Subcutaneous (Sub-Q) injection requires a 25-gauge, 3/4-inch needle.
What exactly is the MMR vaccine?
The MMR vaccination, sometimes known as MMR, protects against measles, mumps, and rubella. Children typically receive the first dosage between the ages of 9 and 15 months, followed by the second dose between the ages of 15 and 6 years, with a minimum of four weeks in between each dose.
How is MMR provided?
MMR injections are subcutaneous. Subcutaneous injections are provided on the lipid layer under the skin. Use a 23–25 gauge needle to provide subcutaneous injections; the needle length for babies (1–12 months) is 5/8", and for children (12 months and older), it ranges from 5/8"–3/4". Two doses of a single injection of the MMR vaccination are administered into the upper arm or thigh muscle. To guarantee complete protection, the vaccination must be administered twice.
Hence, a 25-gauge, 3/4-inch needle is used sub-Q.
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the nurse is caring for a patient taking an ace inhibitor, lisinopril (prinivil). the patient complains of tongue swelling and shortness of breath with wheezing. what is the priority action by the nurse?
The most severe side effects include bradycardia, hypotension, bronchoconstriction, and indications of progressive heart failure. Selective beta blockers like metoprolol also have other side effects.
When using ACE inhibitors, what should you keep an eye on?Blood tests will be necessary to check your potassium levels and kidney function as soon as you start taking an ACE inhibitor. Keep a written record of your blood pressure and heart rate (pulse) if you use an ACE inhibitor. Take your pulse every day to monitor your heart rate.
Stay with the patient if the ADR is significant, and have a coworker contact the prescriber. Keep track of the patient's clinical state, your interventions, and their reactions. Inform your supervisor, the pharmacist, and the risk management if the ADR when the patient is stable.
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a client reporting bone pain has sought care. diagnostic testing reveals that the client has developed osteonecrosis. when addressing the most likely cause of this complication, the nurse should focus on:
nurse should concentrate on the quality and quantity of blood flow to the site. when addressing particular most likely cause of this complication.
What is osteonecrosis?
In osteonecrosis, blood flow to part of bone is disrupted.
This results in death of bone tissue, and bone can eventually break down and the joint will collapse.
Osteonecrosis develops in stages. Hip pain is typically first symptom. This may lead to a dull ache or throbbing pain in the groin or buttock areaHow does the blood flow?
Blood is pumped into arterial system in the lungs after entering the right atrium from the body and moving into the right ventricle.
The blood returns to heart using the pulmonary veins after taking up oxygen, passing through the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta before leaving the body through the tissues.
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as the united states moves toward the implementation of an interoperable ehr, which statement about the future "ownership" of the patient record is appropriate?
Ownership may be determined by who has access to and control over the data as the United States progresses toward the introduction of an interconnected Electronic Health Records (EHR).
What exactly is a digital health record?In addition to containing a patient's history, diagnoses, prescriptions, treatment plans, dates of immunizations, allergies, radiological pictures, including laboratory and test results, EHRs are a crucial component of health IT. Providers should have access to tools that are based on the best available evidence when deciding how to treat a patient.
Why are digital health records crucial?By increasing the precision and visibility of medical information, the EHR, for instance, can enhance patient care by lowering the frequency of medical errors. providing access to health information, reducing the need for unnecessary testing .
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carla is taking a home pregnancy test to find out if she is pregnant. if this test comes back positive, which hormone has it detected in carla's urine?
Carla's urine tested positive for the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (HGC). In the typical concentrations of hCG are: 6-70 IU/L at 3 weeks; 10-750 IU/L at 4 weeks; and 200-7,100 IU/L at 5 weeks.
What happens if a home pregnancy test is positive?It is still vital for you to see your doctor to confirm you are pregnant, even if your at-home pregnancy test was positive. The appointment needs to be set up as soon as feasible. Discuss any chronic conditions like diabetes, hypothyroidism, miscarriages, or other health issues that may affect your pregnancy.
What are some things to avoid before a pregnancy test?Avoid consuming excessive amounts of liquids before a pregnancy test, including water. Excessive fluids may affect how accurate the test results are. Hold wait on taking a test if your urine is diluted or pale yellow. The test findings may be skewed by the fact that diluted urine frequently also has diluted hCG levels.
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The hormone that had been detected is human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
What is pregnancy test?
A pregnancy test can tell whether you're pregnant by checking a sample of our urine (pee) or blood for a specific hormone.
hormone is called human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). High levels of hCG are sign of pregnancy.Almost all pregnant women will have positive urine pregnancy test one week after first day of a missed menstrual periodsWhat is hcG?
Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone for maternal recognition of pregnancy produced by trophoblast cells that are surrounding a growing embryo , which eventually forms the placenta after implantation
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a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has been prescribed a bronchodilator to be administered by small-volume nebulizer. the nurse should ensure that the client:
Answer: Use a spacer or extender with the metered-dose inhaler
Explanation:
physical activity guidelines for americans, 2nd edition, what are the current exercise guidelines for children under age 5?
The current exercise guidelines for children under age 5 are to make their living fit and healthy.
What are the guidelines for Babies (under 1 year)?
Encourage your infant to be active Encourage them to move their head, body, and limbs during daily activities and during supervised floor play if they aren't yet crawling by reaching, grasping, pulling, and pushing.When they are awake, they should get at least 30 minutes of tummy time.What are the guidelines for Toddlers (aged 1 to 2)?
should be physically active for at least 180 minutes per day (3 hours).Standing up, moving around, rolling, and playing, as well as more energetic activities such as skipping, hopping, running, and jumping.Active play, such as climbing frames, bikes, water play, chasing games, and ball games, is the best way for this age group to get moving.What are the guidelines for Pre-schoolers (aged 3 to 4)?
should invest at least 180 minutes (3 hours) per day to active and outdoor playChildren under the age of five should not be inactive for long periods of time, except when sleeping.Long periods of TV viewing, car, bus, or train travel, or being strapped into a buggy are not good for a child's health and development.To know more about physical activity for children, check out:
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a patient is receiving potassium chloride 20 meq in 250 ml of normal saline to infuse over 90 minutes. calculate the setting for the infusion pump in ml/hr. (round to the nearest tenth.)
166.7 ml/hr for 60 min is the setting for infusion pump
To calculate flow rate in mL/hr, use unitary method
total fluid volume (250 mL)/ infusion time (90 mins) , (2.78 mL/min) to determine mL/hr, multiply by number of minutes in an hour (60) = flow rate (166.7 mL/hr).
infusion time fluid volume
90 min = 250 ml
1 min = 2.7 ml
60 min = 166.66
What is infusion pump?
It may be capable of delivering fluids in large or small amounts, and may be used to deliver nutrients or medications, such as insulin or other hormones, antibiotics, chemotherapy drugs, and pain relievers.
Some infusion pumps are designed mainly for stationary use at patient's bedside
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shortly after the birth of a newborn, the parent notices a gray patch across the newborn's buttocks. the parent is immediately concerned that the newborn has been bruised during the birth and asks the nurse about this. the nurse recognizes the patch as a birth mark and explains this to the parent. which type of birth mark is this most likely to be?
The grey patch is most likely to be : Mongolian spot
What is Mongolian spot ?
Flat, bluish- to bluish-gray skin patches known as "Mongol blue spots" frequently occur at birth or shortly after.
They frequently show up near the base of the spine, on the back, buttocks, and shoulders, among other places.
Mongolian spots are benign and unrelated to any diseases or ailments.
Non-blanching, hyperpigmented patches covering the gluteal area are known as Mongolian spots (MS), and they typically appear at birth or within the first few weeks of life.
At one year of life, these lesions are most noticeable. After that, they start to retreat, and by early childhood, the majority of them have vanished.
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a rehabilitation nurse is working with a client who has had a below-the-knee amputation. in order to determine the client's ability to be an active participant in self-care, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what variable?
The patient's attitude should be assessed first for the patient who has had a below-the-knee amputation (BKA).
A below-the-knee amputation (BKA) is a transtibial amputation in which the distal tibia, fibula, ankle joint, and associated soft tissue components of knee are amputated. Amputation of the lower extremities is a life-saving treatment. In more than 50% of instances, lower limb ischemia, peripheral artery disease, and diabetes mellitus are thought to be the primary causes of limb amputations. The second most common reason for lower-extremity amputations is trauma. Amputations below the knee often have better functional results than amputations above the knee. In addition to outlining the pre- and post-operative treatment of patients enduring below-the-knee amputations, this exercise also covers the indications and methods for executing such operations.
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a client who visits a health care facility for a routine assessment reports to the nurse being unable to control urinary elimination. this has resulted in the client soiling clothes and has led to a lot of embarrassment. which nursing intervention will be appropriate to use with this client?
Functional incontinence was an intervention used by the nurse.
What is functional incontinence?
The inability to use a toilet or get there in time to urinate is referred to a functional incontinence. The most common cause of functional incontinence is obstruction of the toilet route.
What causes functional incontinence?
If the kidneys stop working and urine ceases, the chemicals that are ready to be eliminated will not be removed and will instead return to the body. If left untreated, this obstruction can result in additional health issues and be fatal. Due to the client's inability to access the bathroom, functional incontinence develops. The nurse is informed by a patient who attends a medical facility for a normal evaluation that the patient is unable to regulate urine elimination. A nurse can diagnose functional incontinence in a variety of ways, including urine leaking during daily activities and an unexpected urge to urinate.
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cyclophosphamide is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of breast cancer. the nurse has reinforced instructions to the client regarding the medication to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis. which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this chemotherapeutic regimen?
The client's statement that I need should increase my daily fluid intake to 2000–3000 mL shows that they are aware of the chemotherapeutic regimen.
Which medicine is used in chemotherapeutics?The endogenous hormonal and hormone-like compounds known as steroids, also referred to as corticosteroids, are useful in the treatment of a number of malignancies as well as other diseases. When these drugs are used to treat cancer, they were referred to as chemotherapeutics.
How do drugs used in chemotherapeutic work?Chemotherapy employs drugs to eradicate cancer cells. This specific cancer therapy stops malignant cells from multiplying, dividing, and generating new cells. Chemotherapy is a possible treatment for a number of cancers.
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the nurse is creating a plan of care for a newborn infant with spina bifida (myelomeningocele type). the nurse includes assessment measures in the plan to monitor for increased intracranial pressure. which assessment technique should be performed that will best detect the presence of an increase in intracranial pressure?
The assessment technique that will most reliably reveal the presence of just an increased in intracranial pressure is looking for bulging in the anterior fontanel.
Describe spina bifida.Such a defect has an impact on the neural tube (NTD). If the trophoblast does not completely shut, spina bifida can develop anywhere along the spine. It occurs when an unborn child's spinal cord does not properly develop or close while still inside the pregnancy. On occasion, the skin directly above the spinal malformation will show signs. Examples include tissue protruding from the spinal cord, an abnormal hair growth, or a birthmark. When treatment is necessary, the defect is repaired via surgery. Other treatments emphasize issue prevention.
What is the prognosis for spina bifida and what's its primary cause?Medical specialists do not know what causes spina bifida. A number of nutritional, cultural, and environmental risk factors, such as a lineage of neural tube defects and a deficiency in folate, are thought to contribute to its development (vitamin B-9).
Medical professionals estimate that 90% of those with SB will live into their third decade. However, this number has increased over period as healthcare technology has developed, extending the expectancy of those infants with spina bifida.
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the nurse observes a client’s uric acid level of 9.3 mg/dl. when teaching the client about ways to decrease the uric acid level, which diet would the nurse suggest?
The nurse would suggest a low-purine diet
Foods to avoid are anchovies, animal organs and the sardines.
What is a low- purine diet?
Purines are chemicals that are naturally found in certain the foods and drinks.
When your body breaks down these chemicals, uric acid is byproduct.
A low-purine diet reduces foods and drinks with the highest purine content to reduce uric acid.
A low purine diet typically center around fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
The diet will minimize consumption of red meat, seafood, and alcohol.
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which condition is consistent with a clients report of posterior leg pain while walking that worsens upojn rest
a client has been transferred from the emergency room to the cardiac unit with a diagnosis of anterior wall mi with elevation of st segment (stemi). which initial action by the nurse takes priority?
Giving the patient a 325-mg aspirin to chew. The nurse's greatest concern in this case is getting the patient to swallow a 325-mg aspirin.
Is aspirin healthier than ibuprofen for you?For persistent problems such arthritis, cramps, and back pain, ibuprofen is preferable over aspirin. This is due to the fact that the danger of gastrointestinal disorders rises with the length of treatment and that aspirin use already carries a substantial risk of GI side effects.
What class of medication is aspirin?One of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications is ibuprofen, an acyl salicylate (acetylsalicylic acid) (NSAIDs). These medications demonstrate a wide variety of pharmaceutical effects, including painkiller, febrifuge, and antiplatelet characteristics, and they lessen the inflammation's signs and symptoms.
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Chest pain, an increased ST segment on the ECG, elevated levels of cardiac cell components (such as troponin and creatinine kinase), perspiration, weakness, and a sense of impending doom are common symptoms of STEMI in patients.
The ST segment elevation in MI: why?A complete thrombotic blockage of a coronary artery causes a section of the myocardium to suddenly lose its coronary blood supply, which leads to the development of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) (DeWood et al., 1980). STEMI is mostly caused by plaque rupture, followed by platelet and fibrin deposition.
Which medical intervention is best for people who have an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction?Most STEMI patients are treated with an anticoagulant and a P2Y12 inhibitor. Anticoagulation and other antiplatelet medications are also frequently used.
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a nurse is teaching newborn care to students. the nurse correctly identifies which mechanism as the predominant form of heat loss in the newborn?
Radiation, convection, and conduction mechanisms are accurately identified by the nurse as the main ways that the newborn loses heat.
What defines a newborn?A baby below 28 days old is known as a newborn infant, neonate, or newborn. The infant is most at danger of passing away in the first 28 days of life. The great majority of neonatal deaths occur in developing nations with limited access to medical treatment.
How long are babies called newborns?Any baby was considered to be a newborn if they are less than two months old. Children may range in age from birth to one month old and are regarded to be babies. Every child between both the ages of birth and four is referred to as a baby, which includes newborns, babies, and toddlers.
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a nurse is preparing to administer a sulfonamide to a client. the nurse is aware sulfonamides are commonly used to treat which types of infections? select all that apply.
Sulfonamides are frequently used to treat various infections, including acute otitis media, urinary tract infection, and ulcerative colitis.
The illnesses that sulfonamide treats are what?Sulfonamides, sometimes known as "sulfa medicines," are used to treat a variety of illnesses including burns, inflammatory bowel disease, malaria, skin, vaginal, and eye infections, as well as urinary tract infections (UTIs).
What are the applications of sulfonamides?Infections are treated with sulfonamides or sulfa medications. Colds, the flu, or other viral ailments won't be helped by them. Sulfonamides can only be purchased with a prescription from your doctor.
What is the sulfonamide antibiotics' mode of action?Dihydropteroate synthase is a particular enzyme that sulfa medicines bind to and block (DHPS). The creation of the important vitamin folate depends on this enzyme.
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the nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of stroke (brain attack) with anosognosia. to meet the needs of the client with this deficit, the nurse should include activities that will achieve which outcome?
With anosognosia, we need to remind him to turn his head to check the diminished visual field. to provide for the client's needs notwithstanding this lack
What causes loss of the visual field?
Glaucoma, vascular disease, tumors, retinal illness, genetic disease, optic neuritis and other inflammatory processes, nutritional deficiencies, toxins, and medicines are just a few of the many conditions that can result in visual field abnormalities. Some visual field loss patterns can be used to identify a potential underlying cause.
What's the visual field normally?
An island of vision that is 90 degrees temporally to the center of fixation, 50 degrees superiorly and nasally, and 60 degrees inferiorly makes up a normal visual field. Moving from movement discrimination in the extreme periphery to better than 20/20 in the center of vision, visual acuity improves.
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a patient will be ready to be discharged from the hospital soon, and the patient’s family members are concerned about whether the patient is able to walk safely outside alone. which tool are test would be best to assess this?
Patient is ready to be discharged from the hospital and the patient’s family are concerned whether the patient is able to walk safely outside alone. Tool that would be best to assess this is : Get Up and Go Test.
What is the Get Up and Go test ?The "get-up and go test" requires patients to stand up from the chair, walk a short distance, turn around, return, and then sit down again.
Begin this test by having the patient sit back in a standard arm chair and identify a line 3 meters, or 10 feet away on the floor. Begin timing on the word “Go”. Stop the timing after patient sits back down and lastly record time.
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which statement best describes the relationship between type 2 diabetes and the transport maximum (tm)?
The chronic transport maximum(Tm) can be exceeded if blood glucose levels continue to remain high. This could lead to membrane damage that interferes with the reabsorption of glucose and makes it difficult to control blood sugar levels.
What is Transport maximum?
Tm refers to the point at which an increase in a drug's concentration has no effect on the rate at which that chemical crosses a cell membrane.
What is Blood glucose?
All of the body's cells receive energy from blood glucose, which is a sugar that is carried throughout the bloodstream. To lessen the risk of diabetes and heart disease, blood sugar levels must be kept within a safe range. When blood glucose levels are monitored, the amount of sugar that the blood is carrying at any given time is calculated.
Hence, it can be concluded that the chronic transport maximum(Tm) can be exceeded if blood glucose levels continue to remain high.
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a patient has recently had surgery. which action is best for the nurse to take to assess this patient’s pain? a. assess the patient’s body language. b. ask the patient to rate the level of pain. c. observe the cardiac monitor for increased heart rate. d. have the patient describe the effect of pain on the ability to cope.
Ask the patient to rate the level of pain is best intervention for the nurse to take to assess this patient’s pain who recently had surgery.
A person may have surgery to examine or cure a pathological condition, such as an illness or injury, to assist enhance physical function or appearance, or to mend unwelcome ruptured portions. Surgery is a medical speciality.
The degree of discomfort is one of the most arbitrary and, hence, most helpful criteria for describing pain. So asking the patient to rank their discomfort is the greatest approach to determine how much pain they are experiencing. When the patient is focused, nonverbal cues like body language are less useful for determining how much pain they are experiencing. Although this is not a symptom that is exclusive to pain, a patient's heart rate may occasionally rise when they are in pain. Sometimes a patient's capacity for coping is affected by their level of pain, but measuring this impact just measures the patient's capacity for coping, not their level of pain.
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several hours after administering insulin to a pediatric client, the nurse assesses the response to the insulin. which client response is indicative of a hypoglycemic reaction?
Client responses that are suggestive of a hypoglycemia response include confusion, tremors, and diaphoresis.
The "fight-or-flight" hormone, epinephrine (adrenaline), is released when blood glucose levels are low. The hypoglycemia symptoms, such as racing heart, perspiration, tingling, confusion, anxiety, tremors, and diaphoresis can be brought on by epinephrine.
The levels of hypoglycemia are as follows:
Hypoglycemia at level 1 (mild) occurs when blood sugar levels are 54 mg/dL or higher but less than 70 mg/dL.
Hypoglycemia at level 2 (moderate) occurs when blood sugar levels are below 54 mg/dL.
A person with Level 3 (severe) hypoglycemia is unable to function owing to mental or physical changes brought on by low blood sugar levels.
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a client with a tibia fracture was placed in an external fixator 24 hours ago. the nurse is completing pin care and notices redness at the pin site and a small amount of serous drainage. what action by the nurse is appropriate?
Serous drainage and redness at pin site is an expected finding for 24-48 hours postinsertion.
The nurse should document findings and continue to monitor the site.
The physician does not need to be notified unless the other signs and symptoms are present
The fixator do not need to be removed at this time
The greatest concern is for infection; assessing hemoglobin and hematocrit are not relevant to assess for infection.
What is tibia fracture?
The tibia is the most commonly fractured long bone in the body
A tibial shaft fracture occurs along length of the bone, below the knee and above the ankle.
It typically takes only major force to cause this type of broken leg.
Pin site care is dressing procedure used to reduce the incidence of infection in patients undergoing treatment with an external fixator.
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the medical profession, especially physicians, extend their reach over more areas of life through a process known as
The medical profession, especially physicians, extend their reach over more areas of life through a process known as Medicalization.
What do you understand by the term medicalization ?The process of labeling and treating symptoms and behaviors as medical problems is known as medicalization. Since medical firms have generated significant profits by classifying typical health variations as abnormal conditions, critics have dubbed this over-medicalization or disease mongering.
Menopause, alcoholism, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), anorexia, infertility, sleep difficulties, and erectile dysfunction (ED) are a few examples of medicalized diseases.
When more medical treatment is given to a health issue than is necessary or advised to improve health, it is said to be over-medicalization. In American maternal healthcare, it occurs frequently.
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which education would the nurse provide parents about the side effects of the haemophilus influenzae (hib) vaccine?
Parents would receive information from the nurse concerning low-grade fever adverse effects of the Haemophilus influenzae Hib vaccine.
What illness does Haemophilus influenzae bring on?Pneumonia (inflammation of the membranes encasing the vertebral cord and brain), bacteremia (blood infection), and pneumonia are only a few of the illnesses caused by Hib (infection of the lungs). Any illness caused by the H. influenzae is referred to as "Haemophilus influenzae sickness." There are some of these illnesses that are mild, like ear infections, while there are others that are quite deadly, like bloodstream infections.
What is the severity of Haemophilus influenzae?Certain H. displays the result infections can cause long-term issues or even death, even when properly treated. For instance, bloodstream infections can cause limb loss. Hearing loss or brain damage may result from meningitis.
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a client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. based on these findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A client with pneumonia has a lower in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% at the same time as ambulating. Based on those findings, the nurse have to help the ambulating client lower back to bed.
What is Pneumonia and its primary motive?Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in lungs. The air sacs might also additionally fill with fluid or pus (purulent material), inflicting cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and problem breathing. Viruses that infect your lungs and airlines can motive pneumonia. The flu (influenza virus) and the rhinovirus are the main reasons of viral pneumonia in adults. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the main motive of viral pneumonia in younger children.How does ambulation assist with lungs?Moreover, early ambulation stimulates the lungs to respire extra deeply and as a result allows to save you infections like pneumonia. Early ambulation allows construct muscle tone and energy and may sell quicker recuperation via way of means of enhancing oxygen shipping to the tissues.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed prednisone. what education should the nurse provide to the client?
Do not cross your legs. Eat foods low in calcium, take prednisone with meals. Reduce the prednisone dosage before finishing. Tell the client to use the arm rests to help them stand up from a chair.
What precautions should the nurse take when administering chemotherapy?The sort of pharmacy used by pharmacists and nurses to create chemotherapy medications must adhere to specific rules. Additionally, the nurses and other medical professionals who administer your chemotherapy and assist with your aftercare wear protective gear, such as two sets of special gloves, a gown, and occasionally goggles or a face shield.
What is vincristine toxicity?Vincristine's dose-limiting toxicity, which is mostly sensory and manifests as painful dysesthesias, ataxia, foot drop, and cranial nerve palsy (affecting extraocular and laryngeal muscles). [20] A dosage threshold of 2 to 6 mg/m2 is required for the onset of sensory symptoms in neurotoxicity.
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your 42-year-old uncle has been very health-conscious for many years. he runs and exercises with weights and thinks that he can eat like he always has. what would you tell him with regard to bmr?
The basal metabolic rate (BMR) begins to normally fall around the age of 25, and he will likely be gaining weight if he does not limit the number of calories he consumes.
What is BMR?Your body burns calories at a basal metabolic rate (BMR), which is a measure of how well your body is able to maintain life. Also known as Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR), this phrase refers to the number of calories you would burn if you spent the whole day in bed.
A higher BMR indicates a greater calorie need to maintain your energy levels throughout the day. Your metabolism will be slower if your BMR is lower. What matters most in the end is living a healthy lifestyle, working out, and eating well.
If your 42-year-old uncle does not cut his calorie consumption, his BMR will likely start to decline by age 25, which will result in his gaining weight.
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diagnoses are confirmed through appropriate documentation in the patient’s medical record.true or false
This statement is true. diagnoses are confirmed through appropriate documentation in the patient’s medical record.
Why is documentation important in a medical record?
Documentation in the medical record is important for reimbursement for care, for providing a record of services, for communication between providers, and for promoting continuity of care. The record is a legal document, not a nonlegal document.
Moreover, the purpose of complete and accurate patient record documentation is to foster quality and continuity of care. It creates a means of communication between providers and between providers and members about health status, preventive health services, treatment, planning, and delivery of care.
Hence, they provide a written account of a patient's health care. Medical records can be used for legal purposes to protect patients and medical professionals.
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of course, chinese green tea is good for your health. if it weren’t, how could it be so beneficial to drink it?
Chinese green tea is beneficial to your health, yes.
Is it advisable to add lemon to green tea?Green tea with lemon helps the body absorb more antioxidants to boost immunity and general health. According to a Purdue University study led by Mario Ferruzzi, lemon juice helps green tea's antioxidants stay in the body after digestion, making this combo healthier than previously believed.
Burning abdominal fat with green tea and lemon?Numerous studies have demonstrated that green tea's flavonoids and caffeine can increase metabolism, allowing the body to metabolise fat much more quickly. Drink this detox beverage twice each day to burn up to 100 calories and eliminate waste.
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