Helper T cells are activated by antigen presented with MHC Il proteins. The correct option among the multiple choices is, "are activated by antigen presented with MHC Il proteins."What are Helper T cells? Helper T cells, also known as CD4+ T cells, are lymphocytes that play a key role in the adaptive immune system.
Helper T cells can activate and coordinate other immune cells such as macrophages, B cells, and cytotoxic T cells. These cells play a significant role in maintaining immune system homeostasis by regulating and balancing the immune response. Upon activation by antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), they undergo clonal expansion and differentiation into two major subsets.
Th1 and Th2. Th1 cells are responsible for activating the cell-mediated immune response, whereas Th2 cells regulate the humoral immune response by activating B cells to secrete antibodies.The activated Helper T cells aid in inducing the differentiation of CD8+ T cells into cytotoxic T cells that attack infected cells and cancer cells. Additionally, Helper T cells also activate macrophages, leading to phagocytosis and subsequent antigen presentation to T cells. This leads to a positive feedback loop, amplifying the immune response until the invading pathogen has been eliminated.
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d) If you needed to study activity of a promoter that regulates transcription of your gene of interest in a given cell, what experimental technique would you do and why? What instrument will you use to detect signal in this experimental procedure ?(6point)
To study the activity of a promoter that regulates transcription of a gene of interest in a given cell, one commonly used experimental technique is a reporter gene assay.
This technique involves fusing the promoter sequence of interest to a reporter gene, and the detection of the reporter gene's expression serves as an indicator of promoter activity. Fluorescence microscopy or a luminometer can be used to detect the signal in this experimental procedure.
Reporter genes assays are widely used to study promoter activity. In this technique, the promoter sequence of interest is inserted upstream of a reporter gene, such as green fluorescent protein (GFP) or luciferase. When the promoter is active and driving transcription, the reporter gene is transcribed and translated, resulting in the production of a detectable signal. The intensity of the signal indicates the activity level of the promoter.
To detect the signal in this experimental procedure, different instruments can be used depending on the reporter gene employed. If GFP is used as the reporter gene, fluorescence microscopy can be used to visualize the fluorescent signal emitted by the expressed GFP. On the other hand, if luciferase is used, a luminometer can be used to measure the light emitted by the enzymatic reaction catalyzed by luciferase. The instrument detects and quantifies the signal produced by the reporter gene, providing information about the activity of the promoter being studied.
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The only cell type in the alveoli able to freely move around is the:
Select one:
a. pseudostratified type I epithelial cells.
b. alveolar macrophages.
c. type II simple cuboidal cells.
d. type II surfactant secreting alveolar cells.
e. simple squamous epithelial cells.
The cell type in the alveoli that is able to freely move around is the alveolar macrophages.
Alveolar macrophages, also known as dust cells, are the immune cells found within the alveoli of the lungs. They are responsible for engulfing and removing foreign particles, such as dust, bacteria, and other debris that may enter the respiratory system. These cells have the ability to move freely within the alveolar spaces.
Other cell types mentioned in the options have specific functions within the alveoli but do not possess the same mobility as alveolar macrophages. Pseudostratified type I epithelial cells and simple squamous epithelial cells are specialized cells that form the lining of the alveoli and are involved in gas exchange.
Type II simple cuboidal cells, also known as type II pneumocytes, are responsible for producing and secreting surfactant, a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli. Type II surfactant-secreting alveolar cells are also involved in surfactant production. While these cell types play important roles in maintaining the structure and function of the alveoli, they are not known for their ability to freely move within the alveolar spaces like alveolar macrophages do.
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5. Which is more efficient vaccination or treatment? a. Vaccination b. Treatment
Vaccination is more efficient than treatment. A vaccine is a preventative measure, which means it helps to keep diseases from occurring in the first place.
Vaccination is the administration of a vaccine to the human body, which is usually administered in childhood. By administering the vaccine, the immune system is triggered, causing it to create an immune response to fight the virus or bacteria that caused the disease. Once the immune system is stimulated, it creates antibodies that help prevent the disease from taking hold in the body.
Vaccines help to eradicate diseases by providing immunity to the entire population, making it difficult for the disease to spread. Vaccination is a cost-effective and efficient method for preventing disease outbreaks. Treatment, on the other hand, is a method of treating diseases that have already taken hold in the body. Treatment is a reactive measure, which means that it is used once someone has been infected with a disease.
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Explain how meiosis and sexual reproduction generate
biodiversity. Discuss the advantage(s) and disadvantage(s) of
sexual reproduction in the light of evolution.
Meiosis and sexual reproduction help to generate diversity in organisms. Sexual reproduction occurs when two individuals from different sexes come together and produce offspring that inherit traits from both parents. Here are the advantages and disadvantages of sexual reproduction in the light of evolution:Advantages of sexual reproduction: Sexual reproduction allows for variation among offspring which is useful in unpredictable environments.
It is possible for a genetic mutation to be beneficial, and sexual reproduction is a means of allowing such mutations to be propagated. Sexual reproduction also allows for the exchange of genetic material between organisms, which can increase genetic diversity and help adaptability.Disadvantages of sexual reproduction: Sexual reproduction can be time-consuming and resource-intensive. It requires the finding of a mate and the production of gametes which can be expensive.
There is also a risk of producing offspring that are not viable, which can be costly to the organism. Another disadvantage is that sexual reproduction results in the breaking up of successful genetic combinations, which can be disadvantageous in some situations. In conclusion, while there are both advantages and disadvantages to sexual reproduction, the ability to generate genetic diversity is crucial to the long-term survival of species.
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The main function of the cardiovascular system is to circulate. O blood O lymph O interstitial fluid O blood and lymph throughout the body.
The main function of the cardiovascular system is to circulate blood throughout the body.
The cardiovascular system, consisting of the heart, blood vessels, and blood, plays a vital role in the transportation of oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. The heart acts as a pump, propelling the blood through a network of blood vessels, including arteries, veins, and capillaries. As blood circulates, it delivers oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues and organs and removes metabolic waste products.
While the lymphatic system is also involved in circulation, its primary function is to transport lymph, a clear fluid containing immune cells and waste products, rather than blood. Interstitial fluid refers to the fluid found between cells in tissues.
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In some insect species the males are haploid. What process (meiosis or mitosis) is used to produce gametes in these males?
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS) is an X-linked disorder characterized by low platelet counts, eczema, and recurrent infections that usually kill the child by mid childhood. A woman with one copy of the mutant gene has normal phenotype but a woman with two copies will have WAS. Select all that apply: WAS shows the following
Pleiotropy
Overdominance
Incomplete dominance
Dominance/Recessiveness
Epistasis
In some insect species, the males are haploid, and mitosis is used to produce gametes in these males. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS) shows Dominance/Recessiveness.
In some insect species, the males are haploid. Mitosis is used to produce gametes in these males. This is because mitosis is the type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells. It results in the production of two identical daughter cells with the same chromosome number as the parent cell. Meiosis, on the other hand, is the type of cell division that occurs in germ cells. It results in the production of four genetically diverse daughter cells with half the chromosome number of the parent cell.Therefore, mitosis is used to produce gametes in male haploid insect species.
.Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS) shows the Dominance/Recessiveness. Dominant alleles are those that determine a phenotype in a heterozygous (Aa) or homozygous (AA) state. Recessive alleles determine a phenotype only when homozygous (aa). In the case of WAS, a woman with one copy of the mutant gene has a normal phenotype because the normal gene can mask the effect of the mutant gene. However, a woman with two copies of the mutant gene will have WAS because the mutant gene is now in a homozygous state. Therefore, the mutant allele is recessive to the normal allele.
In some insect species, the males are haploid, and mitosis is used to produce gametes in these males. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS) shows Dominance/Recessiveness.
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Match the relationship between the total free energies of reactants and products in a system at an instance and the value for AG at that instance, and the expected net direction of reaction at that particular instance. Total free energy of reactants is greater than total free energy of products present [Choose ]
Total free energy of reactants equal to total free energy of products present [Choose ] Total free energy of reactants is smaller than total free energy of products present [Choose] Answer Bank : - AG 0, reaction is at equilibrium - AG<0, reaction tends to move toward reactants - AG>0, reaction tends to move toward reactants - AG>0, reaction tends to move toward products - AG<0, reaction tends to move toward products
When the total free energy of reactants is greater than the total free energy of products present, the answer is "ΔG>0, reaction tends to move toward reactants.
The Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) is a measure of the spontaneity of a chemical reaction. It represents the difference between the total free energy of the products and the total free energy of the reactants. If the total free energy of the reactants is greater than the total free energy of the products (ΔG>0), it indicates an unfavorable condition for the reaction to proceed. In this scenario, the reaction tends to move toward the reactants, in an attempt to reach equilibrium and reduce the excess free energy.
When ΔG>0, the reaction is not thermodynamically favored to proceed in the forward direction, and it tends to shift backward toward the reactants. This is because the products have a higher free energy than the reactants, and the system naturally tends to move towards a state of lower energy. The reaction will continue to proceed in the reverse direction until it reaches equilibrium, where ΔG becomes zero.
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In hepatocytes (liver celliss), the process by which apically destined proteins travel from the basolateral region across the cytoplasm of the cell before fusing with the apical membrane is called: a. transcellular b. endocytosis c. paracellular d. exocytosis
In hepatocytes (liver cells), the process by which apically destined proteins travel from the basolateral region across the cytoplasm of the cell before fusing with the apical membrane is called transcellular transport.
The hepatic cells or hepatocytes are highly specialized and responsible for the synthesis, secretion, and modification of the proteins, which play vital roles in the physiological functions. Hepatocytes are also responsible for the detoxification of xenobiotics and the storage of various essential nutrients, hormones, and vitamins.
The transport process involves several steps that include receptor-mediated endocytosis, vesicle fusion, and exocytosis of apical vesicles. Transcellular transport is an essential physiological process and is regulated by several factors, including intracellular signaling pathways, cytoskeletal elements, and molecular motors. In conclusion, hepatocytes use transcellular transport to move proteins from the basolateral region to the apical membrane.
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The chemical structure of Coenzyme A contains the following EXCEPT- o a pantothenic acid residue a phosphoanhydride moiety an adenosine-3-phosphate a B-mercaptoethylamine residue. o a lipoic acid residue QUESTION 2 will be produced If the TCA cycle is over-stimulated, too much of acetyl-CoA pyruvate glucose carbon dioxide oxygen QUESTION 3 Oxidative decarboxylations- involve loss of CO2 and the production of FADH2, O involve tons of CO2 and the production of NADH do not occur in the TCA cycle. involve low of CO2 and the production of NAD occur three times in the TCA cycle
The chemical structure of Coenzyme A contains the following EXCEPT: o a lipoic acid residue.
Coenzyme A (CoA) is a molecule involved in various metabolic processes, particularly in the citric acid cycle (TCA cycle) and fatty acid oxidation. It consists of four main components: a pantothenic acid residue, a phosphoanhydride moiety, an adenosine-3-phosphate group, and a B-mercaptoethylamine residue. The lipoic acid residue is not a part of the chemical structure of Coenzyme A. Lipoic acid, however, plays a critical role as a cofactor in several enzyme complexes involved in energy metabolism, including the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
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The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by what type of bonds?
a. carbon
b. hydrogen
c. nitrogen
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b. hydrogen bonds. The DNA molecule consists of two strands that are twisted around each other in a double helix structure.
The hydrogen bonds are formed between the nitrogenous bases of the nucleotides. The nitrogenous bases in DNA include adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). Adenine forms three hydrogen bonds with thymine, and cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine.
Specifically, adenine and thymine are connected by two hydrogen bonds, while cytosine and guanine are connected by three hydrogen bonds. It is important to note that the backbone of the DNA molecule is formed by sugar-phosphate bonds, which run along the outside of the double helix structure and provide structural support.
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Chi square test. A cross is made to study the following in the Drosophila fly: black body color (b) and vermilion eye color (v). A heterozygous red-eyed, black-bodied female was crossed with a red-eyed, heterozygous male for cream body color. From the crossing the following progeny was obtained in the filial generation 1 (F1):
F1 Generation:
130 females red eyes and cream colored body
125 females red eyes and black body
70 males red eyes and cream body
55 males red eyes and black body
60 males vermilion eyes and cream body
65 males vermilion eyes and black body
The statistical test hypothesis would be that there is no difference between the observed and expected phenotypic frequencies.
a) Using the information provided, how is eye color characteristic inherited? why?
b) How is the characteristic of skin color inherited?
a. Eye color is inherited as sex-linked inheritance, with vermilion eye color being a sex-linked trait.
b. Skin color is inherited through autosomal inheritance, with black and cream body coloration being determined by alleles on autosomal chromosomes.
a. Eye color characteristic in the Drosophila flies is inherited as sex-linked inheritance. In this case, vermilion eye color is a sex-linked trait, with the genes that determine eye color located on the X chromosome. Males only have one X chromosome, so if they receive the X-linked allele for vermilion eye color from their mother, they will express that trait.
This is because they lack a second X chromosome to mask the expression of the allele. On the other hand, females have two X chromosomes and can inherit two alleles, one from each parent. If a female receives even one copy of the vermilion allele, she will express that trait.
b. The characteristic of skin color, specifically body color, in the Drosophila flies is inherited through autosomal inheritance. In this case, black body color is a recessive trait, while cream body color is dominant. Both black and cream body coloration requires the presence of the respective allele on the two homologous autosomal chromosomes.
In the given cross, both the male and female flies are heterozygous for the genes that determine skin color. This indicates that the trait for body color is inherited through autosomal inheritance, where the presence of the dominant allele (cream body color) masks the expression of the recessive allele (black body color).
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Transmembrane movement of a substance down a concentration gradient with no involvement of membrane protein a.belongs to passive transport
b. is called facilitated diffusion c.belongs to active transport d.is called simple diffusion
Transmembrane movement of a substance down a concentration gradient with no involvement of membrane protein is called simple diffusion. Simple diffusion is a type of passive transport that occurs without the involvement of membrane proteins.
Passive transport, also known as passive diffusion, does not require energy input from the cell, and substances move down their concentration gradient. It includes simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion.In simple diffusion, molecules move directly through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane from high concentration to low concentration. Small molecules such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water can move across the membrane through simple diffusion. Facilitated diffusion, on the other hand, requires the involvement of membrane proteins to transport molecules across the membrane.
The membrane protein creates a channel or a carrier for the solute to cross the membrane, but the movement still goes down the concentration gradient.The movement of molecules in active transport is opposite to that of passive transport, moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. Active transport requires the use of energy, usually in the form of ATP, to pump molecules across the membrane against the concentration gradient. Therefore, we can conclude that the correct option is d. is called simple diffusion.
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Ethics is a dilemma-based discipline. Comment on Genetically Modified Crops (or another GM Organism, if you prefer) from both a utilitarian approach and a Kantian perspective. Do you come to the same conclusions or do you have different outcomes depending on the analysis? Highlight your points of emphasis from each perspective and discuss which, if any, aligned with your initial feelings on the topic. Did you draw any unanticipated conclusions?
Ethics is a discipline that is dilemma-based, meaning that it involves ethical questions and moral conflicts that arise when people must choose between two or more options.
Genetically Modified Crops (GMOs) are organisms whose genetic material has been altered in some way, usually to enhance certain desirable traits. Here, we will analyze the GMOs using both the utilitarian approach and Kantian perspective.
Utilitarianism is a moral theory that emphasizes the consequences of an action or decision. Utilitarianism argues that the best decision is one that maximizes happiness and minimizes pain for the greatest number of people. According to this approach, the benefits of GMOs are enormous.
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From your General Cell Biology knowledge, what happens to proteins that are not folded properly in the cell?
a. They are transported across the lysosomal membrane into the lysosome.
b. They are degraded.
c. They are endocytosed. d. They are exocytosed.
Proteins that are not folded properly in the cell are degraded.
When proteins are synthesized within the cell, they undergo a folding process to attain their functional, three-dimensional structure. However, sometimes proteins fail to fold correctly due to various factors such as genetic mutations, environmental stress, or errors in the folding process itself. These misfolded proteins can be potentially harmful to the cell as they can form aggregates, interfere with normal cellular processes, and even lead to the development of diseases.
To prevent such detrimental effects, cells have evolved quality control mechanisms to identify and eliminate misfolded proteins. One of the main pathways involved in the degradation of misfolded proteins is the ubiquitin-proteasome system. In this process, misfolded proteins are recognized by molecular chaperones and tagged with ubiquitin molecules.
The ubiquitin-tagged proteins are then recognized by the proteasome, a cellular complex responsible for protein degradation. The proteasome unfolds the misfolded proteins and breaks them down into smaller peptides, which can be further processed and recycled by the cell.
In summary, when proteins are not folded properly in the cell, they undergo degradation through the ubiquitin-proteasome system. This mechanism ensures the removal of misfolded proteins, maintaining cellular homeostasis, and preventing potential harm.
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If excess metabolic fuel is taken in over time, metabolic fuel is stored for the long term. In what form(s) is metabolic fuel stored for the long term? What tissue(s) is it stored in? And how is this storage impacted by the form(s) in which the excess metabolic fuel is taken in as?
When excess metabolic fuel is taken in over time, metabolic fuel is stored for the long term in adipose tissue. Adipose tissue is the primary site of storage for metabolic fuel in the body. The fuel is stored in the form of triglycerides (i.e., three fatty acids attached to a glycerol molecule).
Excess metabolic fuel is taken in when energy intake exceeds energy expenditure. This excess fuel is converted to fat and stored in adipose tissue for the long term. Adipose tissue is present throughout the body and serves as an energy reserve for times of low energy availability.
The form(s) in which the excess metabolic fuel is taken in can impact this storage in various ways. For example, if the excess fuel is taken in the form of carbohydrates, the body will first store this excess glucose in the liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.
However, once these storage sites are full, the excess glucose is converted to fat and stored in adipose tissue. If the excess fuel is taken in the form of dietary fat, the body can readily store this fat directly in adipose tissue without first converting it to another form.
However, it's worth noting that the types of dietary fat consumed can impact the storage and metabolism of this fuel. For example, saturated and trans fats tend to be more readily stored as fat in adipose tissue than unsaturated fats.
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Elongation continues in translation until a STOP codon is reached on the mRNA. a) True b) False
a) True.
During translation, elongation refers to the process of adding amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain. It continues until a STOP codon is encountered on the .
The presence of a STOP codon signals the termination of protein synthesis and the release of the completed polypeptide chain from the ribosome.
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QUESTION 15 Which of these factors is most likely to reduce a population of organisms regardless of the population density? a. Predation
b. Outbreak of a disease c. Parasitic infections d. Severe drought
A severe drought is the most likely factor to reduce a population of organisms, regardless of the population density.
The factor that is most likely to reduce a population of organisms regardless of the population density is a severe drought. The other factors such as predation, outbreak of a disease, and parasitic infections can cause a reduction in population density, but their effects are more pronounced when the population is high than when it is low.
In the event of a severe drought, the quantity of water available for plants and animals to consume decreases, leading to a significant reduction in the number of available resources.
When this occurs, the population density of organisms may decrease substantially or even go extinct since the organisms require water to survive. Therefore, a severe drought is the most likely factor to reduce a population of organisms, regardless of the population density.
Factors are the determinants that contribute to the growth or decline of a population. Populations can either decrease or increase in size, and there are various factors that influence this.
Factors that may contribute to an increase in the population of organisms include a decrease in predator numbers, favorable weather conditions, and an abundance of resources, while factors that may lead to a decrease in population density include predation, disease outbreaks, parasitic infections, and natural disasters.
In the event of an outbreak of a disease, the population density is reduced since the disease affects a large number of organisms. In the case of parasitic infections, organisms are infected by other organisms that feed on them and, as a result, reduce the population density.
Predation also reduces the population of organisms, but it is more effective when the population is high.
On the other hand, when the population is low, predation has little effect on the population density.
In summary, a severe drought is the most likely factor to reduce a population of organisms, regardless of the population density.
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Quantitative Inheritance (6 pts) Estimate the number of segregating genes using the below data and the Sewall Wright formula 6 pts) P1 P2 F1 F2 X=31g X=43g X=37g X=37g s=1.0 s=1.0 s=1.0 s=2.45 SP=1.0
The Sewall Wright Formula used to estimate the number of segregating genes is given by:2pq = sWhere p and q are the frequencies of the two alleles at the locus under consideration, and s is the selection differential, which is the difference between the mean phenotype of the selected parents and that of the entire parental population
P1P2F1F2X=31gX=43gX=37gX=37gs=1.0s=1.0s=1.0s=2.45SP=1.0The frequency of the X allele (p) is: p = (2 * number of homozygous dominant + number of heterozygous) / (2 * total number of individuals)p = (2 * 0 + 2) / (2 * 2) = 1The frequency of the x allele (q) is: q = (2 * number of homozygous recessive + number of heterozygous) / (2 * total number of individuals)q = (2 * 0 + 0) / (2 * 2) = 0Therefore, 2pq = 2 * 1 * 0 = 0. The number of segregating genes is zero.
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Which of the viral expression systems available, is the most commonly used whether you would like to over-express or knockdown one gene or multiple genes:
Lenti, Adeno-, AAV, Retro-, HSV, and Baculoviral systems,
Adeno system only
Retro
None of the above viral expression systems
Among the viral expression systems listed, the most commonly used system for over-expression or knockdown of one or multiple genes is the Adeno- (adenoviral) system. Option B is correct answer.
The Adeno- system, utilizing adenoviral vectors, is widely used in gene expression studies for both over-expression and gene knockdown experiments. Adenoviral vectors have several advantages, including their high transduction efficiency in a wide range of cell types, ability to accommodate large DNA inserts, and robust expression of the transgene. They can be used to deliver and express a single gene or multiple genes simultaneously.
Retroviral vectors, which belong to the Retro- system, are also commonly employed in gene expression studies, particularly for stable gene transfer and long-term gene expression. However, they have certain limitations, such as their dependence on actively dividing cells and the risk of insertional mutagenesis.
Lenti- (lentiviral) vectors, derived from the Retro- system, are another popular choice for gene expression studies, as they can efficiently transduce both dividing and non-dividing cells. They are widely used for applications requiring long-term and stable gene expression in gene therapy.
AAV (adeno-associated viral) vectors, HSV (herpes simplex virus) vectors, and Baculoviral vectors are also utilized in gene expression studies, but they are less commonly used compared to the Adeno- system.
In conclusion, while the choice of the viral expression system depends on the specific experimental requirements and target cells, the Adeno- system is generally the most commonly used system for both over-expression and knockdown of one or multiple genes.
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The complete question is
Which of the viral expression systems available, is the most commonly used whether you would like to over-express or knockdown one gene or multiple genes:
A. Lenti, Adeno-, AAV, Retro-, HSV, and Baculoviral systems,
B. Adeno system only
C. Retro
D. None of the above viral expression systems
What are the possible contamination in animal cell tissue culture laboratory and list important
procedures for handling and working with animal cell culture?
Possible contamination in animal cell tissue culture laboratory. There are several possible sources of contamination that can occur in animal cell tissue culture laboratories.
Possible contamination in animal cell tissue culture laboratory. There are several possible sources of contamination that can occur in animal cell tissue culture laboratories, which include: Microbial contamination: bacterial, fungal, mycoplasma contamination can occur if the laboratory is not kept clean or if aseptic techniques are not followed properly. Cross-contamination: the culture can be contaminated by other cell lines during handling or by equipment that is not adequately sterilized. Physical contamination: contamination by foreign objects such as hair, dust, or fibers that may interfere with the growth of cells. Contamination due to pH or temperature fluctuations. List important procedures for handling and working with animal cell culture The important procedures for handling and working with animal cell culture include the following:
Decontamination: to maintain a sterile environment, the laboratory should be disinfected regularly. Before and after work, the culture hood should be sprayed with alcohol, UV light should be used for sterilization and gloves should be worn while handling cultures. Aseptic technique: to prevent contamination, strict aseptic techniques should be followed. This involves sterilizing equipment, lab coats, gloves, and work surfaces. Culture media: the correct culture media and supplements must be used for the specific cell line to be cultured. The media should be prepared in a sterile manner using sterilized equipment such as pipettes. Cell maintenance: it is important to maintain the correct conditions for cell growth. The culture temperature, pH, and CO2 concentration should be closely monitored. Cultures should be monitored regularly for growth and other morphological changes. In conclusion, the possibility of contamination is high when working with animal cell cultures. This requires strict adherence to aseptic techniques and standard operating procedures to maintain sterile conditions.
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Draw a diagram/figure to explain the conjugation process (e.g. use PowerPoint or draw one by hand and include a photo of it). You should include in the diagram the F- recipient, Hfr Donor and the transconjugant/recombinant recipient. Make sure to include the genes encoding for Leucine, Threonine, Thiamine and Streptomycin resistance in your diagram. How does an Hfr strain of E. coli transfers chromosomal DNA to an F- strain? What determines how much of the chromosomal DNA is transferred?
The process of conjugation is the transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another via a specialized structure known as a pilus or conjugation tube.
Here's a diagram that explains the process of conjugation: In the diagram above, an Hfr cell transfers its chromosome to an F- cell through conjugation. In conjugation, a pilus extends from the Hfr cell and attaches to the F- cell. The chromosome of the Hfr cell is then replicated and a portion of it is transferred through the pilus to the F- cell. The F- cell remains F- because it did not receive the entire F plasmid, which is required to turn it into an F+ cell. In addition, the transferred chromosome has genes encoding for Leucine, Threonine, Thiamine and Streptomycin resistance that are integrated into the recipient cell's chromosome.
Thus, the transconjugant/recombinant recipient is now resistant to these antibiotics. The process of conjugation is highly regulated. The point at which the chromosome breaks off and starts to transfer into the recipient cell is controlled by specific DNA sequences on the chromosome. The orientation of these sequences determines how much of the chromosome is transferred.
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Question 23
What is the predominant cell responding to antigen during a secondary Immune response?
a. naïve cell
b. centroblast
c. plasma cell
d. memory cell
Question 24
Which phase of T cell activation does NOT require a costimulatory signal?
a. A costimulatory signal is needed in both phases
b. The activation phase
c.A costimulatory signal is not needed in either phase
d. The effector phase
During a secondary immune response, the predominant cell responding to antigen is the memory cell. Memory cells are a type of immune cell that is long-lived and produced as a result of the initial exposure to a pathogen. As a result, they can be quickly activated when the pathogen re-enters the body.
They recognize and respond to the pathogen more rapidly and efficiently than the naïve cell (a) which is produced during the primary immune response, which is the first encounter with the antigen.
Centroblasts (b) are a type of immature B-cell that undergoes rapid proliferation and somatic hypermutation to generate high-affinity antigen-specific antibodies. Plasma cells (c) are fully differentiated B-cells that are responsible for producing large quantities of antibodies.
Question 24:The activation phase of T cell activation requires a costimulatory signal while the effector phase does not need it. A costimulatory signal is a signal required by T cells, which is provided by an antigen-presenting cell. The first signal is provided by the antigen-presenting cell through the interaction between MHC and T-cell receptor, while the second signal is provided by the antigen-presenting cell through the interaction between CD80/CD86 and CD28 on the T cell.
The effector phase (d) of T cell activation occurs after the T cell has been fully activated and has undergone clonal expansion. At this stage, the T cell is ready to carry out its effector function, which is determined by its specific cell type, such as CD4 T-helper cells or CD8 cytotoxic T cells.
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A group of isolated island chains is home to a variety of parrots that differ in their feeding habits and their beaks. Their various foods include insects, large or small seeds, and cactus fruits. These parrots likely represent what type of speciation?
The parrots in the isolated island chains that differ in their feeding habits and beaks likely represent an example of adaptive radiation speciation.
Adaptive radiation refers to the diversification of a common ancestral species into multiple specialized forms that occupy different ecological niches. In this case, the parrots have adapted to different food sources (insects, large or small seeds, and cactus fruits), leading to variations in their beak shapes and feeding habits. This diversification allows each parrot species to exploit a specific ecological niche and reduce competition for resources within their habitat.
The isolation of the island chains has provided unique environments with different available food sources, creating opportunities for the parrots to adapt to and exploit specific niches. Over time, natural selection acts on the parrot populations, favoring individuals with traits that are advantageous for obtaining and utilizing their respective food sources. This leads to the divergence and specialization of the parrot species based on their feeding habits and beak adaptations.
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1. When a person exercises, the expression of their genome changes to accommodate the change in their physiology (increased heart rate, muscles need energy, etc). Draw a diagram of a what happens to the chromatin structure when DNA is accessible for expression and when it is inaccessible. Be sure to label the diagrams appropriately with the following: acetylation, methylation, histone, histone tail, and DNA strand
When DNA is accessible for expression, the chromatin structure undergoes changes that promote gene expression.
The following changes occur:
Acetylation: Acetyl groups are added to the histone proteins in the chromatin. This modification, known as histone acetylation, loosens the chromatin structure, allowing for easier access to the DNA.
Histone Tail Modification: The tails of the histone proteins can undergo various modifications, such as methylation, phosphorylation, and ubiquitination. These modifications can influence the chromatin structure and gene expression.
DNA Unwinding: The DNA strands unwind from the nucleosomes, making specific regions of the DNA accessible for transcription factors and other regulatory proteins to bind and initiate gene expression.
In contrast, when DNA is inaccessible for expression, the chromatin structure becomes condensed and inhibits gene expression. This can occur through:
DNA Methylation: Methyl groups are added to certain regions of the DNA, leading to gene silencing. Methylation typically occurs at CpG sites, where a cytosine is followed by a guanine nucleotide.
Histone Deacetylation: The acetyl groups on histone proteins are removed, resulting in a more condensed chromatin structure and reduced access to the DNA.
These changes in chromatin structure play a critical role in regulating gene expression by making certain regions of the DNA accessible or inaccessible to the transcriptional machinery.
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Place the sequence of events occurring in DNA replication in order. Helicase unwinds the DNA. SSB Proteins (aka: single stranded binding protein) bind to the DNA strands to keep them separated. Primase makes primers on the DNA strands. As the DNA strand continues to unwind, DNA polymerase keeps moving to the next primer. Ligase eventually seals the DNA fragments (aka: Okazaki fragments). DNA polymerase adds nucleotide bases to begin replicating DNA strands. Two identical double helix DNA molecules are formed.
DNA replication is a complex process that ensures an exact copy of the DNA is produced. The sequence of events that occur in DNA replication includes the following: Helicase unwinds the DNA molecule: The process of DNA replication begins when helicase, an enzyme, breaks hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases of the two strands of DNA.
The unwinding of the double helix molecule by helicase generates a Y-shaped structure called the replication fork. SSB Proteins (aka: single stranded binding protein) bind to the DNA strands to keep them separated: Single-stranded binding proteins (SSBs) bind to the single-stranded DNA exposed by helicase.
This prevents the reformation of hydrogen bonds between the two strands, preventing them from annealing or coming back together. Primase makes primers on the DNA strands:
An RNA polymerase enzyme, primase, synthesizes RNA primers that are complementary to the DNA template strands. Primers serve as starting points for DNA polymerase to initiate DNA synthesis.
DNA polymerase adds nucleotide bases to begin replicating DNA strands: DNA polymerase adds nucleotide bases to the RNA primer, catalyzing the formation of a new DNA strand that is complementary to the template strand.
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1.) Explain the replication procedure in bacteriophages (lytic vs. temperate). What determines whether lamda phage goes into lytic or lysogenic phase
2.) Explain how enveloped and non-enveloped viruses differ in exiting the host cell
1) Replication procedure in bacteriophages (lytic vs. temperate)Lytic phages are a type of bacteriophage that reproduces exclusively through the lytic cycle. The bacteriophage inserts its DNA into the bacterial host cell, where it is replicated several times. The cell eventually dies as a result of the viral replication, releasing newly created phages.
Temperate phages have the ability to enter the lytic cycle as well as the lysogenic cycle. They insert their DNA into the bacterial host cell, where it can either be replicated several times through the lytic cycle or incorporated into the bacterial genome as a prophage. The prophage can remain dormant in the bacterial genome for an extended period until the lysogenic cycle is activated by environmental conditions.
What determines whether lambda phage goes into lytic or lysogenic phase? The decision to enter the lysogenic or lytic cycle is determined by the molecular switch. The genetic material of the bacteriophage can be integrated into the genome of the host cell or can be left unincorporated in the cytoplasm. The lysogenic cycle is preferred if the bacteriophage genome is integrated into the bacterial genome as a prophage.
2)Enveloped and non-enveloped viruses have different methods of exiting the host cell. Non-enveloped viruses are released from the host cell via lysis, which is the process of the host cell being ruptured, releasing the viruses. The lytic cycle is used by most non-enveloped viruses to replicate and exit the host cell.
Enveloped viruses, on the other hand, must bud off the host cell. In this process, the host cell membrane surrounds the viral envelope, resulting in the formation of a new envelope around the viral particle. The host cell eventually dies as a result of this process, and the newly enveloped viruses are released from the host cell.
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QUESTION 25 Which of following does NOT secrete a lipase? a. the salivary glands
b. the stomach c.the small intestine d. the pancreas
QUESTION 26 Which of the following is the correct sequence of regions of the small intestine, from beginning to end? a. Ileum-duodenum -jejunum b. Duodenum-ileum -jejunum c. Ileum-jejunum - duodenum
d. Duodenum-jejunum - ileum QUESTION 27 Accessory organs of the digestive system include all the following except. a. salivary glands b. teeth.
c. liver and gall bladder d.adrenal gland QUESTION 28 The alimentary canal is also called the. a. intestines b.bowel c. gastrointestinal (Gl) tract
d. esophagus
QUESTION 29 The tube that connects the oral cavity to the stomach is called the a. small intestine b. trachea c.esophagus d.oral canal
In this set of questions, to identify the option that does NOT secrete a lipase, the correct sequence of regions in the small intestine, the organs that are considered accessory organs of the digestive system.
In question 25, the correct answer is option a. the salivary glands. Salivary glands secrete amylase to initiate the digestion of carbohydrates but do not secrete lipase.
In question 26, the correct answer is option b. Duodenum-ileum-jejunum. The correct sequence of regions in the small intestine, from beginning to end, is duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
In question 27, the correct answer is option d. adrenal gland. Accessory organs of the digestive system include the salivary glands, teeth, liver, and gallbladder. The adrenal gland is not directly involved in the digestive process.
In question 28, the correct answer is option c. gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The alimentary canal, or the digestive tract, is also referred to as the gastrointestinal tract.
In question 29, the correct answer is option c. esophagus. The tube that connects the oral cavity to the stomach is called the esophagus, which serves the purpose of transporting food from the mouth to the stomach.
Overall, these questions cover various aspects of the digestive system, including secretions, anatomical sequences, and organs classification. Understanding these concepts is essential for comprehending the process of digestion and the functions of different components of the digestive system.
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Describe how mutations in oncogenes can induce genome instability, and contrast with genome instability induced by mutations in tumour suppressor genes.
Mutations in oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes can cause genomic instability, leading to the development of cancer. Mutations in oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes can lead to genome instability by affecting cellular pathways responsible for DNA damage repair, cell cycle control, and apoptosis.
Mutations in oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes can cause genomic instability, leading to the development of cancer. Mutations in oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes can lead to genome instability by affecting cellular pathways responsible for DNA damage repair, cell cycle control, and apoptosis. Mutations in oncogenes are genes that are capable of initiating the development of cancer in normal cells. Their mutations increase the activity of a protein encoded by the oncogene, leading to an uncontrolled cell growth and division, which can lead to cancer. However, when mutated, oncogenes can also activate DNA damage repair mechanisms that cause genomic instability, such as DNA replication and cell division that can lead to gene amplification and gene rearrangements.
On the other hand, tumor suppressor genes act to prevent the development of cancer by regulating cell proliferation, DNA repair, and apoptosis. Their mutations, on the other hand, lead to genomic instability, which can cause the loss of critical genes, uncontrolled cell growth, and the development of cancer. When tumor suppressor genes are mutated, they fail to control the cellular mechanisms responsible for DNA damage repair, cell cycle control, and apoptosis, which can cause genomic instability and the development of cancer.
Therefore, mutations in oncogenes can induce genomic instability by affecting cellular pathways that regulate DNA repair, cell cycle control, and apoptosis, while mutations in tumor suppressor genes can induce genomic instability by disrupting the same cellular pathways responsible for the regulation of DNA repair, cell cycle control, and apoptosis.
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Aldosterone hormone produces at the O Re absorption of K/ nephrons tubes/decreases the blood pressure O Secretion of Ca+ at the PCT of nephrons / increases the blood pressure O Secretion of Na+ / PCT
Aldosterone hormone produces an increase in the absorption of sodium ions from the renal tubules, particularly the distal convoluted tubule, into the bloodstream. It also increases the secretion of potassium ions from the bloodstream into the renal tubules. The correct answer is: Secretion of Na+ increases the blood pressure.
Therefore, the statement that Aldosterone hormone produces at the O Re absorption of K/nephron tubes is incorrect as Aldosterone increases the absorption of sodium and secretion of potassium.
Furthermore, it does not affect the absorption of the renal tubules. As for the statement "Secretion of Ca+ at the PCT of nephrons/increases the blood pressure", it is not correct. The PCT (Proximal Convoluted Tubule) is a site of sodium ion and water reabsorption, but it does not reabsorb Ca+. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
Aldosterone hormone stimulates the absorption of sodium ions from the renal tubules into the bloodstream, increasing the plasma volume and blood pressure. It is vital in maintaining blood pressure levels within the body. So, the correct answer is: Secretion of Na+ increases the blood pressure.
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Give ans for each statement
1.A protein linked to a disease state is being studied by scientists. They discover that the disease protein has the same amino acid sequence as the protein in healthy people. State right or wrong: Does the following explanation provide a plausible biological explanation for the disease state?
a.The RNA polymerase does not correctly read the codon code on the mRNA.
b.The protein is not being regulated properly.
c.The disease protein is incorrectly folded.
d. The disease protein lacks a post-translational modification.
e.The protein amounts differ because they are expressed differently.
The RNA polymerase does not correctly read the codon code on the mRNA, protein is not being regulated properly, the disease protein is incorrectly folded, the disease protein lacks a post-translational modification, and the protein amounts differ because they are expressed differently; are all plausible biological explanations for the disease state.
An explanation is given below to all options:a) The RNA polymerase does not correctly read the codon code on the mRNA:This may cause a different protein or premature termination of translation if it occurs, and so it may have a disease-causing effect.b) The protein is not being regulated properly:If the protein is underexpressed or overexpressed, it may have a disease-causing effect.c) The disease protein is incorrectly folded:As a result, it may be inactive or toxic, causing harm to the organism.
d) The disease protein lacks a post-translational modification:This may impair protein function or cause the protein to become toxic in some way, causing harm to the organism.e) The protein amounts differ because they are expressed differently:Different cells or tissues may express different quantities of the protein, resulting in different effects. Therefore, all the five options are right for plausible biological explanations for the disease state.
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