In California, a responsible beverage service training certification, also known as the RBS training, is required within 60 days of employment for individuals who sell or serve alcoholic beverages. This training promotes responsible alcohol service and helps prevent alcohol-related harms. Employers should ensure that their employees comply with this requirement to maintain a safe and responsible environment.
In California, employers are required to ensure that all employees who sell or serve alcoholic beverages have completed a responsible beverage service training certification within 60 days of their employment. This certification is commonly known as the California Responsible Beverage Service (RBS) training. The RBS training aims to promote responsible alcohol service and reduce alcohol-related harms. It covers topics such as identifying fake IDs, recognizing signs of intoxication, and preventing underage drinking.
It is important for employers to comply with this requirement to ensure that their employees are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to serve alcohol responsibly. Failure to comply with the RBS training requirement can result in penalties and legal consequences for the employer.
By providing this training, employers contribute to the overall safety and well-being of their patrons and the community. Additionally, employees who complete the RBS training gain valuable knowledge that can enhance their professional skills and increase their employability in the hospitality industry.
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Distracted driving is estimated to be involved in what percentage of crashes?
a. 5-10%
b. 8-25%
c. 38-52%
d. 48-65%
The correct option is b. 8-25%. Distracted driving refers to any activity that diverts attention from driving, including talking or texting on your phone, eating and drinking, talking to people in your vehicle, or fiddling with the stereo, entertainment or navigation system. It is a dangerous behavior that puts both the driver and others on the road at risk.
Distracted driving is estimated to be involved in 8-25% of crashes. This range accounts for variations in data sources, methodologies, and different definitions of distracted driving used in different studies.
It's important to note that distracted driving is a significant factor in many accidents, and even the lower end of the estimated range (8%) is a cause for concern. To minimize the risk, it is crucial to avoid any distractions while driving and focus solely on the road.
Remember, safety should always be the top priority when operating a vehicle.
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The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed psychologists to learn about the functions of the brain's Multiple Choice limbic system. central core. association areas. sensory areas.
The brain injury sustained by Phineas Gage, a 19th-century railroad worker, provided valuable insights into the functions of the brain's limbic system.
Gage's accident involved a large iron rod penetrating his skull and damaging significant portions of his brain, including the frontal lobes, which are a part of the limbic system.
Following the injury, Gage experienced significant changes in his personality and behavior. He became impulsive, lacked emotional control, and exhibited socially inappropriate conduct.
These observations led psychologists to associate the frontal lobes, a key component of the limbic system, with higher-level cognitive functions such as personality, decision-making, and emotional regulation.
The limbic system is involved in several important processes, including emotional responses, memory formation, and the regulation of basic drives and instincts. Gage's case demonstrated the crucial role that the limbic system, particularly the frontal lobes, plays in personality and social behavior.
His injury highlighted the interdependence of different brain regions and advanced our understanding of the complex functions associated with the limbic system.
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Eila is a graduate student at UCLA. She hypothesizes that participants will show higher levels of aggression after playing a violent video game. She knows which participants played the violent video game. She is also the person who scores the participant's violent behavior. Even though it is not intentional, a common pitfall that Eila may fall prey to is______________.
Eila is a graduate student at UCLA. She hypothesizes that participants will show higher levels of aggression after playing a violent video game.
She knows which participants played the violent video game. She is also the person who scores the participant's violent behavior. Even though it is not intentional, a common pitfall that Eila may fall prey to is the observer-expectancy effect. Observer-expectancy effect refers to a type of cognitive bias that occurs when an observer's expectations influence their interpretation of a subject's behavior or outcome.
This effect can happen in any kind of research where an experimenter has a hypothesis and knows which subjects belong to the control or experimental groups. In the given case, Eila knows which participants played the violent video game, and she also scores their violent behavior.
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Peer pressure: A. involves the desire to conform to one's friends or contemporaries. B. always involves activities that are negative. C. is strongest in late adolescence. D. increases throughout adolescence.
Peer pressure involves the desire to conform to one's friends or contemporaries. It does not always involve negative activities.
It can be both positive and negative. Peer pressure is strongest in late adolescence, when individuals are seeking acceptance and approval from their peers. It is during this time that young people may be more susceptible to engaging in risky behaviors in order to fit in. However, it is important to note that peer pressure can occur at any age. It is not limited to adolescence.
Furthermore, while peer pressure may increase throughout adolescence, it is not a linear progression. There may be fluctuations in the intensity of peer pressure depending on various factors. Overall, peer pressure is a complex social phenomenon that can have both positive and negative influences on individuals.
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Jimmy is accused of robbing a victim. the prosecution is offering jimmy probation instead of prison time if he agrees to plead guilty. this is an example of _____________ bargaining:
Based on the information provided, the situation you described is an example of plea bargaining. Plea bargaining is a negotiation process between the prosecution and the defense in a criminal case.
In this case, the prosecution is offering Jimmy probation instead of prison time if he agrees to plead guilty to the charges of robbing the victim. Plea bargaining is a common practice in criminal cases where the defendant and prosecution reach an agreement to resolve the case without going to trial. that is mutually beneficial for both parties and can result in a lesser sentence
It allows for a resolution that is mutually beneficial for both parties and can result in a lesser sentence or alternative form of punishment for the defendant. Plea bargaining is a common practice in criminal cases where the defendant This can help to save time and resources for both the court system and the parties involved.
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biden v trump on approach to title ix and what changes they made if the changes made are feminist in nature based on feminism in politics)
Biden's changes to Title IX align more closely with feminist principles as they prioritize survivor support and gender equality, whereas Trump's changes focused on due process considerations for the accused.
President Biden's administration took steps to reinforce Title IX, which prohibits sex-based discrimination in education. In 2021, the Biden administration reversed policies implemented under Trump and restored Obama-era guidelines. These changes included restoring the preponderance of evidence standard in sexual misconduct investigations and reinstating the requirement to investigate off-campus incidents. Biden's changes are considered feminist in nature, as they prioritize protecting survivors, addressing gender-based violence, and promoting gender equality in educational settings.
In contrast, the Trump administration rolled back some Obama-era Title IX guidelines and issued new regulations in 2020. These changes emphasized providing more due process rights to the accused, including the right to cross-examine the complainant. Trump's changes were seen as attempting to balance the rights of the accused with the goal of preventing false accusations.
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------------The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
"Biden v Trump: On approach to title ix and what changes they made? If the changes made are feminist in nature based on feminism in politics?"---------
Celebrity endorsements in advertising are based on the ________ principle of influence.
Celebrity endorsements in advertising are based on the social proof principle of influence .
Celebrity endorsements in advertising are based on the principle of influence known as social proof. Social proof refers to the tendency of individuals to rely on the actions and opinions of others to determine their own behavior. In the context of advertising, celebrity endorsements leverage the perceived authority, credibility, and popularity of well-known personalities to influence consumer behavior.The principle of social proof suggests that when consumers see a celebrity endorsing a product or service, they are more likely to perceive it as desirable and trustworthy. The celebrity's status and reputation serve as social cues, signaling that the product is worth purchasing or supporting. This psychological phenomenon taps into the human inclination to conform and follow the choices of influential figures or admired individuals.By associating a brand with a celebrity, advertisers aim to create a positive image and increase consumer confidence in the product. Consumers may be more inclined to try the product based on their perception that if it is endorsed by a famous person, it must be of high quality or align with their aspirations.In summary, celebrity endorsements capitalize on the principle of social proof by leveraging the influence and credibility of well-known individuals to shape consumer attitudes and behavior.For more questions on advertising
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Which individual, likely the most prolific researcher of ccollectve behavior in the last four decades, introduced the concept of the assembling process?
The individual who introduced the concept of the assembling process and is most likely the most prolific researcher of collective behavior in the last four decades is Craig Biddle.
Biddle introduced the concept of the assembling process in his work on crowds and collective behavior. The assembling process is the method by which a crowd is formed. It begins with the gathering of people at a particular location or event and is followed by the formation of a crowd. According to Biddle, this is not a random process, but rather a deliberate and organized one in which people are drawn together by a shared interest or need,Craig Biddle is an American sociologist who is recognized for his contributions to the field of collective behavior.
In his work, he has focused on understanding how crowds and other forms of collective behavior arise and how they function. His concept of the assembling process is a key contribution to this field.The assembling process is the process by which crowds are formed. According to Biddle, this process is not a random one, but rather a deliberate and organized one in which people are drawn together by a shared interest or need. This process involves several stages, including the gathering of people at a particular location or event and the formation of a crowd.
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9. Farmers, workers, women, and middle-class reformers responded to social change using a patchwork of
Farmers, workers, women, and middle-class reformers responded to social change using a patchwork of strategies and actions.
During times of social change, various groups in society, such as farmers, workers, women, and middle-class reformers, employed different approaches to address the challenges they faced.
Farmers, for instance, responded to the transformation of agriculture by forming organizations like the Grange and the Farmers' Alliance. These groups advocated for farmers' rights, fair prices for their produce, and regulations on monopolistic practices by railroads and banks.
Workers, on the other hand, utilized collective bargaining and strikes to improve their working conditions and wages. Labor unions, such as the American Federation of Labor (AFL), played a crucial role in mobilizing workers and negotiating for better pay, shorter hours, and safer working conditions.
Women actively engaged in social change by participating in the suffrage movement, advocating for women's right to vote. They organized rallies, protests, and campaigns, ultimately leading to the passage of the 19th Amendment in 1920, which granted women the right to vote.
Middle-class reformers, often referred to as progressives, sought to address social inequalities and improve living conditions. They advocated for political and social reforms, such as child labor laws, minimum wage legislation, and the establishment of food and drug regulations.
Farmers, workers, women, and middle-class reformers responded to social change using various strategies. They formed organizations, engaged in collective bargaining, fought for women's suffrage, and advocated for political and social reforms. Through their efforts, these groups contributed to shaping a more just and equitable society.
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quizlet group members who focus on the group’s achievements are whereas group members who focus on their personal contributions are .
Quizlet group members who focus on the group's achievements are likely displaying a collective orientation.
In a group setting, individuals can have different orientations towards their involvement and contributions. Those who focus on the group's achievements prioritize the overall success and outcomes of the group as a whole.
They are more likely to collaborate, share information, and work together towards common goals. On the other hand, individuals who focus on their personal contributions tend to prioritize their own accomplishments and recognition within the group.
They may be more concerned with their individual performance and may be less inclined to collaborate or share information that could benefit the entire group. These different orientations can influence group dynamics, collaboration, and overall group effectiveness.
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The distinguishing feature of a leasehold estate is
The distinguishing feature of a leasehold estate is that it grants a person the right to possess and use a property for a specific period of time, as stipulated in a lease agreement, without granting ownership of the property itself.
A leasehold estate represents a form of temporary ownership or possessory interest in real estate. Unlike a freehold estate, where the owner holds absolute ownership rights, a leasehold estate grants a tenant or lessee the right to occupy and utilize the property subject to the terms and conditions outlined in the lease contract.
The leasehold interest typically involves payment of rent and adherence to certain rules and restrictions specified in the lease agreement. The leasehold estate ends upon the expiration of the lease term, at which point the property reverts back to the owner or landlord.
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An elimination period for long-term care policies that is counted based on the number of days the insured receives care is called:____.
An elimination period for long-term care policies that is counted based on the number of days the insured receives care is called a "service day elimination period."
During this period, the insured must receive care for a specified number of days before the long-term care policy begins to provide coverage and benefits. The duration of the elimination period can vary depending on the specific terms and conditions of the insurance policy. The amount of time between an injury and the receiving of benefit payments is known as the "elimination period" in the insurance industry. To put it another way, it refers to the period of time between the onset of a sickness or accident and the receipt of benefit payments from an insurance.
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What were the four reasons in support of the majority opinion and what were Chief Justice Roberts reasons in opposition to the majority opinion
The U.S. Supreme Court ruled in favor of the plaintiff in the landmark case Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission in 2010. The 5-4 majority decision upheld the right of corporations, labor unions, and advocacy groups to spend unlimited amounts of money on political advertisements.
Expenditures are independent of a candidate's campaign.The four reasons in support of the majority opinion were as follows:Corporate funding is a form of political expression, and the First Amendment protects political speech from regulation by the government.The government cannot limit political speech based on the speaker's identity.The government cannot regulate political speech based on the speaker's wealth.The government cannot limit the quantity of speech in a political campaign, regardless of who the speaker is.
Chief Justice Roberts' opposition to the majority opinion was based on the following reasons:He argued that the majority's interpretation of the First Amendment ignored the government's interest in preventing corruption and the appearance of corruption in elections. The Chief Justice also stated that the majority's decision to equate money with speech was flawed, as it disregarded the reality that corporations are not natural persons with the right to free speech.
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Former unc-chapel hill employee, community service member, and civil rights activist esphur foster once said "we are nothing without our history. " how does history shape who you are?.
History plays a significant role in shaping who we are as individuals and as a society. It provides us with a deeper understanding of our roots, culture, and the struggles that our ancestors have faced. Here's how history shapes our identity:
1. Identity Formation: History helps us develop a sense of identity by connecting us to our heritage and traditions. Learning about our past allows us to appreciate our unique cultural backgrounds and helps us understand our place in the world.
2. Lessons Learned: Studying historical events allows us to learn from past mistakes and successes. We can gain insights into the consequences of certain actions and make informed decisions based on those lessons.
3. Empathy and Perspective: History fosters empathy by allowing us to understand the experiences and perspectives of others. By learning about different cultures, societies, and historical figures, we become more compassionate and tolerant individuals.
4. Social and Political Awareness: Understanding history helps us navigate the complexities of the world we live in. It provides us with the knowledge to engage in informed discussions, contribute to social change, and make educated decisions in the political arena.
5. Inspiration and Resilience: History showcases the resilience and achievements of individuals and communities. By learning about past struggles and triumphs, we can find inspiration and motivation to overcome challenges and make a positive impact on society.
In conclusion, history shapes who we are by influencing our sense of identity, providing valuable lessons, fostering empathy, raising social and political awareness, and inspiring us to create a better future.
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A conceptual model or typology constructed from the direct observation of a number of specific cases and representing the essential qualities found in those cases is called:________
A conceptual model or typology constructed from the direct observation of specific cases and representing the essential qualities found in those cases is called an "inductive model" or an "inductive typology."
This approach involves collecting empirical data through direct observation or examination of real-world cases and identifying common patterns, themes, or characteristics among them. Based on these observations, the researcher constructs a conceptual model or typology that captures the essential qualities or dimensions present in the cases. Inductive models are often used in qualitative research to develop theories or frameworks grounded in empirical evidence. They provide a way to understand and categorize complex phenomena based on the observed patterns and similarities among specific cases.
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Screening for _____ among older men was aggressive in the past, but new guidelines aimed at reducing unnecessary medical treatment have resulted in reductions in this screening. Multiple choice question.
The term that should be included in the answer to the question is" prostate cancer."
Webbing for prostate cancer among aged men was aggressive in the history, but new guidelines aimed at reducing gratuitous medical treatment have redounded in reductions in this webbing.
Explanation:
The prostate is a gland that is part of the male reproductive system. Prostate cancer is the most common form of cancer set up in men. In the history, screening for prostate cancer among aged men was aggressive, but new guidelines aimed at reducing gratuitous medical treatment have redounded in reductions in thisscreening.
This is an illustration of how medical guidelines and practices can change over time grounded on new exploration and understanding. It's important for individualities to stay informed and over- to- date on these changes, and to talk to their healthcare providers about the stylish course of action for their individual circumstances.
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The _____________ test is also known as the golden rule. reliability reciprocity publicity test universality
The reciprocity test is also known as the golden rule. reliability reciprocity publicity test universality. Thus, the correct answer to the question is "reciprocity test."
The reciprocity test, also known as the golden rule, is a principle used to determine the reliability or fairness of a decision or action. It is often applied in legal and ethical contexts to assess whether a particular decision or action would be acceptable if the roles were reversed.
Let's understand the reciprocity test with an example. Imagine a court case where a judge has to decide on a punishment for a person who committed a crime. The judge can apply the reciprocity test by asking themselves, "Would I consider this punishment fair if I were in the defendant's shoes?"
If the answer is yes, it indicates that the decision is fair and just according to the golden rule.
In summary, the reciprocity test, also known as the golden rule, helps assess the fairness and reliability of decisions or actions by considering how one would feel if the roles were reversed.
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When barack obama was born in hawaii to an interracial married couple in 1961, at least _____ states had laws forbidding marriages between whites and nonwhites.
When Barack Obama was born in Hawaii to an interracial married couple in 1961, at least 22 states in the United States had laws forbidding marriages between whites and nonwhites.
During that time, many states had implemented laws known as anti-miscegenation laws, also referred to as interracial marriage bans. These laws were designed to prohibit and criminalize marriages or relationships between individuals of different racial backgrounds. The specific number of states with anti-miscegenation laws can vary depending on the time period and changes in state legislation.These laws were based on racial segregation and the belief in racial purity or superiority.
It is important to note that the validity and enforcement of these laws varied across states. Some states had stricter laws that prohibited marriages between any white person and a person of color, while others focused on specific racial combinations. These laws were deeply discriminatory and reflected the prevailing racial attitudes and prejudices of the time.
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Ana-lisa used an anterior/posterior placement. when should providers use this placement method for a child?
According to the manufacturer's advice, Ana-Lisa utilised the anterior/posterior pad placement in this instance. The providers will exchange roles and switch to multiple-provider CPR throughout the analysis.
Cardiopulmonary revival (CPR) is a crisis methodology comprising of chest compressions frequently joined with fake ventilation, or mouth to mouth with an end goal to physically safeguard unblemished cerebrum capability until additional actions are taken to reestablish unconstrained blood flow and an in cardiovascular taking in an individual capture.
It is suggested for people who are not breathing at all or have abnormal breathing, such as agonal respirations. The hero may likewise give fake ventilation by either breathing out air into the subject's mouth or nose (mouth-to-mouth revival) or utilizing a gadget that drives air into the subject's lungs (mechanical ventilation).
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Describe the native people of america on the eve of european arrival on the shores of the western hemisphere.
The native peoples of America were a diverse set of indigenous peoples with unique cultures, dialects, and traditions on the eve of European arrival on the coasts of the Western Hemisphere. They lived in a variety of communities, from hunter-gatherers to agrarian, with complex social and political structures. They were proficient in a variety of skills, including weaving, ceramics, and metalworking, and they had a strong spiritual connection to the land and nature. Their numbers throughout North, Central, and South America were thought to be in the millions.
the new left: group of answer choices was made up mostly of black college students. focused its activism on economic justice. called for a democracy of citizen participation. was made up of children of the old left. had made its peace with consumer culture.
The New Left was a group that focused its activism on economic justice and called for a democracy of citizen participation.
The option (C) is correct.
While it included black college students who played a significant role in the movement, it was not exclusively composed of them. The New Left emerged as a response to the perceived failures of the Old Left, but its members were not solely the children of the Old Left.
Rather, they sought to challenge established institutions and advocate for social and political change. Their critique extended beyond economic issues to encompass broader societal concerns, rejecting the notion of making peace with consumer culture and aiming for transformative change.
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This question is not complete, Here I am attaching the complete question:
The new left: group of answer choices
(A) was made up mostly of black college students.
(B) focused its activism on economic justice.
(C) called for a democracy of citizen participation.
(D) was made up of children of the old left.
(E) had made its peace with consumer culture.
A person, agency, or interest group not directly a party to a case but with an interest in its outcome may file a(n) ________ brief. Group of answer choices amicus curiae standing certiorari per curium Next
A person, agency, or interest group not directly a party to a case but with an interest in its outcome may file a(n) amicus curiae brief.
An amicus curiae brief, also known as a "friend of the court" brief, is a legal document filed by a third party who is not directly involved in a case but has a strong interest in its outcome. These briefs are typically filed to provide additional information, perspective, or expertise to assist the court in making a decision. Amicus curiae briefs can be submitted at various stages of a legal proceeding.
Including before a case is heard on appeal. The brief must be relevant to the issues being considered by the court and can help influence the court's decision-making process. In summary, when a person, agency, or interest group has a stake in a case but is not a party to it, they can file an amicus curiae brief to provide their perspective and support their position.
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the texas supreme court decides the case of livewire entertainment co. v. power play corp. of nine justices, six believe the judgment should be in livewire’s favor. justice bellamy, one of the six, writes a separate opinion. the three justices who believe the judgment should be in power’s favor join in a third separate opinion. bellamy’s opinion is known as
Bellamy's opinion is known as a "concurring opinion." A concurring opinion is written by a justice who agrees with the outcome of the majority opinion but has different reasons or legal interpretations.
In this case, Bellamy is one of the six justices who believe the judgment should be in favor of Livewire Entertainment Co. However, Bellamy may have a different legal analysis or argument for reaching that conclusion. A concurring opinion allows the justice to express their views and provide additional reasoning that may differ from the majority opinion. It adds another perspective to the decision, but it does not change the outcome.
In summary, Bellamy's separate opinion in the case of Livewire Entertainment Co. v. Power Play Corp is known as a concurring opinion.
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What theological term explains what happens at the moment a person trusts in Jesus as Lord and Savior
The theological term that explains what happens at the moment a person trusts in Jesus as Lord and Savior is "justification."
Justification is a key concept in Christian theology, particularly in Protestant traditions. It refers to the act of God whereby a person is declared righteous and forgiven of their sins through faith in Jesus Christ. At the moment of trust in Jesus as Lord and Savior, believers are justified before God, meaning that their sins are forgiven and they are counted as righteous in God's sight.
This justification is not based on an individual's own works or merit but solely on the grace of God through faith in Jesus Christ. It is seen as a foundational step in the process of salvation, initiating a new relationship with God and leading to eternal life.
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Bobbie is listening to music and decides to increase the amplitude of the sound wave. What characteristic of auditory perception did he alter?
By increasing the amplitude of the sound wave while listening to music, Bobbie altered the characteristic of loudness in auditory perception.
Loudness is a characteristic of auditory perception that corresponds to the subjective perception of the intensity or amplitude of a sound wave. When Bobbie decided to increase the amplitude of the sound wave while listening to music, he effectively changed the loudness of the music he was experiencing.
Amplitude refers to the magnitude or height of a sound wave, representing the variation in air pressure caused by the sound. By increasing the amplitude, Bobbie made the sound wave more intense, resulting in a perceived increase in loudness. This change can make the music sound louder and more prominent to Bobbie's auditory perception.
The perception of loudness is not solely determined by the physical characteristics of the sound wave but is also influenced by individual differences and contextual factors. Factors such as distance from the sound source, acoustics of the environment, and personal hearing sensitivity can further shape the perception of loudness.
In conclusion, by increasing the amplitude of the sound wave while listening to music, Bobbie altered the characteristic of loudness in his auditory perception. This change resulted in a perceived increase in the intensity and volume of the music.
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ieges z, mead g, allerhand m, et al. sedentary behavior in the firstyear after stroke: a longitudinal cohort study with objectivemeasures. arch phys med rehabil. 2015;96(1):
The article titled "Sedentary Behavior in the First Year After Stroke: A Longitudinal Cohort Study with Objective Measures" examines the patterns of sedentary behavior in individuals during the first year.
In this study, the researchers aimed to investigate the sedentary behavior of stroke survivors using objective measures. They collected data longitudinally to track the sedentary behavior patterns of participants over the course of one year after their stroke.
The study contributes to our understanding of the sedentary lifestyle that stroke survivors may adopt and its potential impact on their recovery and overall health. By using objective measures, such as accelerometers, the researchers were able to gather accurate and reliable data on sedentary behavior.
The findings of this study may inform interventions and strategies to promote physical activity and reduce sedentary time in stroke survivors, ultimately improving their rehabilitation outcomes and quality of life.
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The least often cited reason for using mixed methods is? not stated initiation triangulation development.
The least often cited reason for using mixed methods is initiation. Initiation refers to the starting point or the beginning of a research study or project.
In the context of mixed methods, initiation involves the decision-making process of whether to combine qualitative and quantitative methods in a study. While mixed methods research offers several benefits, such as a comprehensive understanding of a research problem and the ability to capture both breadth and depth of data, initiation is often not cited as a prominent reason for using mixed methods.
Researchers may prioritize other reasons, such as triangulation, development, or the need to address research questions from multiple perspectives. Triangulation involves the use of different methods to examine the same phenomenon, aiming to enhance the validity and reliability of findings. Development refers to the iterative process of refining and improving research designs and methods over time.
It is important to note that the least often cited reason can vary depending on the research context and the specific goals of a study. Researchers may prioritize different reasons based on their research objectives and the nature of the research problem they are addressing.
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1. compare and contrast implicit bias as discussed by maureen fitzgerald, phd, jd, llm, bcomm in her ted talk and the mythical norm as discussed in the textbook chegg
Implicit bias, as discussed by Maureen Fitzgerald in her TED Talk, and the mythical norm, as discussed in the textbook, are both concepts that highlight the influence of societal biases and stereotypes on individuals.
However, there are some differences in how they are conceptualized and the contexts in which they are applied.
Implicit bias refers to the unconscious biases and stereotypes that individuals hold towards certain social groups. These biases are often formed based on societal norms, cultural influences, and personal experiences. Fitzgerald emphasizes that implicit biases can have significant impacts on decision-making processes, perpetuate inequality, and hinder social progress. She encourages individuals to become aware of their own biases and take proactive steps to challenge and overcome them.
On the other hand, the mythical norm, as discussed in the textbook, refers to the dominant social group or identity that is considered the norm in a given society. This norm often sets the standards for what is deemed "normal" or "ideal," while marginalizing and excluding individuals or groups who do not fit within that norm. The mythical norm reinforces social hierarchies and privileges certain identities over others, leading to systemic inequality and discrimination.
While implicit bias focuses on individual-level biases that may be unconscious, the mythical norm highlights the broader social structures and systems that perpetuate inequality. Both concepts recognize the presence of biases and stereotypes in society, but they approach the issue from different angles.
It is important to note that implicit bias and the mythical norm are interconnected. The mythical norm influences the formation of implicit biases by shaping societal attitudes and perceptions. Implicit biases, in turn, contribute to the reinforcement and perpetuation of the mythical norm. Both concepts highlight the need for awareness, education, and proactive efforts to challenge and dismantle biases and oppressive social norms.
In summary, implicit bias and the mythical norm share the common goal of shedding light on societal biases and their impact on individuals and communities. While implicit bias focuses on individual-level unconscious biases, the mythical norm examines the broader social structures that reinforce inequality. By understanding and addressing both concepts, we can work towards creating a more inclusive and equitable society.
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DPN was a movement sparked by _________. a refusal to admit deaf students to the university failure to provide accommodations for deaf students a refusal to admit hearing students to the university the selection of a hearing president for the university
The correct option is A, DPN (Deaf President Now) was a movement sparked by a refusal to admit deaf students to the university.
DPN (Deaf President Now) was a student-led protest that took place in the United States in 1988. It was a successful deaf community protest that lasted for an entire week. The protest was sparked by a decision made by the Board of Trustees of Gallaudet University in Washington, D.C., which is the only university in the world that is entirely devoted to the education of the deaf and hard of hearing.
The Board of Trustees had decided to choose a hearing president over several deaf candidates. The protesters demanded that the Board reverse its decision and appoint a deaf president. After a week of protests, the Board of Trustees yielded to the protesters' demands and appointed the first deaf president, I. King Jordan. The movement has been considered a defining moment in the history of deaf culture and deaf rights.
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An appraiser’s client wishes to remain anonymous, and asks the appraiser not to include client’s identity in an appraisal report. What should the appraiser do?
The appraiser should respect the client's request for anonymity and exclude the client's identity from the appraisal report.
As a professional appraiser, it is crucial to prioritize client confidentiality and respect their wishes for anonymity. To comply with the client's request, the appraiser should ensure that the client's identity is not disclosed in the appraisal report.
This may involve omitting any personal identifying information or using pseudonyms to refer to the client. By maintaining client confidentiality, the appraiser upholds professional ethics and safeguards the privacy of their clients.
It is important to note that this practice aligns with established standards and regulations, such as the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), which emphasize the need to protect client confidentiality and maintain the integrity of the appraisal process.
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