A presynaptic neuron is sending many EPSPs if a post synaptic cell is driven to threshold by temporal summation.
What results in rapid EPSP?Later, it was discovered that AH and S neurons in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses experienced fast EPSPs. They seem to be the exclusive means of communication between enteric neurons and vagal efferents.
What effect do EPSPs have on postsynaptic neurons?This makes the EPSP more likely to result in an action potential from the postsynaptic neuron, designating this synapse as excitatory.
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what percentage of the offspring will have trouble finding mates because they lack one of the dominant traits?
The ratio that represents the various genotypes of a test cross' offspring is called the genotypic ratio. It depicts the distribution of offspring in accordance with genotype, the genetic makeup that determines an organism's phenotype.
The genetic makeup of sperm and ova, the sex cells or gametes used in the conception, determines the genotype of an offspring. From each parent came one sex cell. Normal sex cells only contain one copy of each gene for each trait.
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a sensitivity analysis in a decision trees allows you to automatically change various parameter in a model and determine the corresponding impact on the result.
Sensitivity analysis is always a crucial element of decision making and decision trees often focus on probabilities.
Decision tree analysis involves visually outlining the possible outcomes, costs, and consequences of a complex decision. You can use a decision tree to calculate the expected value of each outcome based on the decisions and consequences that led up to it. Then, by comparing the results against each other, you can quickly assess the best course of action. You can also use a decision tree to solve problems, manage costs, and uncover opportunities. These trees are particularly useful for analyzing quantitative data and making decisions based on numbers. A framework was developed to perform sensitivity analyzes of optimal strategies that account for this distributional uncertainty. Sensitivity analysis determines how different values of the independent variable affect a particular dependent variable under a particular set of assumptions. In other words, sensitivity analyzes study how various sources of uncertainty in a mathematical model contribute to the overall uncertainty of the model. This technique is used within certain limits. depends on one or more input variables. Systematically vary outcome values or event probabilities to identify changes in expected monetary values or any decisions made.
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Puberty is initiated when the ______ starts secreting gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
The hypothalamus, a gland in the brain that secretes the gonadotropin-releasing hormone, is the cause of puberty (GnRH).
The hypothalamus, a makeup deep in your intellect, acts as your bulk's smart control matching center. Its main function is to maintain your crowd in a fixed state named equilibrium. It does an alluring job by straightforwardly doing your individual central nervous system or by directing hormones. Hypothalamus is complicated in the verbalization of emotions.
Gonadotropins are peptide hormones that manage ovarian and testicular function and are essential for normal tumors, intercourse incident, and duplication. Gonadotropins are injectable hormones used to treat unproductiveness. These drugs, including Follistim, Menopur, Bravelle, and Gonal-F, all hold a live form of the follicular stimulating hormone, the main birth control method being the reason for bearing mature cells in the ovaries.
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Which of the following statements about how cytoplasmic determinants and induction help control which transcriptional activators are expressed by different cell types is TRUE?
*A. ALL
b. Cytoplasmic determinants are unevenly distributed in egg cells.
c. Induction causes the cells near the cell producing the inductive agent to express some of the same transcriptional activators.
d. Cytoplasmic determinants are unevenly distributed during cell division, causing the resulting daughter cells to express different combinations of transcriptional activators.
The statements that are true about cytoplasmic determinants and induction help control which transcriptional activators are expressed by different cell types Cytoplasmic determinants include molecules that are not polypeptides or mRNAs, Cytoplasmic determinants include mRNA molecules, and Cytoplasmic determinants include polypeptides.
Cytoplasmic determinants are outlined as entities local in particular cytoplasmic domains of the cell or embryonic container that bias the containers holding bureaucracy to assume particular possessions or fates all along embryogenesis. Cytoplasmic determinants are distinctive molecules that play a very main duty all along oocyte maturation, in the female's ovary.
Transcriptional activators are necessary to turn on the verbalization of genes in a eukaryotic container. Transcriptional activators accountable for the enhancer can promote either the recruitment of RNA polymerase II to the supporter or allure extension.
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The complete question is:
Which of the following statements about how cytoplasmic determinants and induction help control which transcriptional activators are expressed by different cell types is TRUE?
a. Cytoplasmic determinants include molecules that are not polypeptides or mRNAs.
*B. ALL
c. Cytoplasmic determinants include mRNA molecules.
d. Cytoplasmic determinants include polypeptides.
what happens to the concentration of glucose in the urinary bladder as the number of glucose carriers increases?
As the glucose providers will increase the awareness within side the urinary bladder decreases. This is because of extra glucose being reabsorbed through lively shipping on the apical membrane after which facilitated diffusion through the GLUT 1 receptors within side the basolateral membrane of the distal tubule.
distal tubule within side the accumulating duct. What passed off to the urine awareness because the solute awareness within side the interstitial area become expanded? How nicely did the outcomes examine in your prediction? As the solute awareness expanded the urine awareness expanded proportionally. The better the plasma awareness of ADH, the better the quantity of water this is reabsorbed. At maximal ADH levels, a completely small extent of quite focused urine is produced. In the absence of ADH, a completely huge extent of very dilute urine is produced Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a chemical produced withinside the mind that reasons the kidneys to launch much less water, reducing the quantity of urine produced. A excessive ADH degree reasons the frame to provide much less urine. A low degree outcomes in extra urine production.
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which substance, by providing strength, allows sclerenchyma cells to provide support and play a role analogous to that of an animal's skeleton? a) starch b) lignin c) sucrose d) chlorophyll
Lignin by providing strength, allows sclerenchyma cells to provide support and play a role analogous to that of an animal's skeleton.
In plants, sclerenchyma supports tissue made up of a variety of hard, woody cell types. Sclerenchyma cells that have reached maturity are often dead cells with significantly enlarged secondary walls that contain lignin. The cells, which are rigid and non-stretchable, are typically found in parts of plant bodies that are not actively growing, such as the bark or mature stems. One of the three types of ground, or fundamental, tissue in plants is sclerenchyma; the other two types are collenchyma and parenchyma, or living thin-walled tissue.
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The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
autonomic
The autonomic nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
The peripheral nervous system's autonomic nervous system controls physiologic functions including digestion, breathing, blood pressure, and sexual arousal in addition to other involuntary functions like heart rate. It is divided into sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric regions, each of which has a unique anatomical structure. Some bodily functions, like blood pressure and respiratory rate, are regulated by the autonomic nervous system. The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus is the critical brain region for the central regulation of the autonomic nervous system. Autonomic neuropathy most frequently results from diabetes. Infections with viruses or bacteria, certain drugs, or other medical disorders might potentially be the reason. The type of injured nerve affects the symptoms and course of therapy.
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malonyl-coa is an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis. it also regulates fatty acid metabolism. which of the molecules regulate the enzyme that catalyzes malonyl‑coa synthesis? citrate fatty acids or fatty acyl-coa carnitine acetyl-coa oxaloacetate which of the enzymes does malonyl‑coa regulate?
Malonyl-coa is an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis. it also regulates fatty acid metabolism. Fatty acids or fatty acyl-CoA regulate the enzyme that catalyses malonyl coa synthesis.
Citrate fatty acids or fatty acyl-coA carnitine acetyl-coA oxaloacetate Carnitine acyltransferase regulates malonyl coA.
What is fatty acid?
A fatty acid is an aliphatic carboxylic acid having a saturated or unsaturated chain that is used in chemistry, notably in biochemistry. The majority of fatty acids that are found in nature contain an unbranched chain with an even number of carbon atoms, ranging from 4 to 28.
The substance that regulates enzymes catalyzing the formation of malonyl Co-A is known as fatty acids or fatty acyl-CoA. Acetyl-Co-A carboxylase is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the production. The catalytic activities of the enzyme in fatty acid synthesis have an impact on the allosteric and covalent modifications.
Malonyl-CoA activity is controlled by the enzyme carnitine acyltransferase. Fatty acids are suppressed by malonyl-CoA so they can pair with carnitine.
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you are interested in how gpr279, a gpcr, functions within keratinocytes. a drug that specifically targets gpr279 was recently developed. after purchasing the drug, you add increasing concentrations of the drug to your keratinocyte cultures. after 24 hours, the cells were fixed, the dna was stained with a fluorescent dye, and the cells were run on flow cytometry. the following cell cycle profiles were produced. what could you most likely conclude about the drug treatment?
GPR279 activates Cdc25 activity most likely conclude about the drug treatment, ou add increasing concentrations of the drug to your keratinocyte cultures. after 24 hours, the cells were fixed, the dna was stained with a fluorescent dye.
(drug) Any substance (apart from food) that is used to treat, prevent, or relieve the symptoms of a disease or other abnormal state. In addition to changing mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behavior, drug may also alter how the brain and the rest of the body function.
Numerous cytokines that are produced by keratinocytes have crucial roles in modulating cutaneous immune responses, inflammation, wound healing, and the formation and development of certain neoplasms. Along with eicosanoids and prostaglandin (PG) E2, keratinocytes also create neuropeptides such propiomelanocortin and MSH.
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true or false - ribosomal rna acts as a ribozyme, catalyzing peptide bond formation in protein synthesis.
The answer is true. Ribosomal RNA does act as a ribozyme, catalyzing peptide bond formation in protein synthesis.
What is Ribosomal RNA?
Ribosomal nucleic acid is a non coding RNA (ribonucleic acid). They are the primary part of ribosomes that is essential to all cells. rRNA is a ribozyme. It carries out protein synthesis in ribosomes.
rRNA molecules are synthesized in a special region of cell nucleus that is called nucleolus. It is a dense area inside the nucleus containing genes coding for rRNA.
The rRNAs that are coded are different in size. They are either large or small. There is at least one large rRNA and one small rRNA in each ribosome.
The large and small rRNAs combine with ribosomal proteins to form large and small subunits of the ribosome in the nucleolus (example: in bacteria, 50S and 30S.)
Therefore, ribosomal RNA does act as a ribozyme, catalyzing peptide bond formation in protein synthesis.
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Some emus run fast (between 30-35 mph) and other emus run
slower (between 20-25 mph.) Dingos are the main predators of
emus and at their absolute fastest can reach speeds of up to 30
mph. Emus lay between 30-50 eggs a year, but only 20 of those
eggs will live long enough to mature into their own reproductive
age.
Fast emus will survive longer and reproduce more and eventually most of the population will become fast which is referred to as descent of modification and is a true statement.
What is descent with modification?This is referred to as the process in which different types of traits are passed down from generation to generation and in some cases undergo changes or modifications over time.
These different modifications are usually caused by natural selection or mutation in the DNA of the organism which in this case makes the organism to run faster and escape from predators which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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The full question is:
Some emus run fast (between 30-35 mph) and other emus run slower (between 20-25 mph.) Dingos are the main predators of emus and at their absolute fastest can reach speeds of up to 30mph. Emus lay between 30-50 eggs a year, but only 20 of those eggs will live long enough to mature into their own reproductive age. true/false
describe how mutations, gene flow, nonrandom mating, genetic drift, and natural selection can cause changes in the frequency of an allele in a population by explaining how each violates the assumptions of the hwe.
Mutations, gene flow, nonrandom mating, genetic drift, and natural selection can cause changes in the frequency of an allele in a population
Define allele.
One of two or more variations of the DNA sequence (a single base or a segment of bases) at a certain genomic region is referred to as an allele. For any given genomic location where such variation exists, an individual inherits two alleles, one from each parent. An individual is homozygous for an allele if the two alleles are identical. The person is heterozygous if the alleles differ.
Alleles are added to a gene pool by mutations. As a result, the frequency of particular allele combinations in the population changes, leading to gradual population evolution. They play a significant role in the evolution of novel gene variants.
Gene flow is typically accompanied by a significant population and a gradual shift in gene frequencies. Genetic admixture is the gradual integration of the genes of migrant populations, each of which has its own distinctive allele frequencies, into the gene pool of the population into which they have migrated.
Although it can alter genotype frequencies, non-random mating won't change the population's allele frequencies on its own. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is prevented, but it's questionable whether this qualifies as evolution given that the allele frequencies are remaining constant.
Natural selection occurs when individuals with a particular genotype are more likely to survive and reproduce than individuals with a different genotype, and thereby to pass on their alleles to the following generation. There is variation in some traits among individuals within a population. This variant is inherited. Changes in this trait correspond to changes in fitness.
The sampling mistake that comes with individuals in a finite population transmitting gametes leads to genetic drift. Genetic drift is a process of evolution that is characterized by erratic changes in the prevalence of a particular gene allele in a population. The impacts of genetic drift can be severe, often leading to features in a community becoming overly prevalent or disappearing, even though it usually affects small, isolated populations.
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Which radiometric probe is appropriate to measure coyote skeleton, human skull, wagon wheel, shark tooth, trilobite, top rock, bottom rock
The radiometric probe that is used to measure the coyote skeleton, human skull, wagon wheel, shark tooth, trilobite, top rock, and bottom rock is known as radiometric dating.
What is a Radiometric probe?A radiometric probe may be defined as a small dipstick-type probe for radiometry measurements designed for the utilization of small intense sources of UV radiation.
According to the context of this question, geologists use radiometric dating in order to estimate how long ago rocks formed, and to do this, the age of the sedimentary layer in which the fossil occurs through bracketing.
Therefore, the radiometric probe that is used to measure the coyote skeleton, human skull, wagon wheel, shark tooth, trilobite, top rock, and bottom rock is known as radiometric dating.
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in response to the presence of a bloodborne pathogen, an individual's immune system has mounted a successful response in which antibodies have produced agglutination between offending antigens. the process of agglutination will be followed by what consequent activity of the immune system?
The process of agglutination will be followed by phagocytosis.
What is agglutination reaction?
A visible clumping of particles results from the antigen-antibody process known as agglutination, in which a particulate antigen interacts with its antibody in the presence of electrolytes at a specific temperature and pH. When antigens and antibodies react in roughly equal amounts, it happens best.
The process by which specific living cells, called phagocytes, ingest or engulf other cells or particles is called phagocytosis. Prior to phagocytosis, the phagocyte and the particle must adhere to one another; the likelihood of this depends largely on the chemical composition of the particle surface.
After adhering to the opsonins , phagocytes undergo phagocytosis. Until the object is completely engulfed, the cell flows around it. The engulfed object is subsequently contained inside a phagosome, a membrane-bound vacuole. With the aid of hydrolytic enzymes found inside membrane-enclosed sacs called lysosomes, the phagocyte breaks down the ingested particle. In the vacuole where digestion occurs, phagocytic enzymes are secreted.
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Based on the phenotypes of the p generation and f1 generation, what are possible phenotypes in the f2 generation?.
When a monohybrid cross is in its F2 generation, Tall and Dwarf phenotypes are both present. The phenotypic ratio is 3:1.
The F1 and F2 generations are what?F2 generation is the second filial generation of the offspring produced through inbreeding of F1 people. F1 generation denotes the first filial generation of the offspring from the parents.
The P F1 F2 and F3 generations are what?The P parent generation's offspring are referred to as the F1 (for filial, or "offspring") generation. The children of F1 are known as the F2, and the children of F2 are known as the F3, the F4, the F5, and so on. This continues up until the last generation of the pedigree study.
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which stage of decay is recognized by having only hair and bones, inhabited by dermestid beetles? group of answer choices fresh post decay active decay skeletal flag question: question 31
Arthropod colonization history and patterns are one way to get this approximation in forensic epidemiology. Hence, the answer is skeletal flag.
How insects disintegrate and what that means for timing and information in criminal investigations are covered by forensic entomological decomposition. In order to determine the post-mortem period in death investigations, medicolegal entomology, a subfield of forensic entomology, frequently uses the study of insects (PMI). With the help of this technique, you can estimate the time when insects were active, which may or may not be directly related to when they died. Insect successional data is useful for later phases of decomposition and can be reliable for durations of up to a few years, but developmental data may not provide as good an estimate during the early stages of decomposition.
The complete question is:
Which stage of decay is recognized by having only hair and bones, inhabited by dermestid beetles?
a) Fresh
b) Post decay
c) Active decay
d) Skeletal
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Streptococcus pneumoniae is an encapsulated gram-positive bacterium. What is the function of capsule in disease pathogenesis?.
In pathogenic bacteria, capsules serve as a major barrier between the bacterial surface and immune system components, delaying opsonophagocytosis or, in the case of Gram-negative bacteria, complement-mediated lysis.
What purpose does a capsule serve?The ability of capsules to mediate adhesion to surfaces, control access of certain molecules to the cell membrane, and improve desiccation resistance is crucial. Additionally, many pathogenic bacteria's capsules hinder phagocytosis and lessen complement-mediated death (22, 29, 30).
Do capsules have the potential to be pathogenic?Certain bacteria are enclosed in a thick covering of sugar and protein called a capsule. Because they make it simpler for the germs to make you sick, capsules are regarded as pathogenicity factors.
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Is a reduction division which produces cells with half the normal number of chromosomes.
The different sort of mobileular department, meiosis, guarantees that people have the equal range of chromosomes in every generation. It is a two-step technique that reduces the chromosome range via way of means of 1/2 of—from forty six to 23—to shape sperm and egg cells.
Gametes comprise 1/2 of the chromosomes contained in regular diploid cells of the body, that are additionally called somatic cells. Haploid gametes are produced throughout meiosis, that's a sort of mobileular department that reduces the range of chromosomes in a determine diploid mobileular via way of means of 1/2 of.
The first spherical of nuclear department that happens throughout the formation of gametes is known as meiosis I. It is likewise called the discount department because it consequences in cells which have 1/2 of the range of chromosomes because the determine mobileular.
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white fibers that transmit impulses between corresponding areas in the opposite cerebral hemisphere are called:
White fibers that transmit impulses between corresponding areas in the opposite cerebral hemisphere are called Commissural
What are commissural fibers?
White matter fiber bundles called commissural pathways span the midline and link comparable cortical regions in the opposing hemispheres of the brain.In contrast to commissural fibers, there are association fibers and projection fibers, which link distinct cortical regions within the same hemisphere to lower regions of the brain or the spinal cord, respectively.Commissural pathways' primary job is to coordinate activities between the brain's left and right hemispheres. As a result, they play a role in a variety of processes, including memory-related cognitive processes as well as several motor and perceptual processes.Commissures are defined fiber tracts that link the corresponding cortical regions of the two telencephalic hemispheres. They consist of the corpus callosum, the hippocampal commissure, and the anterior commissure.Hence, White fibers that transmit impulses between corresponding areas in the opposite cerebral hemisphere are called Commissural
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in humans, brown eyes (b) are a simple dominant trait over blue eyes (b). what is the genotype of a brown-eyed woman who has a blue-eyed child?
RNA primers required for polymerase to continue synthesis must be present on which strand during DNA synthesis?
1. Neither strand
2. Only the leading strand
3. Both leading and lagging strands
4. Only the lagging strand
RNA primers required for polymerase to continue synthesis must be present on both leading and lagging strands during DNA synthesis.
RNA Primer is RNA that initiates DNA synthesis. These primers are required for DNA synthesis because DNA polymerase is unable to initiate polynucleotide. Polymerase require a template and RNA primer to synthesize DNA in the 5 prime to 3 prime direction (5'-3'). One RNA primer is only required on the leading strand, because DNA is produced continuously on leading strand. Whereas DNA is synthesize in small lengths on the lagging strand, therefore more than one RNA Primer is required on lagging strand.
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What is connective tissue made up of special proteins that make it flexible?
A) ligaments
B) cartilage
C) tendons
D) bones
A.B.C.D.Lindsay brought her 10-year-old son to see the doctorbecause he was having problems breathing. The doctorinformed Lindsay that her son had inflammation of theairways. Lindsay's son was diagnosed with _____.asthmasleep apneaobesitydiabetes
A. The diagnosis is Asthma.
What is Asthma?
Asthma is a group of conditions associated with inflammation of the upper respiratory tract. It is one of the most common respiratory disease of the upper respiratory tract. One of the major cause of asthma which Allergens. Allergen can have wide spectrum ranging from dust particles to bacterial spores in the air we breathe. These allergens illicit inflammatory response mediated by mast cells and IgE antibody. These lead to formation and secretion of inflammatory mediators like histamine and serotonin which are responsible for the symptoms.
Symptoms of Asthma-
The inflammation results in excessive mucous secretion and increase in the thickness of smooth muscles of the trachea and the bronchus. It leads to characteristic wheezing sound on inspiration. It also causes cough and congestion of chest which may lead to feeling of tightness. The symptoms of asthma can be subsided by use of steroids and anti inflammatory drugs.
Thus the diagnosis is Asthma.
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FIL IN THE BLANK. The term for all the environmental influences that affect development after conception is _____. A. nature. B. proteins. C. nurture. D. amino acids.
Answer: C: nurture
Explanation:
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A box has a strong force pushing on it to the right and a weaker force pushing
on it to the left. The force from the ground and the force from gravity cancel
each other out.
What direction will the net force go?
Answer:
Left.
Explanation:
It will go left because, if the stronger force is pushing on the right, that means it'll go left. And then the weaker force is pushing on the left, so it will go right. So, if one force is stronger than the other, then the stronger force will be working more efficiently and it'll go the way that the stronger force is pushing. (Even though it says the ground and the force from gravity cancel each other out, it doesn't really matter, because they cancel each other out. So, they aren't even doing anything).
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your colleague admits a client with active tuberculosis. since she has little experience with this disorder, she asks you for information about the signs and symptoms of active tb so she can monitor them. select the best reply.
Lethargy, Night sweats and Low-grade fever are the signs and symptoms of active TB. The correct option are A,D and E
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacteria that causes tuberculosis (TB). Although TB bacteria typically attack the lungs, they can also affect the kidney, spine, and brain. Not every person who contracts the TB germs gets ill.
Feelings of sickness or weakness, weight loss, a fever, and night sweats are all common signs of TB disease. Chest pain, bloody coughing, and coughing up debris are additional signs of TB lung disease. The location of the infection determines the symptoms of TB disease in other body parts.
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Complete question:
What signs and symptoms does the nurse anticipate to find in a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis? Select all that apply.
A. Lethargy
B. Dyspnea
C. Weight gain
D. Night sweats
E. Low-grade fever
Some paleoanthropologists claim that Neandertals were inefficient hunters. What evidence does NOT support this hypothesis? Indicate your answer by dragging the statements to the appropriate box.
According to bone growth, both Neandertals and contemporary Homo sapiens experience frequent dietary stress.
How often do you eat?A food frequency questionnaire (FFQ) includes a limited selection of meals and drinks, together with response options that reflect the typical frequency of consumption throughout the study period.
What purpose does a food frequency questionnaire serve?Food Frequency Questionnaires (FFQ) are a technique for gathering dietary information that makes use of a context-specific food list to estimate the typical diet and comprehend the connection between consumption habits and health consequences.
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According to stable isotope research, Neandertal meat consumption was comparable to that of modern carnivores. Both Neandertals , modern Homo sapiens undergo nutritional stress, according to bone growth.
What kind of hypothesis would you use?Hypothesis The amount of happiness increases with daily sun exposure. The assumed cause in this example and the regression coefficient is sun exposure. Happiness level is the predicted impact, or dependent variable.
What is a hypothesis' principal objective?Hypotheses are frequently employed to promote scientific research and enhance knowledge. The foundation of all research experiments is comprised of these succinct assertions. The methodology of a rest of the experiment may therefore be flawed as a result of a defect in the drafting of a hypothesis.
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1) both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. what distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition by a) preying on animals. b) ingesting it. c) consuming living, rather than dead, prey. d) using enzymes to digest their food.
Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. what distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition by the ingesting it.
Generally, vegetation make their meals the use of the sun's energy (photosynthesis), at the same time as animals eat, then internally digest, their meals. Fungi do neither: their mycelium grows into or across the meals source, secretes enzymes that digest the meals externally, and the mycelium then absorbs the digested nutrients.Most animals take meals into their our bodies and digest it there, such as you do.
This mode of vitamins, referred to as ingestion, distinguishes animals from different heterotrophs, which includes fungi, that digest meals out of doors their our bodies after which soak up the nutrients.Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that most effective animals derive their vitamins by.. eating it.
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Dual innervation means that visceral effectors are innervated by preganglionic axons from both parasympathetic and sympathetic (ANS) divisions.
A. True
B False
Dual innervation means that visceral effectors are innervated by preganglionic axons from both the parasympathetic and sympathetic (ANS) divisions is True.
Dual innervation of viscera means (1 Point) visceral organs receive preganglionic and postganglionic autonomic nerve fibers O Visceral organs receive both autonomic. This innervation is called double innervation. The parts of the body that show dual innervation are mostly effectors. An effector is a target of motor inputs/signals (the signals given by the CNS to the body to control its actions). These targets can be organs, muscles or glands. The sympathetic and parasympathetic (ANS) operate only through motor/efferent signals. The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
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true or false? the lac operon in e. coli utilizes both positive and negative control of gene expression.
The lac operon in e. coli utilizes both positive and negative control of gene expression is true.
What is gene expression?The method through which a gene in a cell is activated to produce RNA and proteins. The RNA, the protein generated from the RNA, or the function of the protein in a cell can all be used to quantify gene expression.
A finely controlled process called gene expression enables a cell to react to its changing surroundings. It serves as both a volume control that raises or lowers the level of proteins produced as well as an on/off switch to regulate when proteins are created.
Only a portion of a cell's genes are ever actively expressed. Different cell types exhibit a range of gene expression profiles because they possess unique sets of transcription regulators.
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