HIII HELP MEEE PLSSSSS

Answer: it’s (6,8)

Step-by-step explanation: I took the test

Answer:

The system has one solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the number of solutions of the system, we equal both equations for y.

If we have ax = b, in which both a and b are different of 0, we have one solution.

If both a and b are 0, we have infinite solutions.

If a is 0 and b is not, there are no solutions.

y=6/7x-8 and y=7/9x+10/9

So

[tex]\frac{6x}{7} - 8 = \frac{7x}{9} + \frac{10}{9}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{6x}{7} - \frac{7x}{9} = \frac{10}{9} + 8[/tex]

[tex]\frac{54x - 49x}{63} = \frac{10}{9} + \frac{72}{9}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{5x}{63} = \frac{82}{9}[/tex]

[tex]45x = 63*82[/tex]

Both a and b are different of 0, so the system has one solution.

Answer:

567

Step-by-step explanation:

Please mark brainliest

Answer:

567

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Option A is the answer buddy

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a is the answer boi

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step exlanation:

What you do is $18,000 x 5% which is 900 and then you do 900 x 10 = 9000!

3 + 2 + 1 = 6

270 ÷ 6 = 45

45 × 3 = 135

45 × 2 = 90

45 × 1 = 45

3 : 2 : 1

135 : 90 : 45

Answer:

D) -2

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope = -3

(1, -9)

y - y1 = m(x - x1)

y + 9 = -3(x - 1)

y + 9 = -3x + 3

y = -3x - 6

y = -3x - 6

0 = -3x - 6

6 = -3x

x = -2

Answer:

08255555/10000000 this is the answer

Answer:

0.8255555 = [tex]\frac{33}{40}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Showing the work

Rewrite the decimal number as a fraction with 1 in the denominator

0.825 = [tex]\frac{0.825}{1}[/tex]

Multiply to remove 3 decimal places. Here, you multiply top and bottom by 103 = 1000

[tex]\frac{0.825}{1}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{1000}{1000}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{825}{1000}[/tex]

Find the Greatest Common Factor (GCF) of 825 and 1000, if it exists, and reduce the fraction by dividing both numerator and denominator by GCF = 25,

[tex]\frac{825/25}{1000/25}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{33}{40}[/tex]

Therefore

X= [tex]\frac{33}{40}[/tex]

In conclusion,

0.825555 = [tex]\frac{33}{40}[/tex]

Hope it helps

Please mark me as the brainliest

Thank you

Answer:

y - 7 = 1/2(x - 7)

Step-by-step explanation:

Point slope form is y - y1 = m (x - x1)

So find m = y2 - y1/ x2 - x1, so m = -1 - 7 / -9 - 7, m = -8 / -16 so m = 1/2

Then sub your (7,7) so y - 7 = 1/2(x - 7)

Answer:

74

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its 0.60(36)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C 37.5

Step-by-step explanation:

1 inch is 30 feet. so feet is 30 x [number of inches]. 30 x 1.25 = 37.5

Answer:

y = x - 8

Step-by-step explanation:

y = mx + b

M is your slope, 1. 1x can be rewritten as x.

Your Y intercept is B, therefore -8.

y = x - 8. When you plug in the numbers.

Answer:

the answer to that is B hope it helps

Answer:

Hey! I'll only help with a few..

Step-by-step explanation:

2. 2c(7c+1)

3. The expression is not factorable with rational numbers.

4. 2x^3y^2(4-11 x^2y^4)

Hope this helps!

Have a nice day!♥

here u go

i hope u got it

Answer:

x ≈ 21.36

Step-by-step explanation:

sin31 = 11/x

xsin31 = 11

x = 11/sin31 ≈ 21.36

Answer:

20 visits.

Step-by-step explanation:

Fitness Universe has a 1 time payment of $50, and each visit will cost $5.50

Non-members pay $8 per visit. Let each visit be signified by the variable, v. Set the equation:

5.50v + 50 = 8v

Isolate the variable, v. Note the equal sign, what you do to one side, you do to the other. Subtract 5.50v from both sides:

5.50v (-5.50v) + 50 = 8v (-5.50v)

50 = 8v - 5.50v

50 = 2.50v

Isolate the variable, v. Divide 2.50 from both sides:

(50)/2.50 = (2.50v)/2.50

v = 50/2.50

v = 20

Stuart must visit 20 times to break even, in which it will become cheaper after the 20th visit.

Answer:

C. 216

Step-by-step explanation:

6³ = 6 x 6 x 6

6 x 6 = 36

36 x 6 = 180 + 36

180 + 36 = 216

hope this helps

Answer:

a) 89.97% of men have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches.

b) The z-score for this​ person's arm span is 5.68. 0% of males have an arm span at least as long as this​ person

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Mean of 71.4 inches and a standard deviation of 3.1 inches.

This means that [tex]\mu = 71.4, \sigma = 3.1[/tex]

a. What percentage of men have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches?

The proportion is the pvalue of Z when X = 76 subtracted by the pvalue of Z  when X = 66. The percentage is the proportion multiplied by 100.

X = 76

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{76 - 71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.48[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.48[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.9306

X = 66

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{66 - 71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1.74[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1.74[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.0409

0.9306 - 0.0409 = 0.8997

0.8997*100% = 89.97%

89.97% of men have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches.

b. A particular professional basketball player has an arm span of almost 89 inches. Find the​ z-score for this​ person's arm span. What percentage of males have an arm span at least as long as this​ person?

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{89 - 71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 5.68[/tex]

The z-score for this​ person's arm span is 5.68.

Z = 5.68 has a pvalue of 1

1 - 1 = 0

0% of males have an arm span at least as long as this​ person

The percentage of men who have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches is 89.97% and the percentage of males who have an arm span at least as long as this​ person is 0%.

Given :

According to survey​ data, the distribution of arm spans for males is approximately Normal with a mean of 71.4 inches and a standard deviation of 3.1 inches.

a) The formula of z-score is given below:

[tex]\rm Z = \dfrac{X-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

where [tex]\mu[/tex] is the mean and [tex]\sigma[/tex] is the standard deviation.

When X = 66 the formula of z-score becomes:

[tex]\rm Z = \dfrac{66-71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

Z = -1.74

The p-value regarding the (Z = -1.74) is 0.0409.

When X = 76 the formula of z-score becomes:

[tex]\rm Z = \dfrac{76-71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

Z = 1.48

The p-value regarding the (Z = 1.48) is 0.9306.

Now, the percentage of men who have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches is:

= (0.9306 - 0.0409) [tex]\times[/tex] 100 %

= 89.97%

b) Now, at X = 89 the formula of z-score becomes:

[tex]\rm Z = \dfrac{89-71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

Z = 5.68

The p-value regarding the (Z = 5.68) is 1.

So, the percentage of males who have an arm span at least as long as 89 inches ​is:

= (1 - 1) [tex]\times[/tex] 100 %

= 0%

For more information, refer to the link given below:

https://brainly.com/question/13299273

Answer:

the total monthly cost is $742.36

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the total monthly cost is shown below:

= Mortgage payment + insurance + taxes + electricity + phone service + fuel + water + repairs

= $347.90 + $17 + $84 + $64.40 + $33.50 + $98.25 + $17.44 + $79.87

= $742.36

Hence, the total monthly cost is $742.36

how DO I DELETE THIS ANSWER

Answer:

a = 2

b = 1

c = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The quadratic equation, 2x² + x + 1 = 0, is expressed in the standard form as ax² + bx + c, where a ≠ 0.

Thus,

a = 2

b = 1 (1 * x = x)

c = 1

Answer:

16.75

Step-by-step explanation:

20/60=x/360

x=120 degree angle

120/360=x/2pi8

1/3=x/16pi

16pi/3=x

x=16.75 arc length

Answer:

4/8 3/6 5/10 2/4 6/12

Step-by-step explanation:

pls give me the crown pls

and i hope this helped you :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the quadratic equation standard form is

therefore we get

-------------------------------

since we got D>0

therefore

the quadratic equation has 2 real solutions

Solving for the elapsed time

distance traveled = (speed of first train + speed of second train) * elapsed time

280 miles = (95 mph + 105 mph) * elapsed time

280 miles = 200 mph * elapsed time

elapsed time = 280 miles / 200 mph

elapsed time = 1.4 hours

elapsed time = 1 hour and 24 minutes

It will take 1 hour and 24 minutes for the two trains to be 280 miles apart.

Answer:

y = -7

Step-by-step explanation:

I wrote how I did

and the steps

Answer: -7

Step-by-step explanation: