How does the term sociology differ from the term society? What does the term social sciences refer to? What disciplines are included in the social sciences?

Answers

Answer 1

Sociology differs from society in that sociology is the scientific study of society, including its patterns, relationships, and culture. It is a social science that is used to examine the social behavior of people and groups.

Society, on the other hand, refers to a group of people living together and sharing a common culture.Social sciences refer to the scientific study of human behavior and society. This includes the study of various fields, such as psychology, economics, political science, anthropology, and sociology.

Social sciences are used to analyze and understand human behavior and social interactions by examining the patterns and relationships among individuals, groups, and institutions.Some of the disciplines included in the social sciences are:1. Sociology2. Psychology3. Economics4. Political Science5. Anthropology6. Communication7. Geography8. History9. Archaeology10. Linguistics11. Law

To know more about Sociology visit:

https://brainly.com/question/4120495

#SPJ11


Related Questions

Growth and nutritional requirements determine where a microorganism can be found. A new, unknown bacterium is found growing on notebook paper. What is the most likely FOOD source for this new bacterium? How would you test your idea?

Answers

Growth and nutritional requirements determine where a microorganism can be found. The growth of microorganisms is highly dependent on the availability of nutrients and other growth factors.

The nutritional requirements of a microorganism can vary considerably depending on the type of organism, its stage of growth, and the environmental conditions.

The most likely FOOD source for this new bacterium is cellulose. Notebook paper is made up of cellulose fibers. Therefore, cellulose could be the most likely food source for the unknown bacterium growing on the notebook paper. However, this is just a guess, and to test this idea, the bacterium would need to be isolated and cultured in a laboratory using various nutrient media.

The growth of the bacterium could then be monitored, and its nutritional requirements could be determined based on the nutrient media that it grows best on.

Various carbohydrates and proteins could also be added to the media to determine if the bacterium can utilize these nutrients as a source of food. This process would help to identify the bacterium and its nutritional requirements.

To know more about Growth visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28789953

#SPJ11

Please answer the questions below Sympathetic pre-ganglionic neurons: 1 point release Norepinephrine (NE) have short-axons originate from anterior horns all of the above The parasympathetic division 1 point Decreases blood flow to the skin. Mediates many reflexes that regulate the digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems Is responsible for the fight or flight response Causes an increase in metabolism

Answers

The parasympathetic division:

- Decreases blood flow to the skin.

- Mediates many reflexes that regulate the digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems.

The other two statements are not accurate:

- The sympathetic pre-ganglionic neurons release norepinephrine (NE), not the parasympathetic division.

- The sympathetic division is responsible for the fight or flight response, not the parasympathetic division.

- The parasympathetic division does not cause an increase in metabolism; it is associated with rest, digestion, and relaxation.

To know more about parasympathetic division click here:

https://brainly.com/question/29855839

#SPJ11

For all PCR experiments carried out to determine if a gene of interest (such as ApeE, InvA, or beta-lactamase) is present in MH1: If the gene of interest is present in MH1, then you will observe two bands when the PCR products are visualized using gel electrophoresis If the gene of interest is not present in MH1, then you will observe no bands when the PCR products are visualized using gel electrophoresis.

Answers

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique for detecting a specific gene sequence. PCR is an essential tool in modern molecular biology research, allowing scientists to detect gene expression, mutation, and copy number variation (CNV). The basic procedure of PCR is relatively straightforward and consists of three steps: denaturation, annealing, and extension.

The PCR technique is commonly used in research to detect the presence or absence of a gene of interest. Suppose the gene of interest (such as ApeE, InvA, or beta-lactamase) is present in MH1. In that case, you will observe two bands when the PCR products are visualized using gel electrophoresis. The first band represents the PCR product generated from the forward primer, and the second band represents the PCR product generated from the reverse primer. The distance between the two bands on the gel corresponds to the size of the PCR product. The presence of two bands confirms that the gene of interest is present in MH1. On the other hand, if the gene of interest is not present in MH1, then you will observe no bands when the PCR products are visualized using gel electrophoresis.

Thus, PCR is a highly sensitive and specific technique for detecting the presence or absence of a gene of interest. In conclusion, the presence of two bands in gel electrophoresis is a positive indication of the presence of the gene of interest, while the absence of bands suggests its absence.

To know more about Polymerase visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/15230028

#SPJ11

please just final answer for all ☹️
All past questions 9-The resting potential of a myelinated nerve fiber is primarily dependent on the concentration gradient of which of the مهم ?following ions A) Ca++ B) CI- C) HCO3- D) K+ E) Na 1

Answers

The resting potential of a myelinated nerve fiber is primarily dependent on the concentration gradient of K+ ions.

The resting potential of a myelinated nerve fiber refers to the electrical charge difference across the cell membrane when the neuron is not actively transmitting signals. It is primarily determined by the concentration gradients of specific ions. Among the given options, the concentration gradient of potassium ions (K+) plays a crucial role in establishing the resting potential.

Inside the cell, there is a higher concentration of potassium ions compared to the outside. This creates an electrochemical gradient that favors the movement of potassium ions out of the cell. As a result, the inside of the cell becomes more negative relative to the outside, generating the resting potential. The other ions mentioned (Ca++, CI-, HCO3-, Na+) also contribute to various cellular processes, but they are not primarily responsible for establishing the resting potential in a myelinated nerve fiber.

Learn more about resting potential here: https://brainly.com/question/29188042

#SPJ11

46. Mutations in the following group of genes lead to transformations in which one appendage-like structure is replaced by another:
Select one:
a. homeotic genes
b. pair-rule genes
c. maternal genes
d. segmentation genes
e. "GAP" genes

Answers

Mutations in homeotic genes can lead to transformations in which one appendage-like structure is replaced by another. So, option A is accurate.

Homeotic genes, also known as Hox genes, are a group of genes that play a fundamental role in the development and patterning of body structures during embryonic development. These genes encode transcription factors that regulate the expression of other genes involved in specifying the identity of body segments and the formation of different organs and structures.

Homeotic genes are a class of genes that play a crucial role in specifying the identity and development of body segments and appendages during embryonic development. They provide instructions for the development of specific body parts, such as limbs, antennae, or wings, in their appropriate locations along the body axis. Mutations in homeotic genes can disrupt the normal patterning and result in the transformation of one body part into another, leading to abnormal appendage development.

To know more about Homeotic genes

brainly.com/question/31535854

#SPJ11

Inflammation as the result of an inefficient and overactive immune response in aging contributes to all these diseases EXCEPT
Question 15 options:
Rheumatoid arthritis
Atherosclerosis
Osteoporosis
Alzheimer's
Dehydrated older adults seem to be more susceptible to ________.
Question 16 options:
UTI and pressure ulcers
weight gain and polyuria
HTN and blood loss
memory loss and dementia

Answers

15) Inflammation as the result of an inefficient and overactive immune response in aging contributes to all of the listed diseases EXCEPT Osteoporosis.

16) Dehydrated older adults seem to be more susceptible to UTI and pressure ulcers.

Question 15:

While inflammation can play a role in bone loss and contribute to osteoporosis to some extent, the primary mechanism underlying osteoporosis is the imbalance between bone resorption and formation, leading to decreased bone density. Factors such as hormonal changes, inadequate calcium intake, and physical inactivity play more significant roles in the development of osteoporosis.

Question 16:

Dehydration can compromise the body's immune system and impair various physiological functions, making older adults more prone to urinary tract infections (UTIs) and pressure ulcers. Dehydration can affect urine concentration and flow, making it easier for bacteria to proliferate in the urinary tract and cause infections. Additionally, inadequate hydration can lead to poor skin integrity and reduced blood flow, increasing the risk of developing pressure ulcers (bedsores) in individuals who are immobile or spend prolonged periods in the same position.

To know more about Inflammation

brainly.com/question/32375535

#SPJ11

which of the following are not phagocytic? a-esinophils,
b-basophils, c-neutrophils, d-monocytes

Answers

The following which are not phagocytic are: a. Eosinophils, b. Basophils, c. Neutrophils.

Phagocytosis is the process by which white blood cells (WBCs) ingest and destroy foreign invaders, as well as worn-out or damaged cells from the body. The following cells are not phagocytic:

a. Eosinophils.

b. Basophils.

c. Neutrophils.

a. Eosinophils: Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are involved in the immune response against parasitic infections and certain allergic reactions.

While they are primarily known for their role in combating parasites and releasing substances to control inflammation, eosinophils are also capable of phagocytosis.

b. Basophils: Basophils are another type of white blood cell that are involved in the immune response, particularly in allergic reactions and defense against parasites. They release substances such as histamine and heparin.

Although their main function is not phagocytosis, basophils can participate in phagocytic processes under certain conditions.

c. Neutrophils: Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cells and are considered the first responders to an infection. They are highly phagocytic and play a crucial role in engulfing and destroying bacteria, fungi, and other pathogens.

Neutrophils are essential components of the immune system's innate response to foreign invaders.

Therefore, the following which are not phagocytic are a. esinophils, b. basophils and c. neutrophils.

To learn more about cells, refer below:

https://brainly.com/question/19853211

#SPJ11

Fill in the Gaps Esophagus and Stomach the Ward Barre. (Himt: Nat all the word will be wadi) 1. The esophagus exrends from the to the 2. A muscular sphincter called the stomach acid into the esophagus

Answers

1. The esophagus extends from the pharynx to the stomach.2. A muscular sphincter called the lower esophageal sphincter prevents stomach acid from flowing into the esophagus.

1. The esophagus extends from the pharynx to the stomach.2. A muscular sphincter called the lower esophageal sphincter prevents stomach acid from flowing into the esophagus. The Ward Barret is an incorrect spelling, so it is unclear what the question is asking for regarding this term. However, the terms "esophagus" and "stomach" are related to the digestive system. The esophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach and passes food from the mouth to the stomach.

The stomach is a muscular sac in the digestive system that mixes and grinds food with digestive juices such as hydrochloric acid and pepsin. The food becomes liquid called chyme and is slowly released into the small intestine through the pyloric sphincter, the muscular valve at the lower end of the stomach. The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is a muscular ring located between the esophagus and the stomach. It opens to allow food to pass into the stomach and then closes to prevent the contents of the stomach from flowing back into the esophagus. It prevents acid reflux from occurring.

To know more about esophagus visit

https://brainly.com/question/14762195

#SPJ11

E. coli DNA polymerase III synthesizes two new DNA strands
during replication, yet it possesses three catalytic subunits. Why
has this been adaptive for the cell over evolutionary time?

Answers

Main answer: The E. coli DNA polymerase III having three catalytic subunits has been beneficial for the cell over evolutionary time since it enhances the processivity of replication by allowing for the coordination of leading and lagging strand synthesis.

Explanation:There are three polymerase catalytic subunits, α, ε, and θ, that collaborate to replicate DNA in eukaryotic cells. The α subunit works on the leading strand, whereas the ε subunit works on the lagging strand to coordinate the synthesis of Okazaki fragments. DNA polymerase III is the primary DNA polymerase for leading strand synthesis in E. coli, and it is responsible for extending RNA primers on the lagging strand.The DNA polymerase III holoenzyme is a multisubunit protein complex that contains ten subunits, including the α, ε, and θ catalytic subunits. This enzyme is regarded as the primary DNA polymerase of the E. coli bacterium. DNA polymerase III synthesizes two new DNA strands during replication, with the α catalytic subunit being responsible for most of the polymerization activity.The presence of three catalytic subunits in E.

coli DNA polymerase III is beneficial for the cell over evolutionary time. This is because it improves the replication process's processivity by allowing for the coordination of leading and lagging strand synthesis. The coordination ensures that replication occurs without mistakes, which is important for the cell to reproduce without mutations that may be detrimental to survival.

To know more about DNA polymerase, visit:

brainly.com/question/14315652

#SPJ11

​Identify the animal with the most advanced cephalization.

Answers

Cephalization is the evolutionary development of an animal's nervous system in the head, resulting in bilateral symmetry and a distinct head, including a brain.

The animal with the most advanced cephalization is the human being. It is distinguished by the presence of a large, complex brain that allows for complex thought processes, language, and self-awareness.The human brain is comprised of about 100 billion neurons,.

And it is constantly receiving information from the senses, processing it, and responding to it. The brain is also responsible for regulating and coordinating all bodily functions, including movement, digestion, and respiration.The development of the human brain has been an evolutionary process that has taken millions of years.

To know more about Cephalization visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14798639

#SPJ11

the side of the body containing the vertebral column is: Select one: a. buccal b. dorsal c. thoracic d. ventral

Answers

The side of the body containing the vertebral column is called dorsal. The term dorsal refers to the back or upper side of an animal or organism.

The dorsal side is opposite to the ventral side of the body. Vertebral column is a significant structure in the human body. It is also called the spinal column, spine, or backbone. It is composed of individual bones, called vertebrae, stacked up on one another in a column. The vertebral column is a critical structure because it surrounds and protects the spinal cord, which is an essential part of the central nervous system.

The dorsal side of the vertebral column is protected by the muscles of the back, while the ventral side is protected by the ribcage, breastbone, and abdominal muscles. The dorsal side of the body also contains important structures like the spinal cord, spinal nerves, and the dorsal root ganglion.

These structures are responsible for the transmission of sensory information to the brain. The thoracic region of the vertebral column is located in the upper back and is responsible for protecting the heart and lungs.

To know more about vertebral visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31502353

#SPJ11

In a population of turtles, there are yellow-green shells and green shells. The yellow shells are caused by a homozygous recessive gene and the green shells are caused by the dominant gene. Given the following data: AA=440
Aa=280
aa=100

a) Calculate p and q. b) Use a chi square test to determine if these alleles are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Answers

The allele frequencies are p=0.71 and q=0.29 and the alleles are not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

(a) Calculation of p and q:

Here is the given data for the population of turtles having green and yellow shells.

AA = 440Aa = 280aa = 100

The dominant gene is responsible for the green color and it is represented by A.

The yellow color is caused by the recessive gene represented by a.

Now we can calculate p and q.

According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle:

p + q = 1 where

p is the frequency of the dominant allele (A) and

q is the frequency of the recessive allele (a).

So, the allele frequency can be determined from the given data:

p = f(A) = [2(AA) + Aa]/2N = [2(440) + 280]/2(820) = 1160/1640 = 0.71q = f(a) = [2(aa) + Aa]/2N = [2(100) + 280]/2(820) = 480/1640 = 0.29

Therefore, the allele frequencies are p=0.71 and q=0.29.

(b) Chi-square test to determine if the alleles are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can be tested using the chi-square test,

which tests whether the observed frequencies of genotypes are significantly different from the expected frequencies.

The expected frequency of genotypes can be calculated using the allele frequencies as follows:

AA = p2N = 0.71 × 0.71 × 820 = 413

Aa = 2pqN = 2 × 0.71 × 0.29 × 820 = 337

aa = q2N = 0.29 × 0.29 × 820 = 70

Using these values, we can calculate the chi-square value as follows:

χ2 = (observed – expected)2/expected

= [(440 – 413)2/413] + [(280 – 337)2/337] + [(100 – 70)2/70]

= 1.99 + 2.91 + 8.29 = 13.09

The degrees of freedom are equal to the number of genotypes minus 1, which is 3 – 1 = 2.

Using a chi-square table with 2 degrees of freedom and a significance level of 0.05, we find the critical value to be 5.99.

Since the calculated chi-square value of 13.09 is greater than the critical value of 5.99, we reject the null hypothesis that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Therefore, the alleles are not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

To know more about allele frequencies visit:

https://brainly.com/question/19922911

#SPJ11

Question 34 5 pt In the case study on excessive thirst, the diagnosis was narrowed down to diabetes insipidus. 1. What are the 4 types of diabetes insipidus? Describe the defect in each

Answers

Diabetes insipidus is a disorder in which the body is unable to regulate the water balance within the body. As a result, the body eliminates too much water, leading to excessive thirst, and a constant need to urinate.

The disorder is caused by a deficiency in the production or action of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), which is responsible for regulating the body's water balance.

There are four types of diabetes insipidus which include:Central Diabetes Insipidus: The most common form of diabetes insipidus, central diabetes insipidus is caused by the damage of the hypothalamus or the pituitary gland.

In most cases, the damage is due to trauma or tumors, which leads to a deficiency of ADH.

To know more about excessive visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30107806

#SPJ11

A substitution of one nucleotide in a gene (for example A changed to C) could result in which types of protein mutations? (select all that apply) A) silent B) frameshift C) missense D) nonsense. Question 15 2 pts Which of the following would affect whether transcription could occur? (select all that apply) A) destroying ribosomes OB. DNA methylation (epigenetics) C) how DNA coils around histones OD. proteins bound to promoter regions E) microRNA OF. RNA splicing

Answers

A substitution of one nucleotide result in various types of protein mutations, like silent, missense, and nonsense mutations. Factors that can affect transcription include DNA methylation, how DNA coils around histones, proteins bound to promoter regions, and RNA splicing.

1) A substitution of one nucleotide in a gene can lead to different types of protein mutations. One possibility is a silent mutation, where the nucleotide change does not alter the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein. Silent mutations occur when the substituted nucleotide still codes for the same amino acid due to the degeneracy of the genetic code. Hence, the mutation has no functional consequence on the protein's structure or function.

However, a nucleotide substitution can also result in missense or nonsense mutations. In a missense mutation, the altered nucleotide leads to the incorporation of a different amino acid in the protein sequence. This change can affect the protein's structure, function, or interaction with other molecules.

On the other hand, a nonsense mutation occurs when the substituted nucleotide leads to the premature termination of protein synthesis. This results in a truncated protein that is usually nonfunctional or may have a significantly altered function.

2) Several factors can influence transcription, the process by which DNA is converted into RNA. DNA methylation, an epigenetic modification where methyl groups are added to DNA molecules, can affect gene expression. Methylation patterns can either promote or inhibit transcription depending on their location in the gene.

The way DNA coils around histones, proteins that help organize and package DNA, can also impact transcription. Tightly wound DNA is less accessible to the transcription machinery, potentially inhibiting transcription, while loosely wound DNA allows for easier access and increased transcription.

Proteins bound to promoter regions, which are DNA sequences that initiate transcription, can enhance or hinder transcription by recruiting or blocking the necessary transcription factors and RNA polymerase.

Additionally, RNA splicing, the process of removing introns and joining exons in RNA molecules, plays a crucial role in determining which portions of the genetic information are transcribed into proteins. Alternative splicing can result in different protein isoforms with distinct functions.

Learn more about RNA splicing here:

https://brainly.com/question/30699332

#SPJ11

There are some relatively rare plants that have white leaves. These plants are a bit of a mystery because....
O they must be absorbing all wavelengths of visible light
O they must not be photosynthesizing
O they may be photosynthesizing by using wavelengths of light that are not in the visible part of the spectrum

Answers

O they may be photosynthesizing by using wavelengths of light that are not in the visible part of the spectrum.White leaves in plants are relatively rare and appear ghostly.

They are a mystery since the green color in plants is due to the pigment called chlorophyll. The presence of chlorophyll is the basis of photosynthesis in plants, the process through which they make their food by converting sunlight into energy. The fact that the leaves of such plants are white indicates that the process of photosynthesis is not taking place or is taking place differently. One possibility is that such plants may be photosynthesizing by using wavelengths of light that are not in the visible part of the spectrum. The wavelengths of light in the visible spectrum range from about 400 to 700 nm (nanometers) and include all the colors of the rainbow: violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red.

So, these white plants may be absorbing non-visible wavelengths of light, such as ultraviolet or infrared, to carry out photosynthesis. Some studies have shown that some plant species with white leaves have higher concentrations of pigments called anthocyanins that reflect light at shorter wavelengths, such as blue or purple, which could be used by the plant for photosynthesis. Therefore, white leaves may represent an alternative strategy for photosynthesis by plants.

learn more about photosynthesizing

https://brainly.com/question/31857186

#SPJ11

this js a physiology question.
In type Il diabetes cells have developed insulin resistance. This is because cells are no longer responding to insulin. How can a cell control its response to a hormone? Explain what effect this would

Answers

A cell can control its response to a hormone through a process called hormone regulation. Hormone regulation involves various mechanisms that allow a cell to adjust its sensitivity and responsiveness to the presence of a hormone. One such mechanism is the modulation of hormone receptors.

Hormone receptors are proteins located on the surface or inside the cell that bind to specific hormones. When a hormone binds to its receptor, it initiates a series of signaling events that ultimately lead to a cellular response. However, cells have the ability to regulate the number and activity of hormone receptors, which can impact their response to the hormone.

One way a cell can control its response to a hormone is by upregulating or downregulating the expression of hormone receptors. Upregulation involves increasing the number of receptors on the cell surface, making the cell more sensitive to the hormone. Downregulation, on the other hand, decreases the number of receptors, reducing the cell's sensitivity to the hormone.

Additionally, cells can also modify the activity of hormone receptors through post-translational modifications. For example, phosphorylation of the receptor protein can either enhance or inhibit its signaling capacity, thereby influencing the cell's response to the hormone.

In the case of insulin resistance in type II diabetes, cells become less responsive to insulin. This can occur due to downregulation of insulin receptors or alterations in the intracellular signaling pathways involved in insulin action. As a result, the cells fail to effectively take up glucose from the bloodstream, leading to increased blood sugar levels.

In summary, a cell can control its response to a hormone through mechanisms such as regulating the expression and activity of hormone receptors. Alterations in these regulatory processes can impact the cell's sensitivity and responsiveness to the hormone, as seen in the case of insulin resistance in type II diabetes.

Learn more about insulin here:

/brainly.com/question/33442808

#SPJ11

In type Il diabetes cells have developed insulin resistance. This is because cells are no longer responding to insulin. How can a cell control its response to a hormone? Explain what effect this would on body.

When completely oxidized , how many Acetyl-CoA's will be produced from an 8-CARBON fatty acid chain?

Answers

When an 8-carbon fatty acid chain is completely oxidized, it will yield four molecules of acetyl-CoA through the process of β-oxidation, with each molecule entering the citric acid cycle for further energy production.

When an 8-carbon fatty acid chain is completely oxidized, it undergoes a process called β-oxidation, which involves a series of reactions that break down the fatty acid chain into two-carbon units called acetyl-CoA. Each round of β-oxidation produces one molecule of acetyl-CoA.

Since the 8-carbon fatty acid chain will go through four rounds of β-oxidation (8/2 = 4), it will yield four molecules of acetyl-CoA. Each acetyl-CoA can then enter the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle) to generate energy through further oxidation.

Therefore, when completely oxidized, the 8-carbon fatty acid chain will produce four acetyl-CoA molecules.

To know more about 8-carbon refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/727367
#SPJ11

Explain how can hosts defend themselves against invading pathogens?

Answers

In addition to these natural defenses, hosts can also use medication and vaccines to protect themselves against pathogens.

Pathogens are microorganisms that cause disease in a host by damaging or destroying host tissues. There are several ways that hosts can defend themselves against invading pathogens. The first line of defense against pathogens is physical barriers like the skin, mucus membranes, and stomach acid. Physical barriers help to prevent the entry of pathogens into the body. If a pathogen does manage to enter the body, the host's immune system can respond in several ways. The immune system is made up of a network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to identify and destroy foreign invaders. The immune system has two main types of defenses: innate immunity and adaptive immunity. Innate immunity is the first line of defense against pathogens. It includes physical barriers, as well as cells and chemicals that attack and destroy foreign invaders. Adaptive immunity is a more specialized response that develops over time as the immune system learns to recognize specific pathogens. Adaptive immunity involves the production of antibodies and the activation of specialized cells that recognize and destroy infected cells. Medications like antibiotics and antivirals can be used to treat infections, while vaccines can help prevent infections from occurring in the first place.

To know more about pathogens visit:

brainly.com/question/30591454

#SPJ11

Remembering that I had an interesting conversation while eating lunch yesterday is an example of what type of memory?
a. semantic memory
b. episodic memory
c. short-term memory
d. non-declarative memor

Answers

The answer to the question is "b. Episodic memory.

"Explanation: Episodic memory is defined as a type of memory that encompasses the context and content of events that are personally experienced and is thus autobiographical in nature.

Episodic memory aids in the retrieval of events that are retained in our memory that are associated with specific places, times, and feelings. Episodic memory is similar to short-term memory as both types of memory involve the encoding of specific events.

In contrast to semantic memory which involves the encoding of general knowledge and information. Non-declarative memory, also known as procedural memory, refers to the retention of motor skills and abilities.

To know more about procedural visit:

https://brainly.com/question/27176982

#SPJ11

During translation, ribosomes can discriminate cognate, near
cognate and non-cognate ternary complexes. 1) The following diagram
shows one codon in a mRNA molecule and the tRNA contained into
ternary

Answers

Ribosomes can discriminate between cognate, near cognate, and non-cognate ternary complexes by checking for accuracy of base pairing between the codon and the anticodon of the tRNA. Translation is the process of synthesizing protein from an mRNA molecule.

Translation is the process of synthesizing protein from an mRNA molecule. The ribosome is the key element in this process. During translation, ribosomes can distinguish between cognate, near cognate, and non-cognate ternary complexes.
A ternary complex is a complex formed by the ribosome, mRNA, and charged tRNA. A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that encodes a specific amino acid. The ribosome reads the codons in the mRNA molecule and matches them with the appropriate tRNA.
Cognate ternary complexes are those that correctly match the codon and the tRNA, while near cognate ternary complexes are those that are almost correct but contain a mismatched nucleotide. Non-cognate ternary complexes are those that have a significant mismatch and are not recognized by the ribosome.
Ribosomes can distinguish between these complexes by the accuracy of base pairing between the codon and the anticodon of the tRNA. If the base pairing is perfect, then the ribosome recognizes the complex as cognate, and the tRNA is accepted. If there is a mismatch, the ribosome can proofread the codon and check if there is a better match, and in case there isn't, it still binds the amino acid to the chain.
In conclusion, ribosomes can discriminate between cognate, near cognate, and non-cognate ternary complexes by checking for accuracy of base pairing between the codon and the anticodon of the tRNA.

To know more about ribosome visit:

https://brainly.com/question/9333250

#SPJ11

The government reforests two protected areas. In one area a single species of tree is planted and in the other area a mixed group of species are planted. Which of the two areas is expected to accomplish more carbon sequestration and sediment retention? a. The mixed species area b. There will be no difference c. The single species area

Answers

The mixed species area is expected to accomplish more carbon sequestration and sediment retention compared to the single species area.

The planting of a mixed group of species in an area is likely to lead to greater carbon sequestration and sediment retention for several reasons. When multiple tree species are present, they can utilize different resources and occupy different ecological niches, resulting in more efficient resource capture and utilization. This leads to increased overall productivity and carbon sequestration. Different tree species may also have different rates of growth, root structures, and litter decomposition rates, which can enhance soil stability and sediment retention.

In a mixed species area, the diversity of tree species can contribute to a more complex and interconnected root system, creating a stronger network of roots that bind the soil and reduce erosion. Additionally, diverse plant communities can promote soil aggregation and organic matter accumulation, enhancing soil fertility and structure, which in turn improves sediment retention.

In contrast, a single species area may lack the benefits associated with species diversity. While a single species can still contribute to carbon sequestration and sediment retention, it may be limited in its ability to maximize these ecosystem services. The presence of a single species may result in less efficient resource utilization and decreased functional diversity, potentially leading to reduced carbon sequestration and sediment retention compared to a mixed species area.

Learn more about ecosystem services here:

https://brainly.com/question/30771545

#SPJ11

Asexually reproducing organisms pass on their full set of chromosomes whereas sexually reproducing organisms only pass on half of their chromosomes. a. True
b. False

Answers

False, Sexually reproducing organisms do not pass on only half of their chromosomes. In sexual reproduction, two parent organisms contribute genetic material to form offspring.

Each parent donates a gamete, which is a specialized reproductive cell that contains half of the genetic material (half the number of chromosomes) of the parent organism. During fertilization, the gametes fuse, resulting in the combination of genetic material from both parents to form a complete set of chromosomes in the offspring.

The offspring of sexually reproducing organisms inherit a combination of genetic material from both parents, receiving a full set of chromosomes. This allows for genetic diversity and variation among offspring, as they inherit a mix of traits from both parents.

In contrast, asexually reproducing organisms reproduce by mechanisms such as binary fission, budding, or fragmentation. These organisms produce offspring that are genetically identical or nearly identical to the parent, as there is no genetic recombination or exchange involved. In asexual reproduction, the offspring receive a full set of chromosomes from the parent organism, as there is no contribution of genetic material from another individual.

To know more about sexual reproduction click here:

https://brainly.com/question/29541212

#SPJ11

Humans have one of four 'ABO blood types: A, B, AB, or O, determined by combinations of the alleles IA, IB, and i, as described previously. Alleles at a separate genetic locus gene determines whether a person has the dominant trait of being Rh-positive (R) or the recessive trait of being Rh-negative (r). A young man has AB positive blood. His sister has AB negative blood. They are the only two children of their parents. What are the genotypes of the man and his sister? The mother has B negative blood. What is the most likely genotype for the mother?

Answers

 The most likely genotype for the mother is IBi (for ABO blood type) and rr (for Rh blood type).

The young man has AB positive blood. From this, we can determine his ABO blood type is AB, and his Rh blood type is positive (Rh+).

The sister has AB negative blood. Her ABO blood type is AB, and her Rh blood type is negative (Rh-). Based on the information above, we can deduce the genotypes for the man and his sister  The man's genotype for ABO blood type can be either IAIB or IAi, since he has AB blood type. His genotype for Rh blood type is RR, as he is Rh positive.  The sister's genotype for ABO blood type can also be either IAIB or IAi, given that she has AB blood type. Her genotype for Rh blood type is rr, as she is Rh negative. The mother has B negative blood. From this information, we can make an inference about her genotype.

Learn more about Rh blood here:

https://brainly.com/question/1167303

#SPJ11

As the filtrate passes down the descending limb of the loop of Henle, the solute concentration of the filtrate is____ and the volume of the filtrate is____ a. increasing/increasing b. increasing/decreasing c. decreasing/increasing d. decreasing

Answers

As the filtrate passes down the descending limb of the loop of Henle, the solute concentration of the filtrate is increasing and the volume of the filtrate is decreasing.

The loop of Henle plays a crucial role in the concentration of urine. As the filtrate descends down the descending limb of the loop of Henle, water is reabsorbed from the filtrate through osmosis. This reabsorption of water occurs due to the high osmolarity of the surrounding medullary interstitium. As water is removed, the solute concentration of the filtrate becomes more concentrated, resulting in an increasing solute concentration. At the same time, the descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water but not solutes. As water is reabsorbed, the volume of the filtrate decreases. This reduction in volume occurs without a significant change in solute concentration, leading to a concentrated filtrate.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B: increasing/decreasing.

To know more about loop of Henle click here:
https://brainly.com/question/30640672

#SPJ11

14. Which immunoglobulin isotype CANNOT be produced by memory B cells? a. IgM b. IgA2 c. All of the answers can be produced by memory B cells. d. IGE e. IgG1

Answers

The correct answer is e. IgG1. Memory B cells are capable of producing various immunoglobulin isotypes, including IgM, IgA2, IgE, and IgG. Therefore, all of the answers except IgG1 can be produced by memory B cells.

Memory B cells play a crucial role in the immune response. They are a type of long-lived B lymphocyte that has previously encountered and responded to a specific antigen. Memory B cells are generated during the initial immune response to an antigen and persist in the body for an extended period of time.

When a pathogen or antigen that the body has encountered before re-enters the system, memory B cells quickly recognize it and mount a rapid and robust immune response. This response is more efficient than the primary immune response, as memory B cells have already undergone the process of affinity maturation and class switching, resulting in the production of high-affinity antibodies.

Memory B cells have the ability to differentiate into plasma cells, which are responsible for the production and secretion of antibodies. These antibodies, specific to the antigen that triggered their formation, can neutralize pathogens, facilitate their clearance by other immune cells, and prevent reinfection.

Importantly, memory B cells can produce different isotypes of antibodies depending on the needs of the immune response. This includes IgM, IgA, IgE, and various subclasses of IgG, such as IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, and IgG4. Each isotype has distinct functions and provides specific types of immune protection.

Overall, memory B cells are vital for the establishment of immunological memory, allowing the immune system to mount a faster and more effective response upon re-exposure to a previously encountered pathogen. Their ability to produce a range of antibody isotypes enhances the versatility and adaptability of the immune response.

To know more about antigen

brainly.com/question/24384193

#SPJ11

Both hormone released by the RAAS pathway cause increased blood pressure by affecting O the myogenic mechanism O blood volume O pH balance O vasoconstriction

Answers

The hormone released by the RAAS pathway that causes increased blood pressure by affecting the myogenic mechanism is vasoconstriction.

What is the RAAS pathway?

The Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is a hormone system that helps to regulate blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. This is done by controlling the amount of salt and water that is excreted in the urine, and by adjusting the diameter of blood vessels. The RAAS pathway is activated when there is a decrease in blood pressure or blood volume, or when there is an increase in salt concentration in the body.

What is the myogenic mechanism?

The myogenic mechanism is a process by which blood vessels constrict or dilate in response to changes in blood pressure. It is an intrinsic response, meaning that it is regulated by the smooth muscle cells in the blood vessel wall itself. When blood pressure increases, the smooth muscle cells in the blood vessel wall will contract, reducing the diameter of the blood vessel and increasing resistance to blood flow. When blood pressure decreases, the smooth muscle cells will relax, increasing the diameter of the blood vessel and decreasing resistance to blood flow.

How does RAAS affect blood pressure?

The RAAS pathway affects blood pressure by several mechanisms. The hormone angiotensin II, which is released as part of the RAAS pathway, causes vasoconstriction, meaning that it causes the blood vessels to narrow. This increases resistance to blood flow and raises blood pressure. Additionally, angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone, which causes the kidneys to retain salt and water. This increases blood volume and also raises blood pressure. Therefore, both vasoconstriction and increased blood volume caused by the RAAS pathway can contribute to an increase in blood pressure.

Learn more about Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) at https://brainly.com/question/30403925

#SPJ11

Identify the correct pathway of blood flow through a two circuit pathway. a. Oventricle-systemic circuit - right atrium
ventricle - pulmonary circuit - left atrium b. ventricle-systemic circuit - left atrium
ventricle - pulmonary circuit - right atrium c. right atrium- ventricle- systemic circuit
left atrium - ventricle - pulmonary circuit d. ventricle-gill capillaries-aorta - systemic circuit - atrium e. right atrium-systemic circuit - ventricle
left atrium - pulmonary circuit - ventricle

Answers

The correct pathway is: right atrium - ventricle - systemic circuit - left atrium - ventricle - pulmonary circuit. So, option C is accurate.

The correct pathway of blood flow through a two-circuit pathway starts with the right atrium receiving deoxygenated blood from the body. From the right atrium, the blood flows into the right ventricle. The right ventricle then pumps the blood into the systemic circuit, which distributes oxygen-depleted blood to various tissues and organs throughout the body. After circulating through the systemic circuit, the oxygen-depleted blood returns to the heart and enters the left atrium. From the left atrium, the blood flows into the left ventricle. Finally, the left ventricle pumps the oxygenated blood into the pulmonary circuit, where it is sent to the lungs to pick up oxygen before returning to the heart.

To know more about blood flow

brainly.com/question/31663277

#SPJ11

how
can black water be treated? and how can it be beneficial for
human

Answers

Black water refers to wastewater that contains faecal matter and urine, typically from toilets and other sanitary fixtures. Treating black water is essential to prevent the spread of diseases and to ensure proper sanitation.

It can be treated by several methods.

1. Sewer Systems: Connecting black water sources to a centralized sewer system is a common method of treatment. The black water is transported through pipes to wastewater treatment plants, where it undergoes various treatment processes.

2. Septic Systems: In areas without access to a centralized sewer system, septic systems are commonly used. Black water is collected in a septic tank, where solids settle at the bottom and undergo anaerobic decomposition. The liquid effluent is then discharged into a drain field for further treatment in the soil.

3. Biological Treatment: Biological treatment methods, such as activated sludge and biofilters, can be used to treat black water. These processes involve the use of microorganisms to break down organic matter and remove contaminants from the water.

4. Chemical Treatment: Chemical disinfection methods, such as chlorination or the use of ultraviolet (UV) light, can be employed to kill pathogens in black water. This helps ensure that the treated water is safe for reuse or discharge.

5. Advanced Treatment Technologies: Advanced treatment technologies, including membrane filtration, reverse osmosis, and constructed wetlands, can be used to further purify black water. These methods help remove remaining contaminants and produce high-quality treated water.

The benefits of treating black water for humans:

1. Disease Prevention: Proper treatment of black water helps eliminate pathogens and reduces the risk of waterborne diseases, which can be harmful to human health.

2. Environmental Protection: Treating black water prevents the contamination of natural water sources, such as rivers and groundwater, which are often used as sources of drinking water. This protects the environment and ensures the availability of clean water resources.

3. Resource Recovery: Treated black water can be recycled or reused for various purposes, such as irrigation, industrial processes, or flushing toilets. This reduces the demand for freshwater resources and promotes sustainable water management.

4. Nutrient Recycling: Black water contains valuable nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus. Through proper treatment processes, these nutrients can be recovered and used as fertilizers in agriculture, reducing the need for synthetic fertilizers and promoting circular economy practices.

Learn more about freshwater resources here ;

https://brainly.com/question/4036594

#SPJ11

f 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then 0.5% saline solution
1) is hypertonic to the cell
2) cause the cell to swel
3) is hypotonic to the cell
4) cause the cell to crenate
5) will not affect the cell

Answers

If a 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a 0.5% saline solution will be hypotonic to the cell and cause the cell to swell.

An isotonic solution is a solution that has the same concentration of solutes as the cytoplasm of a cell.

This means that there is no net movement of water in or out of the cell, and the cell remains at the same size and shape.

An isotonic solution maintains the balance of fluids within and outside the cell.

A hypotonic solution has a lower solute concentration compared to the cytoplasm of a cell.

As a result, water will move from an area of higher concentration (the solution) to an area of lower concentration (the cell).

As a result, the cell will swell as it takes in water and may eventually burst (lysis).

To know more about solution visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1616939

#SPJ11

If 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then 0.5% saline solution is hypertonic to the cell. Correct option is 1.

Within a certain range of external solute  attention, erythrocytes bear as an osmometer their volume is equally related to the solute  attention in a medium. The erythrocyte shrinks in hypertonic  results and swells in hypotonic  results. When an erythrocyte has swollen to about 1.4 times its original volume, it begins to lyse( burst). At this volume the  parcels of the cell membrane  suddenly change, haemoglobin leaks out of the cell and the membrane becomes transiently passable to  utmost  motes.  

NaCl is isotonic to the red blood cell at a  attention of 154 mM. This corresponds with NaCl0.9. The red blood cell has its normal volume in isotonic NaCl. Erythrocytes remain  complete in NaCl 0.9, performing in an opaque  suspense. Distilled water on the other hand is hypotonic to red blood cells. The red blood cell will  thus swell and haemoglobin, containing the haem that gives the red colour to erythrocytes, leaks from the cell performing in a transparent red- pink- coloured  result. supposedly, erythrocytes in clear fluid colour the fluid red and opaque, whereas haemoglobin in clear fluid leaves the fluid transparent.

To know more about hypertonic:

https://brainly.com/question/13886457

#SPJ4

Which statement best explains the concept of natural selection?
O The weakest individuals within a population prevent the population as a whole from reaching maximum fitness and tend to be weeded out over time.
O B Environmental conditions can impose pressures that randomly cause some individuals in a population to live and some to die.
O Environmental conditions can impose pressures that lead to increased survival of some individuals over others in a population because of differences in their traits.
O The strongest individuals within a population are the most fit by definition and therefore are most likely to survive and reproduce.
O Environmental conditions can impose pressures that cause organisms to change their traits in order to improve their chances of survival.

Answers

The statement that best explains the concept of natural selection is: "Environmental conditions can impose pressures that lead to increased survival of some individuals over others in a population because of differences in their traits."

Natural selection is the process by which certain traits or characteristics become more or less common in a population over generations. It occurs when individuals with advantageous traits have higher survival rates and reproductive success compared to those with less advantageous traits. Environmental conditions play a key role in exerting selective pressures that determine which traits are advantageous or disadvantageous in a given environment. Over time, the frequency of advantageous traits increases, leading to the adaptation of the population to its environment.

To know more about Natural selection

brainly.com/question/20152465

#SPJ11

Other Questions
There is an ideal gas turbine that shows a pressure ratio of 4, inlet air temperature of 298 K, a pressure of 0.1MPa, and a mass flow rate of 1kg/s. The combustion temperature is 1673 K. Working fluid can be assumed as an ideal gas. Specific heat at constant pressure and specific heat ratio of the working fluid is 1.0 (kJ/(kg K)), 1.4.(1) Calculate the compressor power assuming that compressor efficiency is 1.0.(2) Calculate the expansion work of the turbine assuming that turbine efficiency is 1.0.(3) Calculate the adsorbed heat in the cycle.(4) Calculate the theoretical thermal efficiency of the turbine.(5) Here, let us consider the actual gas turbine under the given condition. When turbine efficiency is 85 %; the adiabatic efficiency of the compressor is 83 %, calculate the actual thermal efficiency of the turbine system. About 12 years ago, my laboratory published a report on the X-ray crystal structure of a blue copper protein called rusticyanin. The structure of the folded protein is maintained by a large number of noncovalent bonds formed by the interactions of the individual side chains of the amino acids that comprise the protein. As examples of such interactions, it is evident that the side chains of eight different amino acids (Ala, Arg, Asp, Cys, Gln, Ile, Thr, and Val) happen to interact on a pair-wise basis to form four different types of noncovalent bonds (hydrophobic, electrostatic, hydrogen, and van der Waals) in the interior of the folded protein. Use the clues below and/or the information in your textbook to identify the pair of amino acids involved in each type of noncovalent bond. Then answer the questions on BrightSpace for Quiz 10. Clue #1 - Val, Asp, and Thr are involved in three different types of noncovalent bonds that do not include the van der Waals bond. Clue #2-The hydrophobic bond does not involve Arg or Ala. Clue #3 - The hydrogen bond does not involve Val or Ala. Clue #4 - Cys, which does not participate in a hydrophobic bond, does not interact with Thr in rusticyanin. Clue #5-Arg, which does not interact with Thr or Val in rusticyanin, isn't involved in a van der Waals bond. Clue #6-Asp and Ile aren't part of the hydrogen bond in the rusticyanin. Assume that interest is compounded continuously at a nominal rate of 3.3%. An investor wants an investment to be worth $17000 after 13.75 years. Determine the amount the investor must now invest to obtain this goal. Give an exact answer, or an answer correct to the nearest cent Answer: $2676.15 x Dragonfly larvae are voracious predators that eat just about any living animal that can fit in their mouths - including small fish and other dragonflies. Liz wants to know whether dragonflies will eat each other if there are plenty of small fish around. She puts three dragonflies in a tank with no fish, and three dragonflies in a tank with lots of fish. She makes sure that the water temperature, the size of the dragonflies, and the size of the tanks are the same between the two tanks. After 24 hours, she counts how many dragonflies were eaten. A mixture having a molar analysis of 50% CO2, 33.3% CO, and 16.7% O2 enters a compressor operating at steady state at 37C, 1 bar, 40 m/s with a mass flow rate of 1 kg/s and exits at 237C, 30 m/s. The rate of heat transfer from the compressor to its surroundings is 5% of the power input.(a) Neglecting potential energy effects, determine the power input to the compressor, in kW.(b) If the compression is polytropic, evaluate the polytropic exponent n and the exit pressure, in bar. Andrew is saving up money for a down payment on a car. He currently has $3078, but knows he can get a loan at a lower interest rate if he can put down $3887. If he invests the $3078 in an account that earns 4.4% annually, compounded monthly, how long will it take Andrew to accumulate the $3887 ? Round your answer to two decimal places, if necessary. Answer How to enter your answer (opens in new window) Keyboard Shortcuts In order to do tissue culture, you need to understand your media. Address the following questions about your medias.Most tissue culture cells are incubated in the presence of 5% CO2 and 95% air. Although CO2 is required for optimal cell growth, high concentrations of dissolved CO2 in the media will lower the pH, which will inhibit cell growth.What causes the drop in pH and what substance is added to media to maintain the pH at 7.4? Please show chemical equations in your answer.Why is Fetal Bovine Serum is heat-inactivated and what is the procedure for heat-inactivation and subsequent storage? Imagine you are a health care professional and one of your patients just received a blood transfusion. When you go to check on her, you notice there is blood in her urine and is having breathing difficulties. You look at her chart and you notice that she is 0 - but received B+ blood! a. Explain your concern for the patient receiving B+ and why she is having these symptoms. Consider the respiratory, circulatory, and urinary systems and the role of antibodies in your answer. b. Erythropoietin may be used to correct this situation. Explain why. The following are problems generated when a patient is given a false-positive diagnosis, except: Increased burden to the healthcare system. Generates anxiety and worry. Unnecessary treatments are administered. The opportunity for an effective intervention is missed. Generate unnecessary expenses, as those labeled positive often go through other diagnostic procedures. A gas in a closed container is heated with (3+7) J of energy, causing the lid of the container to rise 3.5 m with 3.5 N of force. What is the total change in energy of the system? A thin roof of a house measures 1010 m in area. The sky temperature is 300 K, and the sun's temperature is 5800 K. The distance between the earth and the sun is 1.510 m, the diameter of the sun is 1.410 m and the diameter of the earth is 1.310 m. The properties of the roof are = 0.1 for < 6 m and = 0.5 for >6 um and the roof is a diffuse surface. Air flows over the roof with a velocity of 10 m/s at 300 K. Beneath the roof, the air inside the house flows over the bottom side of the roof at 1 m/s. Determine the steady-state temperature of the roof for these conditions. Clearly state your assumptions. If Vs= 23.46KN, b=250mm, d=360mm, fc=28MPa, and fy=376MPa,which of the following is the maximum spacing of the stirrups? An embryo exposed to a new teratogen caused all the ectoderm cells to be stuck at the dorsal surface of the embryo. The most likely explanation for this would beThat teratogen activated migrationThe teratogen prevented cleavageThe teratogen prevented cell divisionThe teratogen blocked epiboly Which type of risk is based on the financial integrity of a bond issuer? liquidity risk call risk business risk interest rate risk Problem # 1 [35 Points] Vapor Compression Refrigeration System Saturated vapor enters the compressor at -10oC. The temperature of the liquid leaving the liquid leaving the condenser be 30oC. The mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.1 kg/sec. Include in the analysis the that the compressor has an isentropic efficiency of 85%. Determine for the cycle [a] the compressor power, in kW, and [b] the refrigeration capacity, in tons, and [c] the COP. Given: T1 = -10oC T3 = 30oC nsc = 85% Find: [a] W (kW) x1 = 100% m = 0.1 kg/s [b] Q (tons) [c] COP Schematic: Process Diagram: Engineering Model: Property Data: h1 = 241.35 kJ/kg h2s = 272.39 kJ/kg h3 = 91.48 kJ/kgProblem # 2 [35 Points] Vapor Compression Heat Pump System Saturated vapor enters the compressor at -5oC. Saturated vapor leaves the condenser be 30oC. The mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 4 kg/min. Include in the analysis the that the compressor has an isentropic efficiency of 85%. Determine for the cycle [a] the compressor power, in kW, and [b] the heat pump system capacity, in kW, and [c] the COP. Given: T1 = -5oC T3 = 30oC nsc = 85% Find: [a] W (kW) x1 = 100% x3 = 0% m = 4.0 kg/min [b] Q (kW) [c] COP Schematic: Process Diagram: Engineering Model: Property Data: h1 = 248.08 kJ/kg h2s = 273.89 kJ/kg h4 = 81.9 kJ/kgProblem # 3 [30 Points] Gas Turbine Performance Air enters a turbine at 10 MPa and 300 K and exits at 4 MPa and to 240 K. Determine the turbine work output in kJ/kg of air flowing [a] using the enthalpy departure chart, and [b] assuming the ideal gas model. Given: Air T1 = 300 K T2 = 240 K Find: w [a] Real Gas P1 = 10 MPA P2 = 4 MPa [b] Ideal Gas System Schematic: Process Diagram: Engineering Model: Property Data: ______T A-1 _____T A-23 __ Figure A-4 MW = 28.97 kg/kmol h1* = 300 kJ/kg h1/RTc = 0.5 Tc = 133 K h2* = 240.2 kJ/kg h2/RTc = 0.1 Pc = 37.7 bar R = 8.314 kJ/kmolK Materials are isotropic and homogenous. No need of worrying about safety factors. You're using Tresca yield criteria to select a material for the plate which will not yield with these applied stresses A plate is subjected to a tensile stress of 100 MPa in the x-direction and a compressive stress of 50 MPa in the y-direction. Your material yield stresses are based on uniaxial tensile test data. What is the minimum reported tensile yield strength which will not result in yielding of your biaxially-loaded plate? 1) In cycle 1 and all subsequent cycles of the PCR reaction, one copy of each of the two original strands will be synthesized at the 3' end of the primer and up to the 5' end of the original strand. Write the sequence of the copies (C1 and C2) that are made of the chains O1 and O2.(01) 3' T C G G C T A C A G C A G C A G A T G G T A C G T A 5'(C1) 5' C C G A T _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 3'(O2) 5' A G C C G A T G T C G T C G T C T A C C A T G C A T 3'(C2) 3' _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ A T G G T 5' A model centrifugal pump with a 3 inch diameter impeller delivers 600 gpm of water at a total head of 350 ft when operating at 1750 rpm.*Find the diameter of a geometrically similar pump that will delivers 1000 gpm when operating at 3500 rpm*what is the total head of the 3500 rpm pump when it is delivering 1000 gpm? Question 6 (1 point)A is created when a settler transfers property to a trustee who holds property for the benefit of a beneficiary.1) Will2) Trust3) Charity41 None of the above 41The site of the formation of the primary structure for protein synthesis in animal cells is thea) mitochondrionb) nucleusc) SER d) RERe) vacuole42. Phospholipids can form all of the following structures in water except which one?a) cell membranes b) bilayersc)nuclear membranes d) vesiclese) Bones cell membranes