength from mm to m (1 mm = 1 × 10^-3 m) to obtain the wave speed. Thus, v = fλ = ω/kλ, where f is the frequency of the wave. Solving for k gives k = ω/λ = 1.50 × 10^6 m^-1.

Wave speed is the product of frequency and wavelength. In this case, the frequency is not given, but we can use the given angular frequency and convert the wavelength to meters as mentioned above. Thus, the wave speed is v = ω/kλ = (30.0 rad/s)/(1.50 × 10^6 m^-1 × 2.10 × 10^-3 m) = 63.0 m/s.

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Bats use sound waves to catch insects. bats can detect frequencies up to 108 khz. if the sound waves travel through air at a speed of v = 332 m/s, what is the wavelength of the sound waves (in mm)?

Answers

To determine the wavelength of the sound waves that bats use to catch insects, with a frequency of up to 108 kHz and a speed of 332 m/s, you can follow these steps:

1. Convert the frequency from kHz to Hz: 108 kHz = 108,000 Hz


2. Use the wave speed equation, v = fλ, where v is the speed of sound (332 m/s), f is the frequency (108,000 Hz), and λ is the wavelength.


3. Rearrange the equation to solve for the wavelength: λ = v / f


4. Plug in the values: λ = 332 m/s / 108,000 Hz


5. Calculate the wavelength: λ ≈ 0.00307 m


6. Convert the wavelength to millimeters: 0.00307 m * 1000 = 3.07 mm



The wavelength of the sound waves that bats use to catch insects is approximately 3.07 mm.

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analyze the parts of the word intermolecular and define intermolecular forces of attraction.

Answers

The word intermolecular is made up of two parts - "inter" meaning between and "molecular" meaning relating to molecules. Intermolecular forces of attraction refer to the forces that exist between molecules.

These forces are responsible for the physical properties of substances such as their boiling and melting points. There are different types of intermolecular forces such as van der Waals forces, dipole-dipole forces, and hydrogen bonding. Van der Waals forces are the weakest and result from the temporary dipoles that occur in molecules. Dipole-dipole forces are stronger and result from the attraction between polar molecules. Hydrogen bonding is the strongest type of intermolecular force and occurs when hydrogen is bonded to a highly electronegative atom such as nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine. This results in a strong dipole-dipole interaction between molecules.


Analyze the parts of the word "intermolecular" and define intermolecular forces of attraction.

The word "intermolecular" can be broken down into two parts:

1. "Inter" - This prefix means "between" or "among."
2. "Molecular" - This term refers to molecules, which are the smallest units of a substance that still retain its chemical properties.

When combined, "intermolecular" describes something that occurs between or among molecules.

Now let's define intermolecular forces of attraction:

Intermolecular forces of attraction are the forces that hold molecules together in a substance. These forces result from the attraction between opposite charges in the molecules, and they play a crucial role in determining the physical properties of substances, such as their boiling points, melting points, and density. Some common types of intermolecular forces include hydrogen bonding, dipole-dipole interactions, and London dispersion forces.

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A person with a mass of 72 kg and a volume of 0.096m3 floats quietly in water.
A. What is the volume of the person that is above water?
B. If an upward force F is applied to the person by a friend, the volume of the person above water increases by 0.0027 m3. Find the force F.

Answers

The force required to increase the person's volume above water by 0.0027 m³ is 732.85 N.

When an object floats in water, it displaces an amount of water equal to its own weight, which is known as the buoyant force. Using this concept, we can find the volume of the person above water and the force required to increase their volume.

A. To find the volume of the person above water, we need to find the volume of water displaced by the person. This is equal to the weight of the person, which can be found by multiplying their mass by the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s²):

weight of person = 72 kg × 9.81 m/s² = 706.32 N

The volume of water displaced is equal to the weight of the person divided by the density of water (1000 kg/m³):

volume of water displaced = weight of person / density of water = 706.32 N / 1000 kg/m³ = 0.70632 m³

Since the person's volume is given as 0.096 m³, the volume of the person above water is:

volume above water = person's volume - volume of water displaced = 0.096 m³ - 0.70632 m³ = -0.61032 m³

This result is negative because the person's entire volume is submerged in water, and there is no part of their volume above water.

B. When an upward force F is applied to the person, their volume above water increases by 0.0027 m³. This means that the volume of water displaced by the person increases by the same amount:

change in volume of water displaced = 0.0027 m³

The weight of the person remains the same, so the buoyant force also remains the same. However, the upward force now has to counteract both the weight of the person and the weight of the additional water displaced:

F = weight of person + weight of additional water displaced

F = 706.32 N + (change in volume of water displaced) × (density of water) × (acceleration due to gravity)

F = 706.32 N + 0.0027 m³ × 1000 kg/m³ × 9.81 m/s²

F = 732.85 N

Therefore, the force required to increase the person's volume above water by 0.0027 m³ is 732.85 N.

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helium gas with a volume of 3.50 ll, under a pressure of 0.180 atmatm and at a temperature of 41.0 ∘c∘c, is warmed until both pressure and volume are doubled.What is the final temperature?How many grams of helium are there?

Answers

The final temperature is approximately 851 K.There are approximately 0.0905 grams of helium.

We can solve this problem using the ideal gas law:

PV = nRT

where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature.

First, we need to convert the initial conditions to SI units:

V1 = 3.50 L = 0.00350[tex]m^3[/tex]

P1 = 0.180 atm = 18,424 Pa

T1 = 41.0°C = 314.15 K

Next, we can solve for the initial number of moles:

n = (P1 V1) / (R T1) = (18,424 Pa) (0.00350 m^3) / [(8.31 J/mol/K) (314.15 K)] ≈ 0.0226 mol

At the final state, the pressure and volume are doubled:

P2 = 2P1 = 36,848 Pa

V2 = 2V1 = 0.00700[tex]m^3[/tex]

We can solve for the final temperature using the ideal gas law again:

T2 = (P2 V2) / (n R) = (36,848 Pa) (0.00700 m^3) / [(0.0226 mol) (8.31 J/mol/K)] ≈ 851 K

Therefore, the final temperature is approximately 851 K.

To find the mass of helium, we can use the molar mass of helium, which is approximately 4.00 g/mol. The mass of helium is then:

m = n M = (0.0226 mol) (4.00 g/mol) ≈ 0.0905 g.

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an alpha particle (a helium nucleus) is moving at a speed of 0.9980 times the speed of light. its mass is (6.40 10-27 kg).(a) what is its rest energy?

Answers

The energy of the alpha particle is 3.83 x 10^-10 J at the rest state.

According to the theory of special relativity, the energy of a particle can be divided into two components: rest energy and kinetic energy. Rest energy is the energy that a particle possesses due to its mass, even when it is at rest, while kinetic energy is the energy that a particle possesses due to its motion. The total energy of a particle is the sum of its rest energy and kinetic energy.

The rest energy of a particle can be calculated using the famous equation derived by Albert Einstein, [tex]E=mc^2[/tex], where E is the energy of the particle, m is its mass, and c is the speed of light. This equation tells us that mass and energy are equivalent and interchangeable, and that a small amount of mass can be converted into a large amount of energy.

In the case of an alpha particle, which is a helium nucleus consisting of two protons and two neutrons, its rest energy can be calculated by using the mass of the particle, which is given as [tex]6.40 * 10^-27[/tex]kg. The speed of the alpha particle is given as 0.9980 times the speed of light, which is a significant fraction of the speed of light.

To calculate the rest energy of the alpha particle, we first need to calculate its relativistic mass, which is given by the equation:

[tex]m' = m / sqrt(1 - v^2/c^2)[/tex]

where m is the rest mass of the particle, v is its velocity, and c is the speed of light. Substituting the values given in the problem, we get:

[tex]m' = 6.40 x 10^-27 kg / sqrt(1 - 0.9980^2)[/tex]

[tex]m' = 4.28 x 10^-26 kg[/tex]

The rest energy of the alpha particle can then be calculated using the equation [tex]E = mc^2[/tex], where m is the relativistic mass of the particle. Substituting the values, we get:

[tex]E = (4.28 x 10^-26 kg) x (299,792,458 m/s)^2[/tex]

[tex]E = 3.83 x 10^-10 J[/tex]

Therefore, the rest energy of the alpha particle is 3.83 x 10^-10 J.

This result tells us that even a tiny amount of mass can contain a large amount of energy, and that the conversion of mass into energy can have profound effects on the behavior of particles and the nature of the universe.

The concept of rest energy is a fundamental aspect of the theory of special relativity, and is essential for understanding the behavior of particles at high speeds and energies.

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