Hypertonic hydration occurs when extracellular fluid is diluted with too much water and normal sodium. True False

Answers

Answer 1

The given statement "Hypertonic hydration occurs when extracellular fluid is diluted with too much water and normal sodium" is FALSE.

What is hypertonic hydration?

Hypertonic hydration occurs when the extracellular fluid has a higher solute concentration than the cell's cytoplasm. This causes water to move into the cell, causing it to expand. Hypertonic hydration results from excessive salt or sodium intake or by drinking too much water.

However, the opposite of hypertonic hydration, called hypotonic hydration, occurs when there is too much water in the extracellular fluid, which leads to cells swelling and possibly rupturing. In hypertonic hydration, extracellular fluid is too concentrated with respect to solutes, whereas in hypotonic hydration, it is too dilute.

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Related Questions

When comparing testicular and prostate cancers, which of the following is related only to prostate cancer:
A• Commonly metastasizes before being identified
B• High cure rate following an orchiectory of affected testicle and chemotherapy.
C© A risk factor is - having a history off an undescended testicle.
D. A risk factor is - having more than 10 sexual partners.

Answers

None of the given options is related only to prostate cancer. It is important to note that both testicular and prostate cancers have unique characteristics, risk factors, and treatment approaches.

Let's analyze each option:

A. Commonly metastasizes before being identified: This statement does not apply only to prostate cancer. Both testicular and prostate cancers have the potential to metastasize before being identified, depending on the stage and aggressiveness of the cancer.

B. High cure rate following an orchiectomy of affected testicle and chemotherapy: This option is specific to testicular cancer. Orchiectomy (surgical removal of the affected testicle) is a common treatment for testicular cancer, and chemotherapy is often used as an adjuvant therapy. Prostate cancer does not typically involve orchiectomy as a primary treatment.

C. A risk factor is having a history of an undescended testicle: This statement is not specific to prostate cancer. A history of an undescended testicle is a known risk factor for testicular cancer, but it is not directly related to prostate cancer.

D. A risk factor is having more than 10 sexual partners: This statement is also not specific to prostate cancer. Having multiple sexual partners is considered a risk factor for various sexually transmitted infections, including some types of human papillomavirus (HPV) that can increase the risk of developing certain cancers, including prostate cancer. However, it is not a risk factor exclusively associated with prostate cancer.

None of the given options is related only to prostate cancer. It is important to note that both testicular and prostate cancers have unique characteristics, risk factors, and treatment approaches.

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An order is received for the following to be added to a standard TPN solution containing 50% dextrose, 10% amino acids, and 20% lipids. Calculate the amount of each additive to be included

Answers

The amount of each additive to be included in the new solution is as follows: Dextrose - 4 grams. Amino acids - 6.5 grams, Lipids - 10 grams. An order is received for the following to be added to a standard TPN solution containing 50% dextrose, 10% amino acids, and 20% lipids. Calculate the amount of each additive to be included.

The TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) solution contains dextrose, amino acids, and lipids. The order needs to be added in the same TPN solution. The new solution is as follows: 10% dextrose, 3.5% amino acids, and 10% lipids. The volume of the TPN solution is 1 L. We have to calculate the amount of each additive to be included.

Step 1: Find the amount of dextrose in the new solution. The TPN solution contains 50% dextrose. We need 10% dextrose in the new solution.

The difference between 50% and 10% dextrose is 40%.

So, we need 40% of the TPN solution to be added. 40% of 1L is 0.4 L.

Therefore, the amount of dextrose to be added = 0.4 × 10 = 4 grams.

Step 2: Find the amount of amino acids in the new solution

The TPN solution contains 10% amino acids. We need 3.5% amino acids in the new solution.

The difference between 10% and 3.5% amino acids is 6.5%.

So, we need 6.5% of the TPN solution to be added. 6.5% of 1L is 0.065 L.

Therefore, the amount of amino acids to be added = 0.065 × 100 g/L = 6.5 grams.

Step 3: Find the amount of lipids in the new solution:

The TPN solution contains 20% lipids. We need 10% lipids in the new solution. The difference between 20% and 10% lipids is 10%. So, we need 10% of the TPN solution to be added. 10% of 1L is 0.1 L.

Therefore, the amount of lipids to be added = 0.1 × 100 g/L = 10 grams.

Therefore, the amount of each additive to be included in the new solution is as follows: Dextrose - 4 grams. Amino acids - 6.5 grams, Lipids - 10 grams.

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The blood pressure in someone's heart is 1.70 104 Pa at a
certain instant. An artery in the brain is 0.42 m above the heart.
What is the pressure in the artery? The density of blood is 1060
kg/m^.

Answers

The pressure in the artery is 4380.588 Pa.

Blood pressure in the heart and an artery in the brain A blood pressure of [tex]1.70 \times10^4[/tex]Pa at a particular instant is present in someone's heart. The artery in the brain is 0.42 m above the heart. We need to calculate the pressure in the artery using the given information.

The hydrostatic equation relates the pressure difference to the height difference of a fluid column. As we have a fluid column, that is, blood in this case, we can use the hydrostatic equation to relate the pressure difference to the height difference of the column. Pressure is directly proportional to the density of the fluid column and the height of the column. P = ρgh

Where: P = Pressure ρ = Density g = Acceleration due to gravity h = Height of the fluid column As the density of the fluid column remains constant, we can directly relate the pressure difference to the height difference between two points. Using this information, we can relate the pressure at the heart and the artery.

Pressure at the heart =  Pa Height difference between the heart and the artery = 0.42 mWe can now calculate the pressure at the artery using the above equation.Pressure at the artery = ρgh= 1060 kg/m³ * 9.81 m/s² * 0.42 m= 4380.588 Pa

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The parent states that the child will not chew the tablet but will take oral liquids. Erythromycin is also available as 400 mg/5 mL. After obtaining the physician's
permission for the change, how many milliliters should be dispensed?
How many milliliters would be needed per dose?

Answers

The amount of oral liquid erythromycin to be dispensed depends on the prescribed dosage. Without the dosage information, the specific milliliter amount cannot be determined.

When converting from a tablet formulation (e.g., 400 mg) to an oral liquid formulation (e.g., 400 mg/5 mL), the prescribed dosage must be provided by the physician. The dosage will determine the amount of liquid to be dispensed. For example, if the prescribed dosage is 200 mg, then half of the tablet's strength should be dispensed, resulting in a specific amount in milliliters.

Furthermore, the milliliters needed per dose will depend on the prescribed dosage. The physician will specify the desired dosage, usually in milligrams (mg), and the pharmacist will calculate the corresponding volume of oral liquid needed for each dose. This calculation is based on the concentration of the oral liquid formulation, such as 400 mg/5 mL.

To determine the exact amount in milliliters for dispensing and per dose, the physician's prescribed dosage is essential. Only with the specific dosage information can the pharmacist accurately calculate the appropriate volume of oral liquid to dispense and the milliliters required per dose.

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Complete the following medication using the information below.
1. Doxorubicin
2. Methotrexate
Medication Name:
Generic:
Brand:
2. Category Class of Medication:
3. Indicated use for of the drug or diseases:
4. Mechanism of action of the drug:
5. Medication administration and usual doses:
6. Common Side Effects:
7. Adverse Effects:
8. Contraindications and Interactions

Answers

The complete medications using the given information are as follows: 1. Doxorubicin: Medication Name: Doxorubicin Generic: Doxorubicin , Brand: Adriamycin, 2. Category Class of Medication: Chemotherapy medication/ Anthracycline

3. Indicated use for of the drug or diseases: Doxorubicin is used to treat various types of cancers such as lung cancer, bladder cancer, breast cancer, ovarian cancer, and stomach cancer, etc.

4. Mechanism of action of the drug: Doxorubicin is an anti-cancer medication that works by blocking the activity of an enzyme called Topoisomerase II. It interrupts the DNA replication process, thereby inhibiting cancer cell growth and proliferation.

5. Medication administration and usual doses: The medication is usually given as an injection into a vein by a healthcare professional. The usual dose of doxorubicin ranges from 60 mg/m² to 75 mg/m², which is typically administered every 3-4 weeks.

6. Common Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, mouth sores, loss of appetite, hair loss, etc.

7. Adverse Effects: Cardiomyopathy, congestive heart failure, and decreased ability to fight infections.

8. Contraindications and Interactions: The medication is contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to Doxorubicin. Doxorubicin can interact with various medications like anticoagulants, live vaccines, and other cancer medications.

The second medication is as follows:

2. Methotrexate

Medication Name: Methotrexate, Generic: Methotrexate, Brand: Trexall

2. Category Class of Medication: Chemotherapy medication/ Antimetabolite

3. Indicated use for of the drug or diseases: Methotrexate is used to treat several types of cancer such as breast cancer, head and neck cancer, and skin cancer. It is also used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and ectopic pregnancy.

4. Mechanism of action of the drug: Methotrexate is an antimetabolite medication that inhibits the metabolism of folic acid. Folic acid is required for the growth of cancer cells, so by inhibiting its metabolism, Methotrexate inhibits cancer cell growth.

5. Medication administration and usual doses: The medication is taken orally, injected into a muscle, or injected into a vein by a healthcare professional. The usual dose of Methotrexate ranges from 5 mg to 30 mg, depending on the condition being treated.

6. Common Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, mouth sores, hair loss, diarrhea, etc.

7. Adverse Effects: Bone marrow suppression, liver damage, kidney damage, and lung damage.

8. Contraindications and Interactions: The medication is contraindicated in pregnant women, breastfeeding mothers, and patients with liver or kidney disease. Methotrexate can interact with various medications like NSAIDs, antibiotics, and other cancer medications.

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Case Study Assignment Content Part 1. Choose any 3 drugs of any system we covered this class; for each drug. list its indication and adverse/side effects. Part 2. Using the nursing process with your critical thinking and reasoning skills to indicate how you would care for your patient: (CARE PLAN) a. Assess the patient on these drugs b. Give 2 nursing diagnosis for each drug c. Each nursing diagnosis-2 outcomes d. Each outcome-3 intervention I e. Give ways to implement nursing care to ensure continuity of care for the patient on these drugs f. Evaluate the effectiveness of your nursing care and modify as needed

Answers

Selecting three drugs, providing their indications and adverse/side effects, and then utilizing the nursing process to develop a comprehensive care plan for a patient receiving these drugs. The care plan includes assessing the patient, identifying nursing diagnoses, establishing outcomes, implementing interventions, ensuring continuity of care, and evaluating the effectiveness of nursing care provided.

For Part 1 of the assignment, you need to select three drugs from any system covered in your class. For each drug, you should provide its indication, which refers to the specific condition or disease for which the drug is prescribed.

Additionally, you need to list the adverse/side effects associated with each drug, which are the unwanted or harmful effects that may occur when taking the medication.

In Part 2, you will use the nursing process to develop a care plan for a patient who is receiving these drugs. This involves assessing the patient's condition, collecting relevant data, and identifying any potential risks or concerns related to the medications.

Based on your assessment, you will then establish two nursing diagnoses for each drug, which are concise statements describing the patient's actual or potential health problems.

For each nursing diagnosis, you will set two outcomes that reflect the desired patient outcomes or goals. These outcomes should be measurable and achievable. Following that, you will develop three interventions for each outcome, which are specific actions or strategies aimed at addressing the nursing diagnoses and achieving the desired outcomes.

To ensure continuity of care, you will need to consider ways to implement nursing care that promotes collaboration, communication, and coordination among healthcare providers. This may involve creating a comprehensive care plan, utilizing standardized protocols, and effectively communicating with the interdisciplinary team.

Finally, you will evaluate the effectiveness of your nursing care by assessing whether the desired outcomes have been achieved. If necessary, you will modify the care plan accordingly to ensure the patient's needs are met and their health is optimized.

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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 10 hours after he accidentally ingested an unknown amount of windshield washer fluid. He is confused. He has tachypnea and tachycardia. Physical examination shows hyperemia of both optic discs. Serum studies show an anion gap metabolic acidosis. His serum methanol concentration is 35 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of the toxicity in this patient?
A. Covalent attachment of methanol to protein side chains
B. Methanol-induced denaturation of proteins
C. Methanol-induced disruption of cellular membranes
D. Methanol oxidation
E. Methanol reduction

Answers

The most likely mechanism of the toxicity in this patient with symptoms of tachypnea and tachycardia is D.methanol oxidation.

What is methanol poisoning?

Methanol is a toxic chemical that can cause poisoning in humans when ingested, inhaled, or absorbed through the skin. Methanol is a byproduct of wood alcohol and is sometimes used as an alternative to ethanol (also known as grain alcohol). Ethanol is used to make alcoholic beverages, while methanol is used to make solvents and antifreeze. Because it is colorless and odorless, methanol is often mistaken for ethanol, and accidental methanol poisoning can occur as a result. Symptoms of methanol poisoning can range from mild to severe, and can even be life-threatening. Tachypnea and tachycardia are symptoms of methanol poisoning. Methanol poisoning causes tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and tachypnea (rapid breathing) as a result of respiratory and metabolic acidosis. Methanol causes acidosis by being converted to formic acid, which is then converted to carbon dioxide and water.

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L.S. is a 7-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department (ED) by his mother. She immediately tells you he has a history of ED visits for his asthma. He uses an inhaler when he wheezes, but it ran out a month ago. She is a single parent and has two other children at home with a babysitter. Your assessment finds L.S. alert, oriented, and extremely anxious. His color is pale, and his nail beds are dusky and cool to the touch; other findings are heart rate 136 beats/min, respiratory rate 36 breaths/min regular and even, oral temperature 37.3" C (99.1* F), Sa02 89%, breath sounds decreased in lower lobes bilaterally and congested with inspiratory and expiratory wheezes, prolonged expirations, and a productive cough. QUESTIONS: 1. As you ask Ms. S. questions, you note that L.S.'s respiratory rate is increasing; he is sitting on the side of the bed, leaning slightly forward, and is having difficulty breathing. Give interventions are appropriate at this time and rationalize it. 2. Identify the nursing responsibilities associated with giving bronchodilators. 3. He improves and 24 hours later is transferred to the floor. Asthma teaching is ordered. You assess Ms. S.'s understanding of asthma and her understanding of the disorder L.S. tells you that he loves to play basketball and football and asks you whether he can still do these activities. How will you respond? 4. What additional information should be included in your discharge teaching regarding how to prevent acute asthmatic episodes and how to manage symptoms of exacerbation of asthma? 1. As you ask Ms. S. questions, you note that L.S.'s respiratory rate is increasing; he is sitting on the side of the bed, leaning slightly forward, and is having difficulty breathing. Give interventions are appropriate at this time and rationalize it. 2. Identify the nursing responsibilities associated with giving bronchodilators. 3. He improves and 24 hours later is transferred to the floor. Asthma teaching is ordered. You assess Ms. S.'s understanding of asthma and her understanding of the disorder L.S. tells you that he loves to play basketball and football and asks you whether he can still do these activities. How will you respond? 4. What additional information should be included in your discharge teaching regarding how to prevent acute asthmatic episodes and how to manage symptoms of exacerbation of asthma? 1. As you ask Ms. S. questions, you note that L.S.'s respiratory rate is increasing; he is sitting on the side of the bed, leaning slightly forward, and is having difficulty breathing. Give interventions are appropriate at this time and rationalize it. 2. Identify the nursing responsibilities associated with giving bronchodilators. 3. He improves and 24 hours later is transferred to the floor. Asthma teaching is ordered. You assess Ms. S.'s understanding of asthma and her understanding of the disorder L.S. tells you that he loves to play basketball and football and asks you whether he can still do these activities. How will you respond? 4. What additional information should be included in your discharge teaching regarding how to prevent acute asthmatic episodes and how to manage symptoms of exacerbation of asthma?

Answers

Administer supplemental oxygen, position L.S. upright, provide reassurance, and administer a short-acting bronchodilator to alleviate respiratory distress. Assess respiratory status, educate on medication use, monitor for adverse effects, and document bronchodilator administration.

With proper asthma management, L.S. can still participate in physical activities, emphasizing the need for control, medication use, and symptom monitoring. Discharge teaching should include trigger avoidance, inhaler use, asthma action plan, recognizing worsening symptoms, managing asthma in different environments, and educating family members.

As L.S.'s respiratory rate is increasing and he is experiencing difficulty breathing, immediate interventions are required. Administering supplemental oxygen helps improve oxygenation, while positioning L.S. upright helps optimize lung expansion. Providing reassurance helps alleviate anxiety, and administering a short-acting bronchodilator, such as albuterol, helps relax the airway smooth muscles and relieve bronchoconstriction, improving L.S.'s breathing.

Nursing responsibilities associated with giving bronchodilators include assessing respiratory status before and after administration, monitoring vital signs and oxygen saturation, documenting the medication administration, educating the patient and family on proper inhaler technique, and monitoring for any adverse effects or allergic reactions.

When L.S. asks about participating in basketball and football, it is important to respond positively and encourage his involvement in physical activities. Emphasize that with proper asthma management, including regular use of prescribed medications, monitoring symptoms, and having an asthma action plan, he can still engage in sports while minimizing the risk of exacerbations.

In discharge teaching, additional information should be provided on avoiding triggers that may precipitate acute asthmatic episodes, such as allergens or irritants. Educate L.S. and his family on proper inhaler use, including correct technique and timing of medication administration. Provide an asthma action plan outlining steps to manage worsening symptoms or exacerbations. Emphasize the importance of regular follow-up with healthcare providers and the need for ongoing monitoring and adjustments to the treatment plan as necessary.

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What is the main use of the EMB agar plate?

Answers

The EMB agar plate stands for Eosin Methylene Blue agar plate. It is a selective and differential media commonly used to detect and isolate fecal coliforms. It is utilized to determine the presence of bacteria such as Escherichia coli in a sample.

This media can differentiate between lactose fermenters and lactose non-fermenters because of the presence of dyes in the agar.The dyes are selective because only the gram-negative bacteria can withstand the lethal effects of the eosin Y and methylene blue. The acidic products from lactose fermentation produce a metallic green sheen around the colonies of lactose fermenters, which helps in their differentiation from non-fermenters that have a pale coloration.

The EMB agar plate is particularly useful in the differentiation of lactose-fermenting and non-lactose fermenting bacteria.The EMB agar plate's primary use is to distinguish between fecal and non-fecal coliform bacteria. EMB agar is an important medium used in the examination of water, food, and dairy products to detect the presence of coliform bacteria. This test is essential in identifying harmful pathogens and establishing water and food safety.

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500ml normal saline to run at is 3D gtts/mL. How many atts/min ?

Answers

The number of atts/min is 750 atts/min. Therefore, the answer to the question is 750 atts/min.

Given that500 ml normal saline to run at is 3D gtts/mL

We are to find the atts/min.To find the atts/min, we will convert the volume from ml to drops first as shown below;1 ml = 3D gtts/ 3 ml = 3*3D gtts = 9D gtts

Now, the 500 ml is converted to drops as follows;500 ml = 500 * 9D gtts = 4500D gtts/min

But we have not yet found the answer to our question; we are still finding atts/min. Let us first find the atts/min by converting the gtts to atts as shown below;1 atts = 6 gtts

Therefore, the number of atts/min is;4500/6 = 750 atts/min

Therefore, the answer to the question is 750 atts/min.

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A patient is to receive methadone (Dolophine) 2.5 mg (IM) now. The medication is available in intramuscularly a concentration of 10 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of methadone will be drawn up

Answers

The healthcare provider would need to draw up 0.25 mL of the medication. This calculation is based on the concentration of methadone available, which is 10 mg/mL.

To determine the volume of methadone to be drawn up, we need to divide the desired dose (2.5 mg) by the concentration of the medication (10 mg/mL).

Using the formula:

Volume (mL) = Desired dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL)

Plugging in the values:

Volume (mL) = 2.5 mg / 10 mg/mL

Calculating the result:

Volume (mL) = 0.25 mL

Therefore, to administer 2.5 mg of methadone intramuscularly using a concentration of 10 mg/mL, the healthcare provider would need to draw up 0.25 mL of the medication.

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after prolonged fasting (more than a week), blood glucose is higher than before the fast, and erratic, what is the basis of this?

Answers

During prolonged fasting, after a week or more, the blood glucose level increases compared to the level before the fast. The reason behind this erratic rise is gluconeogenesis that is the process by which glucose is generated from non-carbohydrate sources.

The process of gluconeogenesis is the process by which glucose is synthesized from non-carbohydrate precursors in the liver cells. It provides glucose to various tissues when glucose supply is low and energy is required. A few amino acids and fatty acids serve as precursors for the synthesis of glucose in the liver cells. These are either obtained from the muscle or the adipose tissues that have been degraded to produce energy.

Blood glucose level and gluconeogenesis The level of glucose in the blood is essential to maintain a healthy life and to supply energy to the various cells of the body. Gluconeogenesis plays a crucial role in regulating the level of glucose in the blood. During the fast, the body is in need of energy, and the glucose level in the blood decreases. To supply energy to the body, gluconeogenesis becomes active, and glucose is synthesized from non-carbohydrate precursors such as amino acids and fatty acids.

The process of gluconeogenesis continues to keep the glucose level in the blood at an appropriate level. When fasting continues for an extended period, the glycogen stores in the liver also decrease, and the body needs more glucose to provide energy. In such a case, gluconeogenesis may become hyperactive, leading to the production of excess glucose that leads to an erratic increase in the glucose level in the blood.  

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Sydney Lanes, a local bowling alley, installed automatic scorekeeping equipment. The electrical work required to prepare for the installation was $18,000. The invoice price of the equipment was $180,000.Additional costs were $3,000 for delivery and $600 for insurance during transportation. During the installation, a component of the equipment was damaged because it was carelessly left on a lane and hit by the automatic lane cleaning machine. The cost of repairing the component was $2,250. What is the cost that should be capitalized of the automatic scorekeeping equipment?

Answers

Explanation:

The cost that should be capitalized of the automatic scorekeeping equipment is $201,750.

To arrive at this answer, we need to add up all the costs incurred in preparing for and acquiring the equipment. These costs include:

1. Electrical work: $18,000

2. Invoice price of equipment: $180,000

3. Delivery: $3,000

4. Insurance during transportation: $600

5. Cost of repairing damaged component: $2,250

Adding these costs together gives us a total of $203,850. However, we need to subtract the cost of repairing the damaged component since it is considered a repair expense and not part of the cost of acquiring the equipment. Therefore, the cost that should be capitalized of the automatic scorekeeping equipment is $201,750.

1.5 L within 10 hours.
drop factor is 15 gtt/min
Find the
___mL/hour
___mL/minute
____gtt/min

Answers

To calculate the mL/hour, mL/minute, and gtt/min, we can use the given information. The infusion rate for this scenario would be 150 mL/hour, 2.5 mL/minute, and 37.5 gtt/min.

To find the mL/hour, we need to convert the volume from liters to milliliters and divide it by the time in hours. In this case, 1.5 L is equal to 1500 mL (1 L = 1000 mL). So, the mL/hour rate would be 1500 mL divided by 10 hours, which equals 150 mL/hour.

To calculate the mL/minute, we divide the mL/hour rate by 60 (since there are 60 minutes in an hour). Therefore, 150 mL/hour divided by 60 minutes equals 2.5 mL/minute.

To determine the gtt/min, we multiply the mL/minute rate by the drop factor. In this case, 2.5 mL/minute multiplied by 15 gtt/min equals 37.5 gtt/min.

Therefore, the infusion rate for this scenario would be 150 mL/hour, 2.5 mL/minute, and 37.5 gtt/min.

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The muscles that carry out contraction in the patellar reflex is
the group of hamstrings.
TRUE OR FALSE

Answers

Answer:

False. The muscles that carry out contraction in the patellar reflex are the quadriceps muscles.

Answer:

False

Explanation:

A nurse is caring for a client who is post operative following arthroscopy and reports a pain scale level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 after receiving ketorolac 1hr ago,which of the following actions should the nurse take.
A administer oxycodene 5mg orally
B .Give acetamninophen 650mg rectally
C. Tell the client they can have another dose of ketorolac in 3hrs

Answers

The nurse should consider taking the following action: administer oxycodone 5mg orally, The correct option is A.

The client's pain level is still at 6 out of 10 after receiving ketorolac, which indicates that the current medication may not be providing adequate pain relief. Administering a stronger analgesic like oxycodone can help better manage the client's pain.

However, it's important for the nurse to follow the facility's protocols and consult the healthcare provider for specific medication orders and dosage instructions. Oxycodone is a potent opioid analgesic that is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain. It belongs to the class of medications known as opioid agonists, which work by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system to reduce pain perception, The correct option is A.

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A patient with severe BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) is at risk for hydronephrosis. True False indicative of: Si"

Answers

A patient with severe BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) is at risk for hydronephrosis - True

Hydronephrosis refers to a possibility in a patient with severe benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The non-cancerous enlargement of prostate gland, which can restrict overall flow of urine, is what distinguishes BPH from other conditions. The urethra may get compressed when the prostate grows, preventing the flow of urine from the bladder.

The condition which is known as hydronephrosis, which results from a buildup of urine in the kidneys, can be brought on by this typical obstruction. If untreated, hydronephrosis can be a dangerous condition that calls for medical attention to clear the obstruction and avoid future problems.

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Will a specific theory support my concept of excellent
nursing practice?

Answers

For determining if a specific theory supports your concept of excellent nursing practice, you must first identify the key components of the theory and compare them to your concept.

Then, you must evaluate the theory's applicability to your practice. Key components of the theory include the underlying assumptions and concepts, as well as the theoretical framework for practice. These must be examined to see how they align with the goals and objectives of your nursing practice.

Theory can assist in the development of an excellent nursing practice by providing a framework for understanding and describing the complexities of nursing practice. A nursing theory provides guidance for the practice of nursing, as well as a means for evaluating and measuring the effectiveness of nursing interventions.

Theory can provide insight into how nurses should behave in certain situations. Nurses can use the theory to guide their practice by providing a set of values or standards to follow. In addition, theory can help nurses understand the impact of the environment on patient outcomes and the importance of providing care that is culturally appropriate. Theories may provide general or specific guidelines, and it is important to evaluate the theory to see if it can be applied to your specific situation.

The theory must be analyzed and evaluated for its applicability to your nursing practice. In addition, it is important to consider the practical implications of applying the theory to your practice and whether the theory will be effective in achieving your goals.

Finally, nursing theories can be used to guide research and provide a foundation for the development of evidence-based practice guidelines. Therefore, it is important to evaluate theories to determine their potential usefulness in guiding nursing practice and research.

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Assume you want to examine the reponse of a number strains to a 2,3,5 triphenyltetrazolium (TTC) agar overlay. Place the available options in the correct order (start to finish) that would allow you to perform the test most effectively.
1. Place YPD agar medium with strains at 30°C
2. Assess any color formation in the TC overlay after an appropriate period of time
3. Wait to for TTC to set
4. Inoculate strains on the surface of YPD agar medium in small patches
5. Overlay molten TC agarose
6. Incubate the strains for 48-72 hours.

Answers

Triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC) is a redox indicator and has been employed as an electron acceptor in a wide range of microbiological assays.

If you want to examine the reponse of a number strains to a 2,3,5 triphenyltetrazolium (TTC) agar overlay, then the most effective steps to perform the test are given below:

Step 1: Inoculate strains on the surface of YPD agar medium in small patches.

Step 2: Overlay molten TC agarose.

Step 3: Wait for TTC to set.

Step 4: Place YPD agar medium with strains at 30°C.

Step 5: Incubate the strains for 48-72 hours.

Step 6: Assess any color formation in the TC overlay after an appropriate period of time.

Thus, the correct order that would allow you to perform the test most effectively is:Inoculate strains on the surface of YPD agar medium in small patches Overlay molten TC agarose Wait for TTC to setPlace YPD agar medium with strains at 30°CIncubate the strains for 48-72 hours Assess any color formation in the TC overlay after an appropriate period of time.

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Identify and document key nursing diagnoses for Mr. Griffin regarding current condition.

Answers

Some key nursing diagnoses for Mr. Griffin regarding his current condition can include impaired gas exchange, risk for infection, and impaired mobility.

1. Impaired gas exchange: Mr. Griffin's condition may involve difficulty in adequate oxygenation and removal of carbon dioxide, leading to impaired gas exchange. This nursing diagnosis addresses the need to assess respiratory status, monitor oxygen saturation levels, administer oxygen therapy if necessary, and provide interventions to improve ventilation and oxygenation.

2. Risk for infection: Due to the presence of a wound, Mr. Griffin is at risk for infection. This nursing diagnosis involves monitoring the wound for signs of infection, promoting proper wound care and hygiene, implementing infection prevention measures, and educating the patient about signs and symptoms of infection.

3. Impaired mobility: Mr. Griffin's amputation may impact his mobility and ability to perform activities of daily living. This nursing diagnosis focuses on promoting mobility, providing assistance with mobility aids if needed, implementing measures to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers, and facilitating rehabilitation and physical therapy.

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Physical assessment.
1. Introduction procedures including AIDET
2. Head-to-toe physical assessment
3. Safety checks and procedures before leaving the patient

Answers

A physical assessment is a critical component of healthcare to evaluate and monitor the patient's health status. The assessment provides an opportunity for the healthcare provider to gather information about the patient's health, identify potential risks, and take appropriate measures to improve their overall health.

The assessment process involves several steps that must be followed to ensure comprehensive evaluation of the patient's health. The following discussion highlights the critical components of a physical assessment, including introduction procedures, head-to-toe assessment, and safety checks

The AIDET framework is an effective tool to use when introducing oneself to a patient. The framework includes the following:

A - Acknowledge the patientI - Introduce oneself

D - Duration

E - Explanation

T - Thank you

Head-to-toe physical assessment: The head-to-toe physical assessment is a comprehensive examination of the patient's body from head to toe. This assessment provides an opportunity for the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's overall health status, identify potential risks, and make appropriate recommendations. The head-to-toe assessment should include vital signs, skin, head and neck, chest, cardiovascular system, abdominal, musculoskeletal, and neurological systems.

Safety checks and procedures before leaving the patient: Safety checks and procedures are essential before leaving the patient to ensure their safety and well-being. These checks include ensuring that the patient is safe, comfortable, and their immediate needs are met. It is also essential to document the patient's response to the assessment, including vital signs and other critical information. If there are any significant concerns identified, it is essential to escalate the matter to the appropriate authority for further investigation and management.

In conclusion, the physical assessment is an essential component of healthcare to evaluate and monitor the patient's health status. It is essential to follow the procedures, including introduction procedures, head-to-toe assessment, and safety checks, to ensure comprehensive evaluation and management of the patient.

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Diazepam/Alprazolam/Lorazepam/ Clonazepam/Temazepam
Drug name Classification
Pregnancy Category
Side effects
Averse reaction
route of administration
Nursing considerations( including labs, VS etc...)

Answers

Nursing considerations: Monitor vital signs (especially respiratory rate), assess for sedation and cognitive impairment, caution with concurrent use of other CNS depressants,

Here is the information you requested for the listed medications:

1. Diazepam:

  - Classification: Benzodiazepine

  - Pregnancy Category: D

  - Side effects: Drowsiness, dizziness, confusion, blurred vision, muscle weakness

  - Adverse reactions: Paradoxical reactions (agitation, aggression), respiratory depression, dependence

  - Route of administration: Oral, intravenous, intramuscular

  - Nursing considerations: Monitor vital signs (especially respiratory rate), assess for sedation and cognitive impairment, caution with concurrent use of other CNS depressants, assess for signs of dependence and withdrawal symptoms, monitor liver function tests.

2. Alprazolam:

  - Classification: Benzodiazepine

  - Pregnancy Category: D

  - Side effects: Drowsiness, dizziness, headache, confusion, impaired coordination

  - Adverse reactions: Paradoxical reactions (agitation, aggression), respiratory depression, dependence

  - Route of administration: Oral

  - Nursing considerations: Monitor vital signs (especially respiratory rate), assess for sedation and cognitive impairment, caution with concurrent use of other CNS depressants, assess for signs of dependence and withdrawal symptoms, monitor liver function tests.

3. Lorazepam:

  - Classification: Benzodiazepine

  - Pregnancy Category: D

  - Side effects: Sedation, dizziness, weakness, unsteadiness

  - Adverse reactions: Paradoxical reactions (agitation, aggression), respiratory depression, dependence

  - Route of administration: Oral, intravenous, intramuscular

  - Nursing considerations: Monitor vital signs (especially respiratory rate), assess for sedation and cognitive impairment, caution with concurrent use of other CNS depressants, assess for signs of dependence and withdrawal symptoms, monitor liver function tests.

4. Clonazepam:

  - Classification: Benzodiazepine

  - Pregnancy Category: D

  - Side effects: Drowsiness, dizziness, coordination problems, memory issues

  - Adverse reactions: Paradoxical reactions (agitation, aggression), respiratory depression, dependence

  - Route of administration: Oral

  - Nursing considerations: Monitor vital signs (especially respiratory rate), assess for sedation and cognitive impairment, caution with concurrent use of other CNS depressants, assess for signs of dependence and withdrawal symptoms, monitor liver function tests.

5. Temazepam:

  - Classification: Benzodiazepine

  - Pregnancy Category: X

  - Side effects: Drowsiness, headache, blurred vision, dizziness

  - Adverse reactions: Paradoxical reactions (agitation, aggression), respiratory depression, dependence

  - Route of administration: Oral

  - Nursing considerations: Monitor vital signs (especially respiratory rate), assess for sedation and cognitive impairment, caution with concurrent use of other CNS depressants, assess for signs of patient dependence and withdrawal symptoms, monitor liver function tests. Note: Temazepam is contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.

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The provider ordered heparin 1,200 units/hour. Heparin is available as 40,000 units in 1 L D5W. What is the correct IV flow rate in milliliters per hour? Enter your answer as a whole number. Use Desired-Over-Have method to show work.

Answers

The correct IV flow rate in milliliters per hour is 30 ml/hour.

To determine this, we can use the Desired-Over-Have method, which involves setting up a proportion:

Desired rate / Available rate = Desired amount / Available amount

In this case, the desired rate is 1,200 units/hour, and the available rate is 40,000 units/L of D5W.

Desired rate / 1 hour = 1,200 units

Available rate / 1 L = 40,000 units

To find the desired amount, we can set up the proportion:

1,200 units / 1 hour = x units / 1 L

Solving for x, we have:

x = (1,200 units / 1 hour) × (1 L / 40,000 units)

x = 0.03 L/hour

Since the question asks for the flow rate in milliliters per hour, we can convert liters to milliliters by multiplying by 1,000:

x = 0.03 L/hour × 1,000 ml/L

x = 30 ml/hour

Therefore, the correct IV flow rate is 30 ml/hour.

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List 3 activity statements in Management of Care that you should consider as the nurse when providing care to your assigned client. Provide a rationale for each statement. You may copy and paste the statement from the NCLEX test plan, but your rationale should be unique.

Answers

Assessing the client's healthcare needs and developing an individualized care plan allows for tailored interventions and prevents adverse events. Prioritizing and coordinating nursing interventions based on the client's changing condition ensures timely and efficient care.

Assess the client's healthcare needs and develop an individualized care plan based on the assessment findings.

Rationale: This statement emphasizes the importance of conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's healthcare needs.

By assessing the client's physical, emotional, and psychosocial well-being, the nurse can gather relevant information to develop an individualized care plan.

This allows for tailored interventions that address the client's specific needs and promote optimal health outcomes. A thorough assessment also enables the nurse to identify any potential risks or complications, facilitating early intervention and prevention of adverse events.

By adhering to this activity statement, the nurse ensures that the care provided is patient-centered, evidence-based, and focused on meeting the unique needs of the individual.

Prioritize and coordinate nursing interventions based on the client's changing condition and healthcare priorities.

Rationale: Prioritization and coordination of nursing interventions are crucial aspects of effective care management. The nurse must continually assess the client's changing condition, reassess priorities, and adapt the care plan accordingly.

By prioritizing interventions, the nurse can address immediate and high-risk needs promptly, minimizing potential harm to the client. Coordinating interventions involves collaborating with the healthcare team, delegating tasks appropriately, and ensuring seamless communication to provide safe and coordinated care.

This activity statement highlights the nurse's role in effectively managing care and ensuring that interventions are timely, efficient, and aligned with the client's healthcare priorities.

Evaluate the effectiveness of nursing interventions and modify the care plan as needed.

Rationale: Evaluation of nursing interventions is essential to determine their effectiveness in achieving desired outcomes. By monitoring and assessing the client's response to interventions, the nurse can identify whether the care plan is achieving the intended goals or if modifications are necessary.

Evaluation allows for ongoing optimization of care and ensures that interventions are evidence-based and individualized to meet the client's changing needs. By adhering to this activity statement, the nurse promotes a continuous improvement process, enhancing the quality of care and facilitating positive patient outcomes.

The regular evaluation also contributes to evidence generation, as the nurse can identify successful interventions that can be shared with the healthcare team and integrated into future care practices.

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A client with multiple medical issues has the following ABG results: pH: 7.50 PCO2:41 HCO3: 32 PO2: 96 What is your interpretation of this result?

Answers

The interpretation of this result is that the patient is having respiratory alkalosis with metabolic alkalosis.

The medical client's ABG results are pH: 7.50 PCO2:41 HCO3: 32 PO2: 96. The interpretation of this result is that the patient is having respiratory alkalosis with metabolic alkalosis.

What is Respiratory alkalosis? Respiratory alkalosis is a medical disorder in which increased respiration (hyperventilation) results in decreased levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood and an increase in blood p H.

This results in the alkalinization of arterial blood. In this case, the respiratory system is trying to expel more carbon dioxide than the body is producing, resulting in a lower concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood.

What is Metabolic alkalosis?Metabolic alkalosis is a medical condition characterized by the rise of blood pH caused by the overproduction of bicarbonate. As a result of the overproduction of bicarbonate, the body develops a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration.

This can result in an increase in blood pH, which is termed alkalosis. In this case, the HCO3 level is higher than the normal range, which means that the patient is suffering from metabolic alkalosis.

The pH value is also higher than normal range, which confirms the presence of alkalosis. Hence, the interpretation of this result is that the patient is having respiratory alkalosis with metabolic alkalosis.

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Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is cell cycle nonspecific and interferes with DNA replication resulting in cell death? A. Azacitidine B. Busulfan C. Mitotane D. Gemcitabine

Answers

The answer is D. Gemcitabine. Gemcitabine is a cell cycle nonspecific chemotherapeutic agent that interferes with DNA replication resulting in cell death.

Cell cycle nonspecific chemotherapeutic agents can kill cells in any phase of the cell cycle. This makes them more effective against rapidly dividing cells, such as cancer cells.

Gemcitabine is a cell cycle nonspecific agent that interferes with DNA replication. It does this by being incorporated into DNA, causing DNA chain termination. This leads to cell death by apoptosis.

Apoptosis is a type of programmed cell death that is triggered by a variety of factors, including DNA damage. When DNA is damaged, the cell undergoes a series of changes that lead to its death.

These changes include the activation of enzymes that cause the cell to break down. Apoptosis is a normal process that helps to remove damaged or unwanted cells from the body. However, cancer cells often become resistant to apoptosis, which allows them to survive and grow.

Gemcitabine can help to overcome this resistance by damaging DNA. This damage triggers apoptosis, which kills the cancer cells. Gemcitabine is a well-tolerated drug with few side effects. It is often used in combination with other chemotherapeutic agents to treat cancer.

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Mrs. Arroyo. 78 years old, is in a hospice for end-stage dementia. She lies in bed, curled in the fetal position. She is on a pureed diet with nectar thick liquids. Over the last year, she has been treated for aspiration pneumonia four time. Her weight is steadily declining. Six months ago, she weighed 115 pounds (BMI 18.56 kg/m2), and yesterday she weighed 103.5 pounds (BMI 16.70 kg/m2). Her vital signs are 88/44 mmHg, heart rate of 60 beats per minute, respiration rate of 10 breaths per minute and irregular and her temperature is 94.2°F. Her albumin level is 2.2 g/L. Over the last day, the nurse has documented the presence of a stage 2 pressure injury measuring 5 mm x 2.5 mm x 2 mm on Mrs. Arroyo's coccyx, the wound base is pale. Her skin is cool to touch anfish on hands and feet. She had one wet underpad in the last 24 hours. She is occasionally restlessness bus.esponding to stimuli and is no longer eating or drinking. The nurse has called the family to come to the side, telling them death is approaching To facilitate a good death, which nursing actions should be implemented? Provide a warm cotton blanket, identify self and speak softly when providing care, reduce environmental stimuli, and encourage the family to talk to the client and gives permission to die What ethical considerations can be seen here with this situation or case study?

Answers

Mrs. Arroyo, a 78-year-old patient with end-stage dementia, is in a hospice. She is lying in bed, curled in the fetal position, and is being treated for aspiration pneumonia for the fourth time.

She is on a pureed diet with nectar thick liquids. Over the past year, her weight has been steadily declining, and her albumin level is 2.2 g/L. The patient has a stage 2 pressure injury measuring 5 mm x 2.5 mm x 2 mm on her coccyx, the wound base is pale. Her skin is cool to touch on hands and feet.

She had one wet underpad in the last 24 hours. She is occasionally restless and is no longer eating or drinking. The nurse has called the family to come to the side, telling them death is approaching.

To facilitate a good death, the following nursing actions should be implemented:1. Provide a warm cotton blanket

2. Identify self and speak softly when providing care3. Reduce environmental stimuli4. Encourage the family to talk to the client and give permission to dieEthical considerations:With this situation or case study, several ethical considerations can be seen. The patient has a right to comfort measures and to die peacefully. Nurses should ensure that the patient is given proper palliative care and should manage pain and other symptoms.

Nurses should follow the principles of autonomy, non-maleficence, beneficence, and justice while providing care to the patient.

The family has the right to know about the patient's condition and should be involved in making decisions about the patient's care. Nurses should follow the principle of confidentiality and protect the patient's privacy.

They should respect the patient's cultural and spiritual beliefs and provide care accordingly.

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Emerald Green 30-year-old female was admitted for TBI you're falling off of her four wheeler. She has a history of borderline hypertension, polynephritis, bipolar type 1, diabetes type 2. She is alert to person only. She cannot Express words but understands when you talk to her. Just weakness on the left side upper and lower extremities. He says her pain is three out of 10 and it's in her head as a headache. She's taking oxycodone 20 mg 4 hours PRN. She has a 5-year-old child and a 7 year old child. My husband works over the road and does not miss it often. Her and her mother had a good relationship with her mother visits every day brings the children to see her. She is a two assist with a walker and only can ambulate 5 ft. The last lab values were white blood count elevated red blood count normal lipid panel normal analysis showed two plus white blood cell count specific gravity 0.145. cheese assistance with dressing bathing and grooming. Vital signs temperature 101.1 blood pressure 128/ 80 post 88 respirations 20 O2 saturation 98% on RA. Patient currently on thinking liquids and has healing trach incision on neck. Trach remove 3 days ago. Patience is a Seventh-Day Adventist. Your mother practices as a Jehovah witness and it's very upset with the staff when they gave what to her when she was admitted her trauma. About them going against her religious practices.
Read scenario above and answer the following questions:
What is your initial plan for this patient when you're planning the plan of care?
What assessments should you do on this patient and what kind of assessment would you be expected to find?
What medications would you expect this patient to be on?

Answers

The initial plan for the patient when planning the plan of care should  include interventions to prevent infection, monitor vital signs, assist with ADLs as needed, etc. The assessments that should be done on this patient include neurological assessment, cardiovascular assessment, etc. The medications that this patient is expected to be on are oxycodone and antibiotics.

1. The initial plan for the patient when planning the plan of care should include the following:

Implement interventions to prevent infection.Monitor vital signs and report signs of fever.Assist with activities of daily living (ADLs) as needed.Monitor the incision site and report any signs of infection or delayed healing.Ensure that the patient has appropriate pain relief and observe for signs of opioid toxicity.Provide emotional support and counseling as needed.

2. The following assessments should be done on this patient:

Neurological assessment: Assess the patient's level of consciousness, orientation, cognition, speech, and motor function.Cardiovascular assessment: Assess the patient's heart rate, rhythm, blood pressure, and peripheral pulses.Respiratory assessment: Assess the patient's respiratory rate, rhythm, depth, and oxygen saturation.Gastrointestinal assessment: Assess the patient's bowel sounds, appetite, and hydration status.Genitourinary assessment: Assess the patient's urinary output, color, and clarity of urine, and any signs of infection.Skin assessment: Assess the patient's skin integrity, wound healing, and any signs of infection or pressure ulcers.

3. The medications that this patient is expected to be on are:

Oxycodone 20 mg every 4 hours PRN: This is for pain relief.Antibiotics: This is to prevent or treat any infection that may be present.

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What are the side effects of calcium channel blocking
mediations?

Answers

Calcium channel-blocking medications are a type of medication used to treat hypertension, angina pectoris, and other medical conditions. The following are some of the side effects of calcium channel-blocking medications: Constipation is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers.

In people who take calcium channel blockers, this issue is more prevalent. The stool becomes more dry and difficult to pass due to reduced bowel motility.

Swelling of the feet and ankles: Calcium channel blockers may induce peripheral edema, a buildup of fluid in the feet and ankles. This occurs because calcium channel blockers cause the arteries to dilate, increasing the blood supply to the limbs, which can lead to fluid retention.

Headaches are another common side effect. This is due to the medication's dilation of blood vessels in the head. As a result, calcium channel blockers may create a headache in some individuals.

In conclusion, if you notice any unusual symptoms, such as constipation, swelling of the feet and ankles, or headaches, you should contact your doctor immediately to determine if it is safe to continue taking calcium channel-blocking medication.

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The prescriber orders a 27 kis child to have 100% of maintenance flulds, Using the formula: First 10 kg at 100ml per kg Second 10 kg at 50ml perkg All remaining ks at 20mi per kig. Calculate the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL. per hour: 136.7 mL/hr 70 mL/hr 68.3 mL/hr 102 mL/hr

Answers

The child should receive 68.3 mL of fluid per hour. Hence, option C is correct.

The prescriber orders a 27 kg child to have 100% of maintenance fluids. Using the formula: First 10 kg at 100 ml per kg. Second 10 kg at 50 ml per kg. All remaining kgs at 20 ml per kg.

The formula for calculating maintenance fluids is: First 10 kg: 100 ml per kg. Next 10 kg: 50 ml per kg. All remaining kg: 20 ml per kg.

Now, the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL per hour will be calculated as follows: First 10 kg: 10 kg x 100 ml/kg = 1000 ml. Next 10 kg: 10 kg x 50 ml/kg = 500 ml.

All remaining kg: 7 kg x 20 ml/kg = 140 ml. Total fluids required in 24 hours = 1000 ml + 500 ml + 140 ml = 1640 ml

Therefore, the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL per hour = 1640 ml/24 hours = 68.3 ml/hr. Therefore, the child should receive 68.3 mL of fluid per hour. Hence, option C is correct.

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For the description below, decide whether the researcher is committing a Type I error, a Type II error, no error (correct decision), or if there is not enough information to tell. The researcher fails to rejects the null hypothesis ... the null hypothesis is actually true in the population. O This is the correct decision (no error) O Not enough information O Type I Error O Type II Error 4 CT, is a 19 year old female who lives with her mother. She does not have a dental home (established regular dentist), but reports she has rampant caries (her decay is so severe that she may eventually be a candidate for a partial denture) and plaque biofilm-induced gingivitis. She also reports that her mother had almost all her teeth pulled at age 37. CT wants to keep her teeth. CT has a 1 year old child whom she is breastfeeding and recently learned that she is pregnant again. She reports sipping on a 2-liter bottle of soda throughout the day to help her stay alert at her job and thinks she might be lactose intolerant, so she has avoided dairy. She reports she does not live in a community with fluoridated water and does not use any fluoride supplements besides the fluoride found in her toothpaste. She has no medical conditions requiring treatment, nor is she taking any medications.1) What additional questions might you ask CT regarding her dietary/nutritional habits in order to better understand her level of caries risk and oral health? Word your questions in the manner you would ask them to CT. And, why are these questions important?2) What is ONE goal might you suggest for this patient? Make sure your goal includes a WHY. Explain why you chose this goal.3) Identify 2 or 3 specific changes (strategies) you might develop with this patient to support the one goal you stated in Question 2. 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