If AC is the perpendicular bisector of BD and BD is the perpendicular bisector of AC, then how is triangle APB congruent to triangle CPB?

Answer:

C=6.28 m | A=12.56 m²

explanation:

C=3.14×d

C=3.14×2

C=6.28 m

A=3.14×r²

A=3.14×2²

A=3.14×4

A=12.56 m²

Answer:

6 - 5 < X

Is your expression

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

6/7=x/35

35/7=5

6x5=30

x=30

Answer:

0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

We can calculate the probability of picking a red marble by:

- adding all the marbles together

- then subtract the amount of red marbles by the number found previously.

2 + 3 + 5 = 10

10 - 5 = 5

5 is what of 10?

5 is 50% of 10.

50% means 0.5 out of 1.

Your answer is 0.5.

Hope this helps. Have a nice day.

Answer:

He has to divide 12/3 first

Step-by-step explanation:

it’s like pemdas you have to do that first then you go on to added the 3+ whatever 12/3 is

Answer:

He didn't follow the pemdas rule (see explanation)

Step-by-step explanation:

Rayan's mistake is that he didn't follow the pemdas rule, which states that you start with wat is inside parentheses first, then exponents then multiplication and division(from left to right) and then adding and  subtracting (from left to right).

Answer:

$260,437.50

$108,750

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the complete question :

Fill in the book value at the end of year 1 under each depreciation method when residual value is $36,000 and useful life is 4 years: Depreciation method:

Straight-line           $335,250

Units-of-Output

Double-declining $217,500

Book value = cost of the asset - first year depreciation expense

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

(335250 - 36,000) / 2 = $74,812.50

Book value =  $335,250 - $74,812.50 = $260,437.50

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/4 = 0.5

$217,500 x 0.5 = 108,750

Book value = $217,500 - 108,750 = $108750

Answer:

x = 26

Step-by-step explanation:

There are two numbers and average is the sum of a certain amount of numbers divided by the same amount.

21 × 2 = 42

42 - 16 = 26

x = 26

Answer:

x = 26

Step-by-step explanation:

Forming the equation,

→ (16 + x)/2 = 21

Now the value of x will be,

→ (16 + x)/2 = 21

→ 16 + x = 21 × 2

→ 16 + x = 42

→ x = 42 - 16

→ [ x = 26 ]

Hence, the value of x is 26.

Answer:

a) 24 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Tangents form a 90° angle with a radius.

using the Pythagorean theorem:

D² =  25² - 7²

D² =  625 - 49 = 576

D =  24

Answer:

I cant see ths graph but look for one with a positive relationship between flour and sugar meaning that if flour is on one axis sugar should be on the other they should both go up by one every time

Step-by-step explanation:

The graph should say for example at 3 cups of flour that their is 3 cups of sugar. It should look upwards in growth and use whole positive numbers.

Answer:

4

Step by step:

This is if the question is saying you completed 87.5% of the exercises. Otherwise, I don't know what it is asking.

87.5% of 32=28

32-28=4

Answer:

0.64615384615

Step-by-step explanation:

(2.5 + 2.75)/(8 + 1/8)

5.25/8 1/8

1/8 = 0.125

5.25/8.125 =

=0.64615384615

Hope this helps! I might be wrong

Answer: A (2.5)

Step-by-step explanation: got it right on edge 2021

Answer:

You didnt show a map

Step-by-step explanation:

Mary earns $11.5 per hour.

The unitary technique involves first determining the value of a single unit, followed by the value of the necessary number of units.

For example, Let's say Ram spends 36 Rs. for a dozen (12) bananas.

12 bananas will set you back 36 Rs. 1 banana costs 36 x 12 = 3 Rupees.

As a result, one banana costs three rupees. Let's say we need to calculate the price of 15 bananas.

This may be done as follows: 15 bananas cost 3 rupees each; 15 units cost 45 rupees.

We have,

Mary earns $247.25 for gardening.

Mary worked for 21.5 hours.

So, Mary earns per hour

= 247.25 / 21.5

= $11.5

Thus, Mary earns $11.5 per hour.

Learn more about Unitary Method here:

https://brainly.com/question/22056199

#SPJ2

Answer:

(x+5)²=0

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know how to explain this.. I'm sorry. It's an algebraic identity. If that helps..

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x)-g(x)=2x^2+3x+2-x-1\\ \\ f(x)-g(x)=2x^2+2x+1[/tex]

Answer:

0.625

Step-by-step explanation:

i think it's 0.625

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$183.20/(8 hours) = $22.90/hour

13 hours × $22.90/hour = $297.70

Answer:

The expression represents the amount of money in the bank account after the increase is: x=1.158n.

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information provided, you can say that the amount of money in the bank after the increase would be equal to multiplying the amount at the beginning of the year for the result of adding up 1 plus the percentage of the increase, which would be:

x=n*(1+0.158)

x=n*1.158

x=1.158n, where:

x is the amount of money in the bank account after the increase

n is the amount of money at the beginning of the year

Answer:

13.5 is the next term

4, 6, 9, 13.5

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a geometric sequence since there is a common ratio between each term. In this case, multiplying the previous term in the sequence by 3/2

formula= an=a1⋅r^n-1

Answer:

45.5625

Step-by-step explanation:

The pattern seems to be x + (x/2) = y where x is the previous number and y is the next number.

4 + (4/2) = 6

6 + (6/2) = 9

therefore we continue the pattern. In doing so we get:

30.375 + (30.375/2) = 45.5625

Set of events " rolling a six-sided cube and drawing 6 marbles out of a bag " have an equally like chance of occurring.

Option B is correct.

Probability of series of experiments shown below;

A. When spinning a spinner with 3 sections then probability of one section is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] .

 When tossing a coin, then probability of getting head or tail is [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

So that, set A has not equally like chance of occurring.

B. When rolling six-sided cube, probability of getting one number is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

   When one marble is drawn out of 6 marble in a bag, then  probability is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Therefore, set B has equally like chance of occurring.

Learn more about the probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/24756209

a)      2/5(n)=6         n=15

b)       4/7(x)=16/3          x=28/3       x=9.33333     x=9 1/3

any option for b works

i hope this is right and helps

Answer:

4000 [tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 1/3(Bh)  where B is the area of the base and h is the height of the pyramid

B = 20(20) = 400      h = 30

V = 1/3(400)(30) = 4000 [tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

umm maybe 6/25

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

just divided 9 by 1/4 I think I may be wrong.

Answer:

It should be the last one!! :)

Step-by-step explanation: