The 6 year old kid should receive the MMR vaccination : Subcutaneously on the outside of the upper arm from the nurse.
The MMR vaccination, sometimes known as MMR, protects against measles, mumps, and rubella. Children typically receive the first dosage between the ages of 9 and 15 months, followed by the second dose between the ages of 15 and 6 years, with a minimum of four weeks in between each dose.
The MMR vaccination's second doses offer the strongest defense against measles, mumps, and rubella.
Two doses of the MMR vaccination should be given to children, the first at 12 to 15 months of age and the second at 4 to 6 years of age. Adults and teenagers should both be current on their MMR vaccinations.
The MMR vaccination is injected subcutaneously into the upper arm's outer surface. It's not advisable to provide injections to the gluteal muscle. The intramuscular method is not used to give the MMR vaccination.
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you are dispatched to a 60-year-old man reporting chest pain and shortness of breath. the patient has angina and is taking nitroglycerin, furosemide, and atorvastatin. you hear crackles when listening to his breath sounds. the patient’s difficulty breathing and crackles are due to blood backing up in which part of the body?
Blood is backing up in the patient's lungs, which is why they are having trouble breathing and making crackling noises.
Patient: Does it have two meanings?Both the terms "patience" and "patients" have quite distinct meanings while sharing a similar sound. The capacity to wait or suffer adversity for a protracted period of time without being upset is referred to as "patience." The plural of the noun "patient," which refers to a person who receives medical attention, is "patients.
What is your patience like?But it goes much beyond that. The capacity to wait without being impatient, agitated, or furious is known as patience. It occurs when you maintain composure rather than snapping and whining. When you take a few deep breaths and look within after something doesn't turn out the way you had intended, you are being patient.
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a client who experienced a large upper gastrointestinal (gi) bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and is now stable. for the next several hours, the nurse caring for this client should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence?
Tachycardia, hypotension, and trouble breathing are indications of recurrence that the nurse treating for all of this client should examine.
What program is ideal for nursing?Undoubtedly, the B.sc. Nursing program is superior to general midwives if a person wishes to have a distinguished career in the field of healthcare (GNM). The value of a B.sc. Nursing degree exceeds that of a General Nursing (GNM) programme in terms of job growth, further education, and remuneration.
Can nurses perform surgery?They are already in charge of many aspects of preoperative planning, particularly postoperative care in surgery. Additionally, a lot of surgical nurses working opt to specialize in a certain field, including obstetrics, children's surgery, or heart surgery.
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an older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. she has most likely experienced a(n)
After shifting her weight to the other foot, one older woman having osteoporosis appears with pain or deformity in her left hip. She's probably suffered a pathologic fracture.
What causes pathologic fractures most frequently?Tumors are commonly the cause of pathologic fractures. It's possible for tumors to develop in the vertebrae or for cancer to have spread there from another part of the body. The term "metastasis" describes how cancer spreads.
Which conditions lead to pathological fractures?Only a select few illnesses, such as osteoarthritis, osteomalacia, Paget's disease, osteitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, innocuous bone tumors and tumors, secondary malignant bone tumors, and primary malignant bone tumors, are frequently to blame for pathological fractures.
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A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine and an IV of normal saline at 50ml/hour. The nurse noes that the client's urinary output has been 20ml/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate?
A. stop the infusion of dopamine
B. change the normal saline to a keep open rate
C. replace the urinary catheter
D. notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output.
The correct answer is notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output.
Explanation:Dopamine primarily stimulates the adrenergic system, increasing cardiac output and, thus, urine output. Oliguria is defined as a urine output of less than 20 ml/hour and should be reported to the healthcare provider (D) in order to modify the dopamine dosage. The dose may need to be changed, depending on how quickly it is currently being administered. If the dose is reduced, it should be tapered down gradually rather than being stopped all at once (A). It may be necessary to increase fluid intake rather than (B). There is no need to change the urine catheter because it is draining (C).
What is dopamine?One kind of neurotransmitter is dopamine. It is produced by your body, and your neurological system uses it to communicate between your nerve cells. It is referred to as a chemical messenger for this reason.
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carla is taking a home pregnancy test to find out if she is pregnant. if this test comes back positive, which hormone has it detected in carla's urine?
Carla's urine tested positive for the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (HGC). In the typical concentrations of hCG are: 6-70 IU/L at 3 weeks; 10-750 IU/L at 4 weeks; and 200-7,100 IU/L at 5 weeks.
What happens if a home pregnancy test is positive?It is still vital for you to see your doctor to confirm you are pregnant, even if your at-home pregnancy test was positive. The appointment needs to be set up as soon as feasible. Discuss any chronic conditions like diabetes, hypothyroidism, miscarriages, or other health issues that may affect your pregnancy.
What are some things to avoid before a pregnancy test?Avoid consuming excessive amounts of liquids before a pregnancy test, including water. Excessive fluids may affect how accurate the test results are. Hold wait on taking a test if your urine is diluted or pale yellow. The test findings may be skewed by the fact that diluted urine frequently also has diluted hCG levels.
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The hormone that had been detected is human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
What is pregnancy test?
A pregnancy test can tell whether you're pregnant by checking a sample of our urine (pee) or blood for a specific hormone.
hormone is called human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). High levels of hCG are sign of pregnancy.Almost all pregnant women will have positive urine pregnancy test one week after first day of a missed menstrual periodsWhat is hcG?
Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone for maternal recognition of pregnancy produced by trophoblast cells that are surrounding a growing embryo , which eventually forms the placenta after implantation
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a nurse is planning a teaching session for a group of clients diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. what points should the nurse include to help the clients control symptom flare-ups?
Irritable bowel syndrome has been diagnosed in the client, so the nurse advises avoiding meals that overstimulate the gut, such as large meals or high-fat foods, to help control flare-ups.
What is irritable bowel syndrome?The condition known as irritable bowel syndrome affects the gastrointestinal tract, which is typically comprised of the stomach and intestines (IBS). Possible symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and constipation. There could be cramping as well.
Only a small portion of people with IBS have severe symptoms. Some people can manage their symptoms by changing their diet, lifestyle, and stress levels. More severe symptoms may be managed with medication and counselling.
IBS has no effect on gut tissue and doesn't increase your chance of colorectal cancer.
What are the causes of irritable bowel syndrome?IBS's precise cause is unknown. There seem to be a number of elements involved, including:
1. Muscle spasms in the intestines The interior of your intestines is lined with layers of muscle that contract as they move food through your digestive system. Stronger and longer than usual contractions might cause gas, bloating, and diarrhoea. Weak contractions could prevent food from passing and lead to dry, hard stools.
2. The nervous system. Problems with the nerves in your digestive system may be the cause of your discomfort if your abdomen expands due to gas or faeces. If brain and gut signals are not correctly synchronised, your body may overreact to typical changes in the digestive process. Constipation, diarrhoea, or pain could come next.
3. A terrible illness. IBS may manifest after a severe case of diarrhoea brought on by a virus or bacteria. Gastroenteritis is the term for it. An excessive amount of bacteria in the intestines may be related to IBS (bacterial overgrowth).
4. Early life stress. Stressful experiences, especially when they were young, are associated with more severe IBS symptoms.
5. The fifth alteration in gut microbes. Examples include changes to the viruses, fungi, and bacteria that are typically present in the intestines and crucial for preserving health. IBS sufferers may have different microorganisms than those without the condition, according to research.
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the medical profession, especially physicians, extend their reach over more areas of life through a process known as
The medical profession, especially physicians, extend their reach over more areas of life through a process known as Medicalization.
What do you understand by the term medicalization ?The process of labeling and treating symptoms and behaviors as medical problems is known as medicalization. Since medical firms have generated significant profits by classifying typical health variations as abnormal conditions, critics have dubbed this over-medicalization or disease mongering.
Menopause, alcoholism, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), anorexia, infertility, sleep difficulties, and erectile dysfunction (ED) are a few examples of medicalized diseases.
When more medical treatment is given to a health issue than is necessary or advised to improve health, it is said to be over-medicalization. In American maternal healthcare, it occurs frequently.
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a nurse is preparing to administer a sulfonamide to a client. the nurse is aware sulfonamides are commonly used to treat which types of infections? select all that apply.
Sulfonamides are frequently used to treat various infections, including acute otitis media, urinary tract infection, and ulcerative colitis.
The illnesses that sulfonamide treats are what?Sulfonamides, sometimes known as "sulfa medicines," are used to treat a variety of illnesses including burns, inflammatory bowel disease, malaria, skin, vaginal, and eye infections, as well as urinary tract infections (UTIs).
What are the applications of sulfonamides?Infections are treated with sulfonamides or sulfa medications. Colds, the flu, or other viral ailments won't be helped by them. Sulfonamides can only be purchased with a prescription from your doctor.
What is the sulfonamide antibiotics' mode of action?Dihydropteroate synthase is a particular enzyme that sulfa medicines bind to and block (DHPS). The creation of the important vitamin folate depends on this enzyme.
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of course, chinese green tea is good for your health. if it weren’t, how could it be so beneficial to drink it?
Chinese green tea is beneficial to your health, yes.
Is it advisable to add lemon to green tea?Green tea with lemon helps the body absorb more antioxidants to boost immunity and general health. According to a Purdue University study led by Mario Ferruzzi, lemon juice helps green tea's antioxidants stay in the body after digestion, making this combo healthier than previously believed.
Burning abdominal fat with green tea and lemon?Numerous studies have demonstrated that green tea's flavonoids and caffeine can increase metabolism, allowing the body to metabolise fat much more quickly. Drink this detox beverage twice each day to burn up to 100 calories and eliminate waste.
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a client who visits a health care facility for a routine assessment reports to the nurse being unable to control urinary elimination. this has resulted in the client soiling clothes and has led to a lot of embarrassment. which nursing intervention will be appropriate to use with this client?
Functional incontinence was an intervention used by the nurse.
What is functional incontinence?
The inability to use a toilet or get there in time to urinate is referred to a functional incontinence. The most common cause of functional incontinence is obstruction of the toilet route.
What causes functional incontinence?
If the kidneys stop working and urine ceases, the chemicals that are ready to be eliminated will not be removed and will instead return to the body. If left untreated, this obstruction can result in additional health issues and be fatal. Due to the client's inability to access the bathroom, functional incontinence develops. The nurse is informed by a patient who attends a medical facility for a normal evaluation that the patient is unable to regulate urine elimination. A nurse can diagnose functional incontinence in a variety of ways, including urine leaking during daily activities and an unexpected urge to urinate.
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the nurse is planning care for a patient with a t3 spinal cord injury. the nurse includes which intervention in the plan to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia?
As the nurse plans the patient's treatment for a t3 spinal cord injury, she must include an intervention to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia helping the patient establish a daily bowel habit to prevent constipation.
What causes autonomic hyperreflexia?Spinal cord damage is the most common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia (AD). People with AD have excessive nervous system responses to stimulus that doesn't harm healthy people.
Autonomic hyperreflexia: where is it?This occurs when your nervous system, which regulates automatic functions like breathing and digestion, overreacts to doing something below the injured spinal cord. It is also known as hyperreflexia. More than half of those who have an upper back spinal cord injury do so.
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which education would the nurse provide parents about the side effects of the haemophilus influenzae (hib) vaccine?
Parents would receive information from the nurse concerning low-grade fever adverse effects of the Haemophilus influenzae Hib vaccine.
What illness does Haemophilus influenzae bring on?Pneumonia (inflammation of the membranes encasing the vertebral cord and brain), bacteremia (blood infection), and pneumonia are only a few of the illnesses caused by Hib (infection of the lungs). Any illness caused by the H. influenzae is referred to as "Haemophilus influenzae sickness." There are some of these illnesses that are mild, like ear infections, while there are others that are quite deadly, like bloodstream infections.
What is the severity of Haemophilus influenzae?Certain H. displays the result infections can cause long-term issues or even death, even when properly treated. For instance, bloodstream infections can cause limb loss. Hearing loss or brain damage may result from meningitis.
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the nurse is performing an initial admission assessment from a client. what subjective data gathered from the client will the nurse document? select all that apply.
Personal data examples includes vital signs, the findings of a medical examination, or laboratory results.
What do you mean by assessment?Intended to fulfill as the scientific basis for making judgments about children' learning and growth. It involves identifying, choosing, designing, compiling, analyzing, and interpreting the information in order to enhance the students' development and learning.
What is assessment and example?A testing and analysis is what is meant by an assessment. A Scholastic Aptitude Test is an illustration of a test (SAT). YourDictionary. comparable definitions A statement of a property's value, frequently made for tax purposes, is referred to as an assessment. The process of collecting and analyzing specific data for an evaluation is called assessment.
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a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has been prescribed a bronchodilator to be administered by small-volume nebulizer. the nurse should ensure that the client:
Answer: Use a spacer or extender with the metered-dose inhaler
Explanation:
a nurse is teaching newborn care to students. the nurse correctly identifies which mechanism as the predominant form of heat loss in the newborn?
Radiation, convection, and conduction mechanisms are accurately identified by the nurse as the main ways that the newborn loses heat.
What defines a newborn?A baby below 28 days old is known as a newborn infant, neonate, or newborn. The infant is most at danger of passing away in the first 28 days of life. The great majority of neonatal deaths occur in developing nations with limited access to medical treatment.
How long are babies called newborns?Any baby was considered to be a newborn if they are less than two months old. Children may range in age from birth to one month old and are regarded to be babies. Every child between both the ages of birth and four is referred to as a baby, which includes newborns, babies, and toddlers.
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which condition is consistent with a clients report of posterior leg pain while walking that worsens upojn rest
what are some strategies that caregivers may use to reduce the development of dental caries and other related dental problems during childhood?
Caregivers force their children to brush their teeth twice a day to avoid dental problems.
What is dental caries?Tooth decay (dental caries) is damage to teeth that occurs when the bacteria in the mouth produce acids that attack the tooth's surface and enamel. This causes small holes in the teeth called cavities. If left untreated, cavities can cause pain, infection, and even tooth loss. Symptoms include toothache and tooth sensitivity. An infected tooth can form an abscess or pocket of pus, causing pain, facial swelling, and fever.
What are the causes for tooth decay?When dental caries come into contact with sugars and starches in food and drink, they form acids. This acid attacks tooth enamel and can cause mineral loss. This can occur if the food or drink contains sugar or starch. As these "acid attack" cycles are repeated, the enamel continues to lose minerals. Over time, tooth enamel weakens and breaks down, leading to tooth decay.
Caregivers force their children to brush their teeth twice a day to avoid dental problems.
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as the united states moves toward the implementation of an interoperable ehr, which statement about the future "ownership" of the patient record is appropriate?
Ownership may be determined by who has access to and control over the data as the United States progresses toward the introduction of an interconnected Electronic Health Records (EHR).
What exactly is a digital health record?In addition to containing a patient's history, diagnoses, prescriptions, treatment plans, dates of immunizations, allergies, radiological pictures, including laboratory and test results, EHRs are a crucial component of health IT. Providers should have access to tools that are based on the best available evidence when deciding how to treat a patient.
Why are digital health records crucial?By increasing the precision and visibility of medical information, the EHR, for instance, can enhance patient care by lowering the frequency of medical errors. providing access to health information, reducing the need for unnecessary testing .
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the nurse teaches a patient diagnosed with chronic stable angina about the pharmacologic action of nitroglycerin. the nurse would include what accurate statement?
Answer:
"Nitroglycerin opens the arteries to allow more oxygen to be delivered to the heart muscle." Nitroglycerin causes "vasodilation" of the coronary arteries resulting in improved perfusion (blood flow) and delivery of oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.
Explanation:
Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes the smooth muscle of the arteries and veins, which increases blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerin does not increase blood pressure. Nitroglycerin does not reduce vasospasms of the heart's arteries. Nitroglycerin does not decrease the amount of oxygen required by the heart muscle.
cyclophosphamide is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of breast cancer. the nurse has reinforced instructions to the client regarding the medication to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis. which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this chemotherapeutic regimen?
The client's statement that I need should increase my daily fluid intake to 2000–3000 mL shows that they are aware of the chemotherapeutic regimen.
Which medicine is used in chemotherapeutics?The endogenous hormonal and hormone-like compounds known as steroids, also referred to as corticosteroids, are useful in the treatment of a number of malignancies as well as other diseases. When these drugs are used to treat cancer, they were referred to as chemotherapeutics.
How do drugs used in chemotherapeutic work?Chemotherapy employs drugs to eradicate cancer cells. This specific cancer therapy stops malignant cells from multiplying, dividing, and generating new cells. Chemotherapy is a possible treatment for a number of cancers.
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which assessment should the nurse complete immediately after hearing the client choked while eating? the caregiver's knowledge about feeding a person who is dysphagic. auscultate the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds. assess the client's loc with the mini-mental status exam. determine the client's ability to swallow liquids.
A nurse should conduct the following evaluation on a patient who choked while eating: Check the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds using auscultation.
What does the phrase "no accidental breath sounds" mean?The medical professional using a stethoscope may hear regular breathing sounds, reduced or missing breathing sounds, and aberrant breathing sounds. Reduced or absent sounds could indicate: Air or fluid within or surrounding the lungs (such as pneumonia, heart failure, and pleural effusion) increased chest wall thickness.
Why was it crucial to listen for unauthorized breath sounds?Asthma, chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD), and influenza are only a few of the disorders that can benefit from automatic identification or classification of acoustic anomalies.
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a patient will be ready to be discharged from the hospital soon, and the patient’s family members are concerned about whether the patient is able to walk safely outside alone. which tool are test would be best to assess this?
Patient is ready to be discharged from the hospital and the patient’s family are concerned whether the patient is able to walk safely outside alone. Tool that would be best to assess this is : Get Up and Go Test.
What is the Get Up and Go test ?The "get-up and go test" requires patients to stand up from the chair, walk a short distance, turn around, return, and then sit down again.
Begin this test by having the patient sit back in a standard arm chair and identify a line 3 meters, or 10 feet away on the floor. Begin timing on the word “Go”. Stop the timing after patient sits back down and lastly record time.
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the registered nurse (rn) notifies the spouse of a client who was admitted to hospice with shallow respirations, of a change in the client's condition. over the past hour, the client's respiratory pattern has changed to a cheyne stokes pattern.after receiving this information, the client's spouse begins vacuuming around the bed. which stage of grief is the spouse displaying during the visit?
By denying that the client's passing is imminent, the spouse is displaying the first stage of denial in Kubler-Ross's grief .
In her 1969 book "On Death and Dying," Kübler-Ross—a Swiss American psychiatrist and pioneer of studies on the dying—proposed the "Five Stages of Grief," a patient-focused death-adjustment pattern. Denial, anger, bargaining, despair, and acceptance are those stages.
The Kubler-Ross theory's initial stages cover denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
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a young adult client's acne has responded well to treatment with tetracycline. however, the client has now returned to the clinic 6 weeks later with signs and symptoms of oral candidiasis. the nurse should recognize that this client's current health problem is likely attributable to which occurrence?
Oral thrush or oral candidiasis can occur as a side effect of tetracycline antibiotics.
What is tetracycline?Tetracycline is an antibiotic used to treat a variety of conditions, including acne. In fact, tetracycline, along with its close relatives minocycline and doxycycline, are the most commonly prescribed oral antibiotics for acne. Tetracycline is used topically to treat acne. Other antibiotics are more commonly used in cream form to treat acne.
What is oral thrush?Oral thrush, also known as oral candidiasis, A condition in which Candida albicans accumulates in the mucous membranes of the mouth. Oral candidiasis usually causes creamy white lesions on the inside of the tongue or cheeks. Oral candidiasis can spread to the palate, gums, tonsils, or back of the throat.
Oral thrush or oral candidiasis can occur as a side effect of tetracycline antibiotics.
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the nurse is creating a plan of care for a newborn infant with spina bifida (myelomeningocele type). the nurse includes assessment measures in the plan to monitor for increased intracranial pressure. which assessment technique should be performed that will best detect the presence of an increase in intracranial pressure?
The assessment technique that will most reliably reveal the presence of just an increased in intracranial pressure is looking for bulging in the anterior fontanel.
Describe spina bifida.Such a defect has an impact on the neural tube (NTD). If the trophoblast does not completely shut, spina bifida can develop anywhere along the spine. It occurs when an unborn child's spinal cord does not properly develop or close while still inside the pregnancy. On occasion, the skin directly above the spinal malformation will show signs. Examples include tissue protruding from the spinal cord, an abnormal hair growth, or a birthmark. When treatment is necessary, the defect is repaired via surgery. Other treatments emphasize issue prevention.
What is the prognosis for spina bifida and what's its primary cause?Medical specialists do not know what causes spina bifida. A number of nutritional, cultural, and environmental risk factors, such as a lineage of neural tube defects and a deficiency in folate, are thought to contribute to its development (vitamin B-9).
Medical professionals estimate that 90% of those with SB will live into their third decade. However, this number has increased over period as healthcare technology has developed, extending the expectancy of those infants with spina bifida.
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a patient is receiving potassium chloride 20 meq in 250 ml of normal saline to infuse over 90 minutes. calculate the setting for the infusion pump in ml/hr. (round to the nearest tenth.)
166.7 ml/hr for 60 min is the setting for infusion pump
To calculate flow rate in mL/hr, use unitary method
total fluid volume (250 mL)/ infusion time (90 mins) , (2.78 mL/min) to determine mL/hr, multiply by number of minutes in an hour (60) = flow rate (166.7 mL/hr).
infusion time fluid volume
90 min = 250 ml
1 min = 2.7 ml
60 min = 166.66
What is infusion pump?
It may be capable of delivering fluids in large or small amounts, and may be used to deliver nutrients or medications, such as insulin or other hormones, antibiotics, chemotherapy drugs, and pain relievers.
Some infusion pumps are designed mainly for stationary use at patient's bedside
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several hours after administering insulin to a pediatric client, the nurse assesses the response to the insulin. which client response is indicative of a hypoglycemic reaction?
Client responses that are suggestive of a hypoglycemia response include confusion, tremors, and diaphoresis.
The "fight-or-flight" hormone, epinephrine (adrenaline), is released when blood glucose levels are low. The hypoglycemia symptoms, such as racing heart, perspiration, tingling, confusion, anxiety, tremors, and diaphoresis can be brought on by epinephrine.
The levels of hypoglycemia are as follows:
Hypoglycemia at level 1 (mild) occurs when blood sugar levels are 54 mg/dL or higher but less than 70 mg/dL.
Hypoglycemia at level 2 (moderate) occurs when blood sugar levels are below 54 mg/dL.
A person with Level 3 (severe) hypoglycemia is unable to function owing to mental or physical changes brought on by low blood sugar levels.
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a client has been transferred from the emergency room to the cardiac unit with a diagnosis of anterior wall mi with elevation of st segment (stemi). which initial action by the nurse takes priority?
Giving the patient a 325-mg aspirin to chew. The nurse's greatest concern in this case is getting the patient to swallow a 325-mg aspirin.
Is aspirin healthier than ibuprofen for you?For persistent problems such arthritis, cramps, and back pain, ibuprofen is preferable over aspirin. This is due to the fact that the danger of gastrointestinal disorders rises with the length of treatment and that aspirin use already carries a substantial risk of GI side effects.
What class of medication is aspirin?One of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications is ibuprofen, an acyl salicylate (acetylsalicylic acid) (NSAIDs). These medications demonstrate a wide variety of pharmaceutical effects, including painkiller, febrifuge, and antiplatelet characteristics, and they lessen the inflammation's signs and symptoms.
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Chest pain, an increased ST segment on the ECG, elevated levels of cardiac cell components (such as troponin and creatinine kinase), perspiration, weakness, and a sense of impending doom are common symptoms of STEMI in patients.
The ST segment elevation in MI: why?A complete thrombotic blockage of a coronary artery causes a section of the myocardium to suddenly lose its coronary blood supply, which leads to the development of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) (DeWood et al., 1980). STEMI is mostly caused by plaque rupture, followed by platelet and fibrin deposition.
Which medical intervention is best for people who have an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction?Most STEMI patients are treated with an anticoagulant and a P2Y12 inhibitor. Anticoagulation and other antiplatelet medications are also frequently used.
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a client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin (ivig) infusion. the client asks the nurse about the infusion’s administration and its adverse effects. which condition should the nurse instruct this client to report immediately?
Client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin infusion. When asked about the infusion’s administration and adverse effects, nurse should instruct to report immediately when there is : tickle in the throat.
What is the adverse effects of intravenous immunoglobulin infusion?Serious side effects like allergic reactions or low blood counts (anemia) can occur very rarely.
Most common side effects is headache and other side effects are chills, fever, flushing, flu-like muscle pains or joint pains, feeling tired, vomiting, and rash.
The symptoms always occur within the first hour of infusion, and some adverse effects like fever or fatigue can also arise within 24 h.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed prednisone. what education should the nurse provide to the client?
Do not cross your legs. Eat foods low in calcium, take prednisone with meals. Reduce the prednisone dosage before finishing. Tell the client to use the arm rests to help them stand up from a chair.
What precautions should the nurse take when administering chemotherapy?The sort of pharmacy used by pharmacists and nurses to create chemotherapy medications must adhere to specific rules. Additionally, the nurses and other medical professionals who administer your chemotherapy and assist with your aftercare wear protective gear, such as two sets of special gloves, a gown, and occasionally goggles or a face shield.
What is vincristine toxicity?Vincristine's dose-limiting toxicity, which is mostly sensory and manifests as painful dysesthesias, ataxia, foot drop, and cranial nerve palsy (affecting extraocular and laryngeal muscles). [20] A dosage threshold of 2 to 6 mg/m2 is required for the onset of sensory symptoms in neurotoxicity.
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