How many calendars did the Mayans have

Answer:

(b) -6

Step-by-step explanation:

=3x-x+2

=3(-4)-(-4)+2

=-12+4+2

=-12+6

=-6

Answer:

0.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8/10

Step-by-step explanation:

5/5 is equivalent to 1 whole or one.

So all your suppose to do is 1 minus 2/10 which is 8/10.

Hope that helps

↖(^ω^)↗

Answer:

1 hour 29 minutes and 29 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the circumference of the two semicircles of the track (which forms a full circle of radius 40m):

pi×40×2 = 80pi

The total length of the track to be travelled would be:

(80pi+130+130) × 42 = (80pi+260) ×42

                       = 21 476m (Rounded to 5 s.f.)

80m/20s

1s = 80÷20

   = 4m

For every 1 second, Kat travels 4m.

Total Time taken:

21 476÷4 = 5369 seconds

               = 1 hour 29 minutes and 29 seconds

Answer:

yea

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes.

16 could also be written as 16.0, or 16.00 or even 16.00000.

16.4 could also be written as 16.40, or 16.400.

And of course, you know 4 is greater than 0.

This is why 16.4 is greater.

When you add a decimal to a number, it always makes it larger. its like saying 16 and 4 tenths.

Answer:

11000 meters

Step-by-step explanation:

1km=1000m

5km=5000m

5000+6000=11000m

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation: i googled it

Answer:

x=(-5)

y=(-2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(-5, -2)

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Algebra I

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define systems

6x = 10y - 10

x + y + 7 = 0

Step 2: Rewrite systems

6x = 10y - 10

y = -x - 7

Step 3: Solve for x

Step 4: Solve for y

And we have our answer!

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

80% +15% +5%=100

15/100= 0.15

5/100= 0.05

therfore

0.15 + 0.05 = number of flaws

=0.20

Based on the flaws that the manufacturer notices, we can infer that the expected number of flaws will be 0.25 which is e. none of the above.

The expected number of flaws is a weighted average of the percentages that have flaws:

=∑ (Percentage of flaws x Number of flaws)

The expected number of flaws is therefore:

= (80% x 0) + (15% x 1) + (5% x 2)

= 15% + 10%

= 0.25

In conclusion, you would expected the number of flaws to be 0.25.

Find out more at https://brainly.com/question/13412627.

Answer:

-0.391 < x < 0.391

Step-by-step explanation:

The Maclaurin series for cosine is:

cos(x) = ∑ (-1)ⁿ x²ⁿ / (2n)!

So the next term would be -x⁶/6!.  When the absolute value of this is less than the error:

│-x⁶/6!│< 0.000005

x⁶ / 720 < 0.000005

x⁶ < 0.0036

-0.391 < x < 0.391

Answer:

30 remainder 1 or 30.5

Step-by-step explanation:

please make me brainliest

Answer:

i think i can see the picture

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$24.25

Step-by-step explanation:

$(17.75 + 6.5)

= $24.25

Hope this helped!

Answer:

6/27

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]4 \frac{3}{6} \\ \\ = \frac{4 \times 6 + 3}{6} \\ \\ = \frac{24 + 3}{6} \\ \\ 4 \frac{3}{6} = \frac{27}{6} \\ \\ reciprocal \: of \: 4 \frac{3}{6} = \frac{6}{27} [/tex]

Answer: (B) Addison can eliminate $45 from Food/Clothes and $41 from Entertainment.

Based on the information given, Addison should eliminate $45 from the money budget for Food/Clothes ($445.00) and $41 from Entertainment ($270.00).

Given the following data:

Mathematically, the monthly payment for a credit card can be calculated by using this formula:

[tex]M=P(\frac{r}{1-(1+r)^{-nt}} )[/tex]

Where:

In this scenario, Addison should eliminate $45 from the money budget for Food/Clothes ($445.00) and $41 from Entertainment ($270.00) because they are the least cuts to her current expenses and they would avail her an opportunity to pay off her balance in 24 months (2 years).

Read more on monthly payment here: https://brainly.com/question/2151013

Answer:

1/3x - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

5/6x - 7 -1/2x + 6.          - -6 turns it to +6

5/6x - 7 -3/6x + 6.          Turn 1/2x to 3/6x to make the denominators the same

5/6x - 3/6x -7 + 6

2/6x -1

1/3x - 1

Answer:

32x - 16

Step-by-step explanation:

16(2x - 1)​

16 • 2x - 16

32x - 16

Answer:

32x - 16

Step-by-step explanation:

distrubutive property: 16 times 2x plus 16 times -1

Answer:

The required equation is:

[tex]y=4x+30[/tex]

So, Option C is correct option.

Step-by-step explanation:

Entry fee for fair = $30

Cost of one ride = $4

Cost of x rides = $4x

If y represents the total cost the equation will be sum, of entree fee and cost of x rides i.e

[tex]y=4x+30[/tex]

The required equation is:

[tex]y=4x+30[/tex]

So, Option C is correct option.

Answer:

y = 5, 3; x = 171, 155

Step-by-step explanation:

8y - 15 = y^2

y^2-8y+15=0

y^2-3y-5y+15=0

y(y-3)-5(y-3)=0

(y-5)(y-3)=0

y can be 5 or 3.

x = 180 - (8y - 15)

x = 180 - (8(3)-15)

x = 180 - 9

x = 171

OR

x = 180 - (8(5) - 15)

x = 180 - 25

x = 155

Answer:

The answer is "Option A".

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability function is

[tex]\to P(X) = K_{{C}_{k}} \times \frac{N-K_{{C}_{n-k}}}{N_{C}_{n}}[/tex]

 The population size (N)= 28

The number of success in population(K) = 3

The number of draws (n)= 4

Answer:

yes it is a function

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4. 3

The answer is the last option, all you do is reduce

Step-by-step explanation:

rise over run = rise/run = 6/2

reduce,

6/2

3/1

3x

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1). a(x) = -4x + 7  If x > 1

   a(8) = -4(8) + 7

          = -32 + 7

          = -25

2). a(x) = 2x - x² If -6 < x ≤ 1

    a(1) = 2(1) - 1²

           = 2 - 1

           = 1

3). a(x) = |x - 8| If x ≤ -6

   a(-7) = |- 7 - 8|

           = |-15|

           = 15

4). a(x) =  2x - x² If -6 < x ≤ 1

   a(-3) = 2(-3) - (-3)²

           = -6 - 9

           = -15

5). a(x) =  2x - x² If -6 < x ≤ 1

    [tex]a(-\frac{1}{2})=2(-\frac{1}{2})-(-\frac{1}{2})^{2}[/tex]

               = - 1 - [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]

               = [tex]-\frac{5}{4}[/tex]

6). a(x) = -4x + 7 If x > 1

    [tex]a(\frac{9}{4})=-4(\frac{9}{4})+7[/tex]

            = -9 + 7

            = -2

Answer:

15,000 from her savings

Step-by-step explanation:2,500*12=30,000  45000-30,000=15,000

Answer:

He received $320 last year

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$320

Step-by-step explanation:

2(150 + 10)= x. x=2(160) x=320. SO he actually got 320 dollars for his birthday last year.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for  calculating the amount after t years is expressed as;

A = P(1+r/n)*nt

P is the Principal (amount invested) = $300

r is the rate = 7% = 0.07

t is the time used to save = 11 years

n is time of compounding = 1/4 (quarterly)

Substitute;

A = 300 (1+0.07/(1/4))^(1/4)(11)

A = 300(1+4(0.07))^2.75

A = 300(1+0.28)^2.75

A = 300(1.28)^2.75

A = 300(1.9716)

A = 591.49

Hence the amount that will be in her account after 11 years is $591.49

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 60 because the equation u = 26 tells us u is 26

So we can plug in 26 into u + 34

It should look like this 26 + 34 and it equals 60

pls mark brainliest

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: C.2304

Step-by-step explanation:

volume for a sphere formula: V=4/3πr^3

[tex]V=4/3\pi r^3=4/3*\pi *12^3=7238.23\\7238.23/\pi \\=2304\\[/tex]

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

True the table top can go on forever without touching the floor.