If a plant that is homozygous dominant for a gene is crossed with a plant that is homozygous recessive for the same gene, the probability that the offspring will have the same genotype as one of the parents is 0. The probability that the offspring will have the same phenotype as one of the parents is 0.25.
In genetics, a gene is a unit of heredity that is passed down from parent to offspring. Genes are made up of DNA, and they encode the instructions for making proteins that determine an organism's traits. A gene can have different versions, called alleles, that can result in different traits.
When an organism is homozygous for a gene, it means that it has two copies of the same allele for that gene.
For example, if a plant is homozygous dominant for a gene, it means that it has two copies of the dominant allele for that gene. Similarly, if a plant is homozygous recessive for a gene, it means that it has two copies of the recessive allele for that gene.
When two plants that are homozygous for different alleles of the same gene are crossed, the offspring will inherit one allele from each parent. In this case, all of the offspring will be heterozygous for the gene, meaning that they will have one copy of the dominant allele and one copy of the recessive allele.
Since none of the offspring will have the same genotype as either parent, the probability that the offspring will have the same genotype as one of the parents is 0.
The phenotype of an organism is the physical expression of its genotype, or the combination of alleles that it carries for a given gene. In this case, the plants that are homozygous dominant for the gene will have the dominant trait, while the plants that are homozygous recessive for the gene will have the recessive trait.
Since the offspring of the cross will be heterozygous for the gene, they will have the dominant trait. Therefore, the probability that the offspring will have the same phenotype as one of the parents is 0.25, or 1 in 4.
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If 16% of an african population is born with a severe form of sickle-cell anemia (ss), what percentage of the population will be heterozygous (ss) for sickle-cell and therefore resistant to malaria?.
Now that we are aware of the frequencies of both alleles in this population, we can use these numbers to determine the frequency of heterozygotes. Therefore, since 42% of this group carries the sickle-cell allele, they will be more resistant to malaria.
Individuals that are in sickle-cell heterozygous occur with a frequency of 2pq. In this instance, 2pq is 0.32, which indicates that 32% of people are heterozygous for this gene (2 (0.8)(0.2) = 0.32). The dominant allele frequency is, while the recessive allele frequency is, according to the Hardy-Weinberg formulae. is the ratio between the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals, heterozygous individuals, and homozygous recessive individuals in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg equation is written as p 2 + 2 p q + q 2 = 1, or p2 + 2 p q + q2 = 1. and is employed to establish the prevalence of genotypes in a certain group. Start by substituting the necessary terms with the known values to find the frequency of a particular genotype.
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Match the four pathways of sympathetic neurons with the region of the body having effector organs Innervated by each pathway. Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway Adrenal medulla pathway Spinal nerve pathway Splanchnic nerve pathway Match each of the options above to the items below Neck, torso, and lilmbs Head/eye Adrenal gland
The correct pathways of sympathetic neuron with the regions of the body are:
Neck, torso, and limbs → spinal nerve pathwayHead/eye → postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathwayAbdomen/pelvis → Splanchnic nerve pathwayAdrenal gland → adrenal medulla pathwayWhat are the pathways of sympathetic neuron?The sympathetic pathways depart the central nervous system through the ganglionic neuron found in the spinal cord at the intermediolateral column between the thoracic and mid-lumbar levels. Essentially, they are divided into preganglionic neurons, postganglionic neurons and sympathetic ganglia.
The effector organs innervated by each pathway are neck , torso and limbs to the spinal nerve pathway, head to the postganglionic nerve pathway, abdomen to splanchnic nerve pathway and adrenal gland to adrenal medulla pathway.
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The ability of the arteries to withstand a sudden large increase in pressure is accomplished by the.
The flexibility of the smooth muscles allows the arteries to sustain a rapid, significant rise in pressure.
What makes an artery resilient to pressure?They have an outer layer of collagen and a thick wall to prevent the artery from rupturing under the intense pressure. In order to maintain pulse flow, the artery wall also has an inner layer of muscle and elastic fibers.
What property makes arteries resistant to high pressure?The aorta and pulmonary arteries, which are the closest to the heart, are elastic arteries because they have much more elastic tissue in the tunica media than muscular arteries do. The elastic arteries' ability to maintain a relatively constant pressure gradient despite the heart's continuous pumping is due to this property.
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a well-accepted biological explanation for schizophrenia states that individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia have issues with the neurotransmitter
A well-accepted biological explanation for schizophrenia states that individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia have issues with the neurotransmitter is dopamine hypothesis
What is schizophrenia?
Schizophrenia is a severe internal illness where cases have aberrant comprehensions of reality. visions, visions, and veritably abnormal study and gets are all possible symptoms of schizophrenia, which can make it delicate to carry out daily tasks and be ruinous.
The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia postulates that a dysregulated dopamine system may contribute to the cognitive, behavioral, and positive symptoms of the condition and dopamine neurotransmitter imbalance in the brain is what causes schizophrenia.
Therefore a well-accepted biological explanation for schizophrenia states that individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia have issues with the neurotransmitter is dopamine hypothesis
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question content area top part 1 what type of pathogen is described as a plantlike microorganism that typically will not cause infection in a person with a normally functioning immune system?
Fungi is described as a plantlike microorganism that typically will NOT cause infection in a person with a normally functioning immune system.
Bacteria already abound in your body. However, these microorganisms only pose a threat if your immune system is weakened or if they manage to enter a normally sterile area of your body.
Pathogens may spread disease once they enter the body, unlike other organisms.
A pathogen doesn't even need a host to develop and thrive. The infection enters the body of the host, evades the immune system's defenses, and multiplies by using the host's resources before leaving and infecting a new victim. Pathogens can be spread through a variety of techniques depending on the type. Skin-to-skin contact, bodily fluids, airborne particles, feces, and surfaces that have been contacted by an infected person are all ways that they might spread.
Fungi come in numerous types on Earth. There are only roughly 300 reliable sources that are known to be harmful. Fungi can be found almost wherever in the environment, including indoors, outdoors, and on human skin. They spread illness when they grow too much.
A membrane and a substantial cell wall protect the nucleus and other areas of fungus cells. They could be challenging to kill because of how they are built.
The complete question is:
What type of pathogen is described as a plantlike microorganism that typically will NOT cause infection in a person with a normally functioning immune system?
A. Helminths
B. Virus
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
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If a drought causes a decrease in resources in an ecosystem, how are the
organisms living in the ecosystem affected?
If a drought causes a decrease in resources in an ecosystem, then the organisms living in the ecosystem will be affected due to the decrease in an abiotic factor that is fundamental for survival.
Why do abiotic factors fundamental for survival?Abiotic factors such as water and normal levels of environmental temperature are fundamental for survival because they are required to carry out metabolic activities.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that abiotic factors can be considered as fundamental for survival due biological systems require them to carry out metabolic processes.
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Identify two other climate change mitigation strategies (not biofuels!) and explain how each strategy will slow or reduce climate change.
Retrofitting structures to increase their energy efficiency, utilizing renewable energy sources like solar, and wind, and assisting cities in developing more sustainable modes of transportation.
What are climate change mitigation strategies?Modes of transportation like bus rapid transit, electric vehicles, biofuels, and encouraging more sustainable land use are all examples of mitigation strategies.
Growing new trees and mending ecosystems, crop diversification will improve their ability to respond to climate change.
Therefore, investigating and creating novel ways to control and avert natural disasters, and retrofitting structures to increase their energy efficiency.
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in animals, the normal development of an embryo is dependent on select one: a. production of new cells having twice the number of chromosomes as the zygote b. mitosis and the differentiation of cells after fertilization has occurred c. fertilization of a mature egg by many sperm cells d. production of body cells having half the number of chromosomes as the zygote
In animals, the normal development of an embryo is dependent on mitosis and the differentiation of cells after fertilization has occurred,
what is mitosis?
One cell (the mother) divides into two new cells (the daughters) that are genetically identical to the original cell during a process known as mitosis.
Normal embryonic development is largely shaped by the process of cell division. In mitosis, the replicated genome is separated (karyokinesis) from the cytoplasmic material (cytokinesis). During typical embryogenesis, these two important steps are closely regulated in both space and time. Thus, understanding cell division is essential for comprehending developmental processes that result in the formation of tissues and organs. Many rounds of cell division are necessary for the transformation of a single cell zygote into an adult with multiple cells that can function.
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What is the process by which a star is born
Answer:
Stars form from an accumulation of gas and dust, which collapses due to gravity and starts to form stars. The process of star formation takes around a million years from the time the initial gas cloud starts to collapse until the star is created and shines like the Sun.Jul 4, 2019
Explanation:
Infortmation:
How Do Stars Form? - Frontiers for Young Mindshttps://kids.frontiersin.org › articles › frym.2019.00092
The biological levels of organization range from a single organelle all the way up to the biosphere in a highly structured hierarchy. Your lab partner is struggling to understand the interaction between the levels in the biological hierarchy. Using the model, what explanations can your offer to help your classmate? choose all that apply.
Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems, and biosphere, in that sequence, are the elaborated levels.
An ecosystem is a place where several types of living things coexist to create a bubble of life, including plants, animals, and other species. Ecosystems are made up of both biotic (or alive) and abiotic (or nonliving) components. Plants, animals, and other living things are considered biotic factors. Rocks, temperature, and humidity are examples of abiotic variables. In an ecosystem, every component is dependent on every other component, either directly or indirectly. For example, a change in ecosystem temperature frequently affects the types of plants that may flourish there. Animals that rely on plants for food and shelter will have to shift to accommodate the new conditions.
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After sperm are produced, they enter the first part of the duct system, the __________.
Sperm enter the epididymis, the first duct system component, once they are created.
What is the sequence of sperm passage?To leave the body, sperm cells travel through a network of channels. Sperm go through the epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra after leaving the testes.
When sperm pass through the ductus deferens, where do they go next?During their journey from the egg to adulthood, sperm pass through the deferent duct, the spermatic cord, the pelvic cavity, the ureter, and the prostate, which is situated behind the bladder. The vas deferens and seminal vesicle join here to form the ejaculatory duct, which empties into the urethra after passing through the prostate.
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chloroplasts were only examined and labeled in the spirogyra slide. relate the function of these organelles to explain why they were not present in the onion root tip slide.
The onion fruiting body (bulb), which is used for energy storage rather than photosynthesis, has a single layer of clear epidermal cells that do not have chloroplasts.
Each cell consists of a cell wall, a cell membrane, cytoplasm, a nucleus, and a big vacuole. rge central vacuole are organelles found only in plant cells. The chloroplasts contain the green pigment chlorophyll, which is responsible Chloroplast, cell wall, plastids, and a la for photosynthesis.
Most of these are invisible because they are translucent and too small to see under a light microscope. These can only be seen with an electron microscope.
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explain why a quantitative pcr analysis cannot determine the size of the initial template the sequence in a dna sample.
Quantitative PCR analysis cannot determine the size of the initial template sequence in a DNA sample just because it measures the amount of particular sample present.
Building on the fundamental PCR technology, quantitative PCR (also known as quantitative real-time PCR, or qPCR) detection enables scientists to determine how much starting material is present in a sample. qPCR has a much greater dynamic range of analysis than traditional, end-point PCR since the products are detected as the reaction progresses; from one copy to approximately 1011 copies are recognized in a single run. Using a closed-tube format for quantitative real-time PCR and the subsequent amplicon identification, which does not require post-PCR processing such as gel electrophoresis, dramatically reduces the possibility of cross contamination. In order to determine indirectly how much nucleic acid is present during each cycle of amplification, qPCR uses a fluorescent reporter dye. During the reaction's repeating stages, the number of exponentially increasing PCR product molecules (amplicons) generated is directly proportional to the growth in fluorescence signal. Reporter molecules can be classified into one of three groups: additional dye-conjugated oligonucleotides known as probes, dyes attached to primers.
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what type of cell did you locate outside of the seminiferous tubule? what is the function of these cells?
Sertoli cells which feed the germ cells are found in seminiferous tubules. They create androgens and release them during spermatogenesis.
In Leydig cells, LH stimulates the production of T, whereas FSH stimulates the development of regulatory molecules and the nutrients needed to maintain spermatogenesis in Sertoli cells in conjunction with T. As a result, T and FSH indirectly regulate spermatogenesis via Sertoli cells.
LH-stimulated Leydig cell androgen production is necessary for the development and maintenance of the male reproductive system as well as for spermatogenesis. The testis of newborn boys and adult males after puberty contain a high concentration of interstitial cells of Leydig, which release testosterone. Leydig cells are also referred to as interstitial cells. They are located outside of seminiferous tubules in the interstitial spaces.
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Identify the physician who, in 1902, proposed a relationship between genes and the production of enzymes.
Sir Archibald Garrod, a British physician, was the first to postulate a link between genes and enzymes.
Who made the decision that genes dictate which enzymes exist?As demonstrated by Beadle and Tatum, genes specify enzymes. It was discovered that several enzymes were absent in Neurospora mutants unable to produce arginine. The "one gene/one polypeptide" theory was advanced by Beadle and Tatum. According to the core dogma, information travels through cells from DNA to RNA to proteins.
Who made the connection between DNA and proteins known?The discovery that the four bases of DNA, which at first glance appeared to be randomly arranged, actually formed a code dictating the arrangement of the twenty amino acids that make up the majority of proteins was made by Watson and Crick.
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for the following represents a basic flow chart of aerobic respiration. a-c) identify the major molecules that are produced at each step which are used to fuel the next step. d) identify the major product of respiration
The basic flow chart of aerobic respiration represents the major molecules that are produced at each step which are used to fuel the next step are ATP.
Respiration the use of oxygen to interrupt down meals molecules is referred to as cardio respiratory . 'Aero' method air, which incorporates oxygen, main to the call cardio respiratory. Glucose is the molecule usually used for respiratory - it's far the primary respiration substrate Oxygen and glucose are each reactants withinside the technique of cell respiratory.
The most important made of cell respiratory is ATP; waste merchandise consist of carbon dioxide and water. Aerobic respiratory is a sequence of enzyme-managed reactions that launch the strength saved up in carbohydrates and lipids in the course of photosynthesis and make it to be had to residing organisms. There are 4 stages: glycolysis, the reaction, the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.
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One main difference between thin skin and thick skin is that __________.
a. in thin skin, the stratum lucid appears to be absent
b. in thin skin, the stratum corner appears to be absent
c. in thin skin, there are no melanocytes
d. in thin skin, keratinocytes are absent
a) In thin skin, the stratum lucid appears to be absent.
Difference between thin and thick skin
Under a microscope, thick and thin skin have various appearances. The epidermis of thick skin has a fifth layer, whereas thin skin only has four layers. These layers are the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale, and stratum granulosum.
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what is similar about the mechanism of how alternative splicing is regulated in eukaryotes and transcriptional regulation in bacteria
Alternative splicing can allow one gene to produce distinct mRNAs. This is the mechanism of how alternative splicing is regulated in eukaryotes and transcriptional regulation in bacteria.
For the synthesis of proteins, mRNA is a form of RNA required. A protein is produced by cells, and the mRNA is rapidly degraded afterward. The mRNA produced by vaccines does not penetrate the nucleus and does not change DNA. an RNA subtype present in cells. The genetic material necessary for producing proteins is carried by mRNA molecules. They move the data from the DNA in the cell's nucleus to the cytoplasm, where proteins are produced.
The cells of eukaryotes are nucleated creatures. Eukaryotes include all animal species, plants, fungi, and a wide variety of single-celled creatures. One of the three domains of life is known as the Eukarya, which is a class of organisms. The remaining two domains are bacterial and archaeal.
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how are genomic libraries created? a. there is only one method - commercialized genomic testing kits. b. there is only one method - mrna is used with reverse transcriptase to make complementary dna. c. there are multiple methods - the main one uses molecular cloning to amplify fragments of genomes for further study and addition to a collection (the genomic library). d. there are multiple methods - the main one uses analysis of rna to condense genetic material into readable bits that align themselves into a genomic library.
There are multiple methods - the main one uses molecular cloning to amplify fragments of genomic study and addition to a collection
What are genomic libraries?A genomic library is a comprehensive collection of cloned DNA snippets that make up an organism's whole genome.
Methods such as shot gun experiment is used , in which the entire genome of the is cloned in a random sequence .Construction of a genomic library involves the isolation of genomic DNA, purification of the genomic DNA and fragmentation of genomic DNA into desired size , then cloning of the fragmented DNA using a suitable vector .An organism's entire genome can be represented statistically by a genomic library, which is made up of overlapping genomic DNA segments cloned into such a backbone vector.Hence, genomic libraries are created by different methods .
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in the gi tract, a food bolus is converted into a semiliquid mass of partly digested food and digesteive secretions known as
The enzymes break down the bolus of food, converting it into semiliquid mass of partly digested food and digestive secretions known as chyme.
The digestion process involves four phases. Ingestion, or gathering food into the digestive secretions, is the initial phase. Although it may appear like a straightforward process, ingestion entails smelling the meal, contemplating the food, and the uncontrollable production of saliva in the mouth to get ready for food entry. The first stages of the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food start in the mouth, where the second stage of digestion takes place. Enzymes are used in the chemical breakdown of food to separate its constituent parts. Amylase, an enzyme that starts breaking down complex carbohydrates, is secreted in the mouth. Mastication, or chewing, in the mouth is the first stage of mechanical breakdown.
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a) the first fossils of animals with hard parts appeared about 541 million years ago. what percentage of geologic time does the fossil record represent? express your answer as a percentage with two significant figures. % (b) modern humans (homo sapiens sapiens) appeared about 300,000 (0.3 million) years ago (mounier and lahr, 2019). for what percentage of earth’s history has earth been occupied by modern humans? express your answer as a percentage with two significant figures. %
a) The fossil record accounts for 20% of all geologic time.
b) 0.007% of earth’s history has earth been occupied by modern humans.
What are fossils, and what do they contain?Fossils are the remains or traces of extinct living things. Examples include fossilized bones, shells, exoskeletons, animal or microbe imprints in stone, amber-preserved objects, hair, petrified wood, oil, coal, and DNA traces.
The collection of all known and undiscovered fossils over a period of time is known as the fossil record.
Among the reasons fossil records are significant are:
1) Scientists can learn about the Earth's past by studying fossil records.
2) The evolution of organisms that are alive today is inferred from fossil records.
3). It is useful to comprehend the evolution of life in.
Therefore, 20% of geologic time is represented by the fossil record.
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a team of scientists is trying to categorize a new life form they believe is an insect. on what criteria will the scientists base their decision on whether or not to classify the creature as an insect?
The team will study insects in the phylogenetic tree to see if their new creature resembles one of the tree's branches.
Insects are pancrustacean hexapod person who has no strength of the class Insecta. They are the best group inside the bug phylum. Insects have a chitinous exoskeleton, a three-part body, three pairs of slay and prepare animal for meat poles, compound eyes, and individual pairs of feelers.
A phylogenetic tree, also known as a theory of evolution, is a drawing that describes a foul line of developmental lowering of different varieties, animals, or genes from a coarse founder. Phylogenetic trees are the main tools for systematizing information of organic difference, and they correspond speculated evolutionary friendships with residing groups of taxa (monophyletic groups) that are by means of joint characteristics known as synapomorphies.
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your research project involves sea cucumbers, a poorly-understood group of echinoderms. you are trying to determine whether they block polyspermy by changing membrane potential like sea urchins do. in the chart below, you have counted the number of embryos that complete normal development after fertilization in either normal or low-sodium artificial sea water (asw), for each of three sets of experiments. looking over your data, what do you conclude?
Fast block (charge differences across the plasma membrane stop more sperm from binding as sodium ions seep into the egg and generate depolarization, a reduction in the membrane potential).
The development of blastocysts won't be hampered if a small mass of cells detached from a human blast ula since this mass is made up of embryonic stem cells that will differentiate into the many cell types that the organisms require. Right, the last drop off will support the play area and feed the developing child. On either side of the neural tube in the growing embryo of a vertebrate, somites are blocks of mesoderm. So, a crucial developmental stage that resulted in the construction of the original embryo's dorsal side may have been do
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hromatin immunoprecipitation and dna sequencing (chip-seq) can be used to identify regions of the genome that can indicate promoters, enhancers, and transcription factor-binding motifs. chip-seq is an example of: genetic approach all of these approaches none of these approaches evolutionary approach biochemical approach
Chip-seq is an example of biochemical approach.Thus correct option(d).
The biological approach believes behavior to be as a consequence of our genetics and physiology. It is the only approach in psychology that examines thoughts, feelings, and behaviors from a biological and thus physical point of view. Therefore, all that is psychological is first physiological.
An example of the biological approach to psychology would be the fear response. The fear response gives way to fight, or freeze behaviors. Which course of action an individual takes in the presence of a stressor relies on their biological make-up.
Psychologists can better understand how the brain and physiological processes may affect how individuals think, behave, and feel by examining the biological underpinnings of human behavior.
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the majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. the majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. true false
The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. the majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. Given statement are false.
Instead of being the primary cause of disease, S. aureus is typically isolated from an abscess, boil, or other skin lesion as a result of its secondary invasion of a wound. Similar to abscesses, breast abscesses or mastitis, dermatitis or skin infections, and genital tract infections, S. aureus can also be isolated from these conditions.
Clinical specimens are often cultured on Blood agar to isolate staphylococci (described in Lab 14). A spherical, elevated, opaque colony with a diameter of 1-2 mm is produced by staphylococci. The novobiocin disc is used to assess novobiocin sensitivity or resistance.
It is the main contributor to skin and soft tissue infections such cellulitis, furuncles, and abscesses (boils). S. aureus can cause serious infections such bloodstream infections, pneumonia, or bone and joint infections, even though most staph infections are not dangerous.
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if there are 100 individuals in a population and 20 are homozygous for b, 60 are heterozygous, and 20 are homozygous for b, what is the allele frequency of b?
If there are 100 individuals in a population and 20 are homozygous for b, 60 are heterozygous, and 20 are homozygous for b, the allele frequency of b is 50%.
Allele frequency, sometimes referred to as gene frequency, is the percentage or fractional frequency of an allele (gene variant) at a certain location in a population. What is being discussed is the proportion of chromosomes in the population that carry that allele in comparison to the entire population or sample size. The slow change in allele frequencies within a population is known as microevolution.
Taking into consideration:
1. A particular allele at a particular chromosomal region.
2. A collection of N individuals with ploidy n, which denotes that each individual's somatic cells have n copies of each chromosome (e.g. two chromosomes in the cells of diploid species).
If an allele is found in a population on I chromosomes, the allele frequency is the proportion of all I occurrences of that allele to the total number of copies of the chromosome in the population (nN). Despite being related, the genotype frequency and the allele frequency are separate and one can infer the other from the other.
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22) plant growth regulators can be characterized by all of the following except that they a) may act by altering gene expression. b) have a multiplicity of effects. c) function independently of other hormones. d) control plant growth and development. e) affect division, elongation, and differentiation of cells.
Plant growth regulators can be characterized by all of the following except that they c) function independently of other hormones.
In the field of botany, plant growth regulators can be described as such proteins that influence the growth rate in a plant. For increasing or decreasing the rate of plant growth, the gene expression for proteins that are associated with the formation of plant growth regulators is altered.
The plant growth regulators can either increase or decrease the growth of a plant and hence have multiple effects. They usually work by elongation the cells and promoting the differentiation of cells. However, they do not function independently of other hormones or proteins.
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All of the following statements are true. Which one statement describes the biggest impact that sickle-cell disease has over the organs and organ systems of the body?Mutated hemoglobin molecules result in misshapen red blood cells that cannot function to transport oxygen in the body.
Organ injury. sickle-shaped red blood cells as a result of mutated hemoglobin proteins. Sickle cells that restrict blood flow deplete organs of both oxygen and blood. In sickle cell anemia, blood oxygen levels are also abnormally low. This deficiency in oxygen-rich blood can be lethal and harm nerves and organs including the kidneys, liver, and spleen.
The most frequent cause of Sickled cells complications and the main reason patients with Sickled cells visit the ER or hospital is pain. Sickled cells can become caught and impede blood flow throughout the body when moving via tiny blood veins, which hurts.
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compare your d1s80 pcr product with those of the rest of the class. did any students have genotypes similar to yours? how could you explain such similarities?
The mitochondrial DNA itself will vary between students because each of us inherited it from our moms; but since the same region is being amplified, the sequences of our PCR result will be the same.
Despite the fact that each student's mitochondrial DNA is unique because we all received it from our mothers, the sequences of our PCR results will be the same because the same region is being amplified. The fluid around the nucleus contains hundreds to thousands of mitochondria per cell (the cytoplasm).
The majority of DNA is stored on chromosomes in the nucleus, while mitochondria only store a little amount of their own DNA. This genetic material is referred to as "mtDNA," or mitochondrial DNA. In the human mitochondria, 16,500 DNA base pairs, or about 5% of the total, are present.
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According to the size principle of motor recruitment, in what order will muscle fibers be recruited during activity?
Smallest and fastest firing rate to largest and slowest firing rate
Largest and fastest firing rate to smallest and slowest firing rate
Smallest and slowest firing rate to largest and fastest firing rate
Largest and slowest firing rate to smallest and fastest firing rate
Correct Option is ( C) Smallest as well as slowest firing type of rate to the largest and fastest type of firing rate. For muscle type of recruitment patterns, it is also crucial to say a precept that governs the order of recruitment, termed Henneman's length precept.
It states that smaller muscles are recruited first as they may be particularly fatigue resistant and convey small quantities of pressure The accurate order of systems of a muscle from smallest to biggest is: muscle fiber, endomysium, fascicles, perimysium, epimysium.
Motor very commonly recruited so as of smallest to biggest (smallest motor neurons to biggest motor neurons, and as a consequence sluggish to speedy twitch) as contraction increases. This is called Henneman's length precept. Based at the dimensions, the above-cited systems may be organized withinside the following manner from the most important to the smallest component: Muscle fiber → Myofibril → Sarcomere → Thin-filaments →Troponin. Therefore, the best series of order is 5, 2, 3, 4, 1.
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Correct Question:
According to the size principle of motor recruitment, in what order will muscle fibers be recruited during activity?
a). Smallest and fastest firing rate to largest and slowest firing rate.
b). Largest and fastest firing rate to smallest and slowest firing rate.
c). Smallest and slowest firing rate to largest and fastest firing rate.
d). Largest and slowest firing rate to smallest and fastest firing rate.