hiii can someone please help me with this thank u <//3​

Answer:

60.87 °C

Explanation:

Applying,

Heat lost = heat gain

cm'(t₂-t₃) = cm(t₃-t₁).............. Equation 1

Equation 1 can futher be simplified to

m'(t₂-t₃) = m(t₃-t₁)................Equation 2

Where m' = mass of the hot water, m = mass of the cold water, t₁ = initial temperature of the cold water, t₂ = initial temperature of the hot water, t₃ = temperature of the mixture.

From the question,

Given: m' = 88 g, m = 32 g, t₁ = 22°C, t₂ = 75°C

Substitute these values into equation 2

88(75-t₃) = 32(t₃-22)

6600-88t₃ = 32t₃-704

32t₃+88t₃ = 6600+704

120t₃ = 7304

t₃ = 60.87 °C

Answer:

[tex] \large{ \tt{☄ EXPLANATION}} : [/tex]

[tex] \large{ \tt{♡ \: LET'S \: GET \: STARTED}} : [/tex]

[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \tt{❃ \: WORK ( \: W \: ) = FORCE\: ( \: F) \times DISPLACEMENT \: ( \: D \: )}}}[/tex]

- Plug the values and then simplify !

[tex] \large{ \bf{↦ \: 150 = F \times 10}}[/tex]

[tex] \large{ \bf{↦F\times 10 = 150}}[/tex]

[tex] \large{ \bf{↦ \: F = \frac{150}{10}}} [/tex]

[tex] \large {\bf{↦F = \boxed{ \bf{15} \: N}}}[/tex]

[tex] \boxed{ \boxed{ \large{ \tt{✤ \: OUR \: FINAL \: ANSWER : \boxed{ \bf{15 \: n}}}}}}[/tex]

ツ Hope I helped ! ۵

☪ Have a wonderful day / evening ! ☼

# StayInAndExplore ! ☂

▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁▁

Answer:

If the tunnel is straight, it will have 2 hours to pass through it

Explanation:

Train speed distance time

1km/hr. 1km. 1hr. 1km/hr. 2km. 2hr

Answer:

I think u are traeling at speed of light and not ur friend

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Equivalent resistance of parallel combination of two resistors of 3 ohms and 4 ohms .

R₁ = 3 x 4 / ( 3 + 4 )

= 12 / 7 = 1.7 ohms .

This equivalent resistance is connected with 4 ohms in series

Total resistance = 1.7 ohms + 4 ohms

= 5.7 ohms.

Hence effective resistance of the circuit = 5.7 ohms .

Explanation:

.Flame retar,dant plastic additi,ves are compounds added to plastics and other materials to inhibit, suppress or de,lay combustion. These compounds are useful in impending burning in the ign,ition phase of fire. They do not prevent char,ring or melting nor do they increase the heat resistance of a material

Answer:

The law of conservation of energy states that when one form of energy is transformed to another, no energy is destroyed in the process. According to the law of conservation of energy, energy cannot be created or destroyed. So the total amount of energy is the same before and after any transformation

Explanation:

The energy in a system always transforms from one form to another without any significant loss or addition. It simply changes from one form to another with the effect of numerous external influences.

Energy transformation may be defined as the process through which energy can convert from one form to another. It also illustrates the migration of energy from one place to another due to physical factors.

According to the law of conservation of energy, in a closed system energy can neither be created nor destroyed. The total amount of energy remains the same before and after the process of transformation.

Therefore, the energy in a system always transforms from one form to another without any significant loss or addition.

To learn more about Energy transformations, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/16917873

#SPJ2

Answer:

Explanation:

The degree of hotness and coldness of the body is called temperature.

Answer:

28.6 m/s

Explanation:

Using the equation for the range of a projectile,

R = U²sin2θ/g where U = initial speed of flaming pitch balls, θ = launch angle = 53° and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

Making U subject of the formula, we have

U = √(gR/sin2θ)

substituting the values of the variables into the equation given that R = 81.1 m, we have

U = √(9.8 m/s² × 81.1 m/sin2(53°))

U = √(794.78 m²/s²/sin106°)

U = √(794.78 m²/s²/0.9613)

U = √(826.78 m²/s²)

U = 28.75 m/s

U ≅ 28.6 m/s

Answer:

Explanation:

F = ma. For us, this looks like

60 = 30a and

a = 2 m/s/s

If the force goes up to, say, 90, then

90 = 30a and

a = 3...if the force goes up, the acceleration also goes up.

If the mass goes up to say, 60, and the force stays the same, then

60 = 60a and

a = 1...if the mass goes up, the acceleration goes down.

When you double capacitance and inductance, the new resonace frequency becomes f0/2.

The resonace frequency of RLC series circuit, is the frequency at which the capacitivity reactance is equal to inductive reactance.

Xc = Xl

[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi f_0C} = 2\pi f_0 L\\\\4\pi^2 f_0^2 LC = 1\\\\f_0^2 = \frac{1}{4\pi^2 LC} \\\\f_0 = \sqrt{\frac{1}{4\pi^2 LC} } \\\\f_0 = \frac{1}{2\pi } \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC} }[/tex]

where;

When you double capacitance and inductance, the new resonace frequency becomes;

[tex]f_0 = \frac{1}{2\pi } \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC} }\\\\f_1 = \frac{1}{2\pi } \frac{1}{\sqrt{2L (2C)} } \\\\f_1 = \frac{1}{2\pi } \frac{1}{\sqrt{4LC} }\\\\f_1 = \frac{1}{2}( \frac{1}{2\pi } \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC} })\\\\f_1 = \frac{1}{2} (f_0)[/tex]

Thus, When you double capacitance and inductance, the new resonace frequency becomes f0/2.

Learn more about resonance frequency here: https://brainly.com/question/9324332

X component of force    Fx=Fcos45=50×cos×45

Y component of force    Fy=Fsin45=50×sin×45

Answer:

220 A

Explanation:

The magnetic force on the floating rod due to the rod held close to the ground is F = BI₁L where B = magnetic field due to rod held close the ground = μ₀I₂/2πd where μ₀ = permeability of free space = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m, I₂ = current in rod close to ground and d = distance between both rods = 11 mm = 0.011 m. Also, I₁ = current in floating rod and L = length of rod = 1.1 m.

So, F = BI₁L

F = (μ₀I₂/2πd)I₁L

F = μ₀I₁I₂L/2πd

Given that the current in the rods are the same, I₁ = I₂ = I

So,

F = μ₀I²L/2πd

Now, the magnetic force on the floating rod equals its weight , W = mg where m = mass of rod = 0.10kg and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

So, F = W

μ₀I²L/2πd = mg

making I subject of the formula, we have

I² = 2πdmg/μ₀L

I = √(2πdmg/μ₀L)

substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

I = √(2π × 0.011 m × 0.1 kg × 9.8 m/s²/[4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])

I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2 × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])

I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2.2 × 10⁻⁷ H])

I = √(0.0049 × 10⁷kgm²/s²H)

I = √(0.049 × 10⁶kgm²/s²H)

I = 0.22 × 10³ A

I = 220 A

Answer:

325.76 revolutions

Explanation:

The tire radius is diameter/2: 42/2 = 21

And now we can discover the lenght of the tire circumference. The lenght of a circumference is given by 2×radius×π, and let's consider π=3.14, and let's use the radius in meter (21 cm = 0.21 m):

2•0.21•3.14 = 1.32 m of lenght

Now, you divide the distance the car moved by the lenght of the tire circumference and you will find how many revolutions the tire makes:

420/1.32 = 325.76

Answer:

a.  9.99625 cm b. 68 °C

Explanation:

(a) What is the length of the rod at the freezing point of water (0 0C)?

Before we find the length of the rod, we need to find the coefficient of linear expansion, α = (L - L₀)/[L₀(T - T₀)] where L₀ = length of rod at temperature T₀ = 10.0 cm, T₀ = 20 °C, L = length of rod at temperature T = 10.015 cm and T = 100 °C

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

α = (L - L₀)/[L₀(T - T₀)]

α = (10.015 cm - 10.0 cm)/[10.0 cm(100 °C - 20 °C)]

α = 0.015 cm/[10.0 cm × 80 °C]

α = 0.015 cm/[800.0 cm °C]

α = 0.00001875 /°C

We now find the length L₁ at T₁ = 0 °C from

L₁ = L₀(1 + α(T₁ - T₀))

So, substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

L₁ = L₀(1 + α(T₁ - T₀))

L₁ = 10.0 cm[1 +  0.00001875 /°C(0° C - 20 °C)]

L₁ = 10.0 cm[1 +  0.00001875 /°C × -20° C]

L₁ = 10.0 cm[1 - 0.000375]

L₁ = 10.0 cm[0.999625]

L₁ = 9.99625 cm

(b) What is the temperature if the length of the rod is 10.009 cm?

With length L₃ = 10.009 cm at temperature T₃, using

L₃ = L₀(1 + α(T₃ - T₀))

making T₃ subject of the formula, we have

L₃/L₀ = 1 + α(T₃ - T₀)

L₃/L₀ - 1 = α(T₃ - T₀)

T₃ - T₀ = (L₃/L₀ - 1)/α

T₃ = T₀ + (L₃/L₀ - 1)/α

substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

T₃ = 20 °C + (10.009 cm/10.0 cm - 1)/0.00001875 /°C

T₃ = 20 °C + (1.0009 - 1)/0.00001875 /°C

T₃ = 20 °C + 0.0009/0.00001875 /°C

T₃ = 20 °C + 48 °C

T₃ = 68 °C

Answer:

v1= 12.5miles, t= -7.25m, a= 0

v= 1/2at^2

v= 1/2×

Answer:

the force is on the z axis, coming out of the blade

Explanation:

The direction of the magnetic force is given by the right hand rule,

For a positive charge, the thumb points in the direction of velocity, the other fingers extended in the direction of the magnetic field, and the palm points in the direction of force.

In this case.

Thumb points North

The fingers extended is in the east - west direction parallel to the blade

The palm is sticking out of the leaf, in the z direction

the answer is the force is on the z axis, coming out of the blade

Answer:

a) v₂ = 4.2 m/s

b) v₂ = 5 m/s

Explanation:

a)

We will use the law of conservation of momentum here:

[tex]m_1u_1+m_2u_2=m_1v_1+m_2v_2[/tex]

where,

m₁ = m₂ = mass of bowling pin = 1.8 kg

u₁ = speed of first pin before collsion = 5 m/s

u₂ = speed of second pin before collsion = 0 m/s

v₁ = speed of first pin after collsion = 0.8 m/s

v₂ = speed of second after before collsion = ?

Therefore,

[tex](1.8\ kg)(5\ m/s)+(1.8\ kg)(0\ m/s)=(1.8\ kg)(0.8\ m/s)+(1.8\ kg)(v_2)\\v_2 = 5\ m/s - 0.8\ m/s[/tex]

v₂ = 4.2 m/s

b)

We will use the law of conservation of momentum here:

[tex]m_1u_1+m_2u_2=m_1v_1+m_2v_2[/tex]

where,

m₁ = m₂ = mass of bowling pin = 1.8 kg

u₁ = speed of first pin before collsion = 5 m/s

u₂ = speed of second pin before collsion = 0 m/s

v₁ = speed of first pin after collsion = 0 m/s

v₂ = speed of second after before collsion = ?

Therefore,

[tex](1.8\ kg)(5\ m/s)+(1.8\ kg)(0\ m/s)=(1.8\ kg)(0\ m/s)+(1.8\ kg)(v_2)[/tex]

v₂ = 5 m/s

Answer: 9 times yesterday's power output

Explanation:

Power is the rate at which a certain work is done. The unit of power is Watt and it's equal to work divided by the time taken to complete the work.

In this scenario, since the person did three times the work in one-third the time, then the power output will be:

= Work done / Time

= 3/⅓

= 3 × 3

= 9

Therefore, the power output must have been 9 times yesterday's power output.

Answer:

Waves are disorders that travel through a fluid medium. Several simple wave features include frequency, period, wavelength, and amplitude.

Explanation:

Answer:

The path difference must be equal to an integral (1 * lambda, 2 * lambda, -------n * lambda) number of wavelengths for constructive interference to occur.

Answer:

a nail

Explanation:

Answer:

crude oil, natural gas, coal, and uranium. These are all resources that are processed into products that can be used commercially.

Explanation:

Answer:

Potential difference, V = -0.000224 Volts

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Quantity of charge = 6.93*10-4 C

Energy = -3.09 J

To find the electric potential V at that point?

Mathematically, the energy transferred per unit of charge is given by the formula;

E = QV

Where:

E is the energy

Q is the quantity of charge

V is the potential difference.

Substituting into the formula, we have;

[tex] -3.09 = 6.93*10^{-4} * V [/tex]

[tex] V = \frac {6.93*10^{-4}}{-3.09} [/tex]

Potential difference, V = -0.000224 Volts

Answer:

The answer to your question is given below.

Explanation:

The energy and frequency of a wave are related by the following equation:

E = hf

Where

E => is the energy.

h => is the Planck's constant.

f => is the frequency

From the formula i.e

E = hf

The energy is directly proportional to the frequency. Thus, an increase in the frequency of the wave will lead to an increase in the energy and a decrease in the frequency of the wave will lead to a decrease in the energy.

Considering the question given above, if the frequency of the wave is decreased, then the energy of the wave will also decrease.

Answer:

I think it might be 8kg grams because it is bigger

Answer:

28Nm

Explanation:

Torque is expressed as the prduct of force and radius

Given

Force = 140N

radius  = 0.20m

Torque = 140 * 0.2

Torque = 140 * 1/5

Torque = 28Nm

Hence the amouunt of torque applied is 28Nm

Answer:

small amounts of mass are converted to large amounts of energy

Explanation:

According to the mass-energy equivalence, which Albert Einstein initially proposed as a general principle. It was revealed that mass and energy are connected and that a "small amount of mass can be converted into enormous amounts of energy."

Using the formula E=mc^2. This means Energy equals mass times the speed of light squared.

Hence, it is true that "small amounts of mass are converted to large amounts of energy."

Answer:

b. Because the southern pole of the Earth's magnet is in the north.

Explanation:

This is very weird to think about but Earth's southern magnetic pole is in Earth's geographic north. So when compass points north, it is actually getting attracted to the southern magnetic pole (that is actually located in the north direction- geographic location- in earth).