Graph the equation
y = -3. Determine the
slope of the line

Answer:

y = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

y = x² + 2x + 3 ← substitute x = - 1

y = (- 1)² + 2(- 1) + 3 = 1 - 2 + 3 = 2

The the fewest number of tire rotations is 42 to travel the entire distance of the driveway.

It is given that the driveway that is 200 feet long and the tire diameter is 18 inches.

It is required to find the fewest number of tire rotations a tire will make to travel the entire distance of the driveway.

It is defined as the combination of points that and every point has an equal distance from a fixed point ( called the center of a circle).

Driveway length = 200 feet

Diameter of the tire = 10 inches

For converting it to feet divide by 12.

Now the diameter of tire = 18/12 = 1.5 feet

Radius of the tire = 0.75 feet

We know the perimeter of the circle:

[tex]\rm P = 2\pi r[/tex]

P = 2(π)(0.75)

P = 4.71 feet   ( π =3.14 and P = 0.75)

[tex]\rm number \ of \ tire \ rotations = \frac{Driveway \ length}{Perimeter \ of tire}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{200}{4.71}[/tex]

Number of tire rotation = 42.462 ≈ 42

Thus, the the fewest number of tire rotations is 42 to travel the entire distance of the driveway.

Learn more about circle here:

brainly.com/question/11833983

Answer:

2.85 ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

1.9 x 1.5

Answer:

6.75cm

Step-by-step explanation:

The straw fits diagonally inside the can so it makes a right angled triangle with height and base of the can ( which is the diameter of the can)

So, hypotenuse = length of straw = 22.5cm

perpendicular = 18cm

base = diameter of can(d)

Using pythagoras theorem

h² = p² + b²

(22.5)² = 18² + d²

506.25 = 324 + d²

d² = 506.25 - 324

d² = 182.25

d = 13.5cm

Now radius = d/2 = 13.5/2 = 6.75cm

Answer:

Notice that the side length of the square is  38 m.

area of square  =  (side length)2  =  (38 m)2   =   1444 m2

Notice that the diameter of the circle is  38 m .

And its radius  =  diameter / 2   =   38m / 2   =   19 m

area of circle  =  pi * radius2  =  pi * (19m)2  =  pi * 361 m2   ≈   1133.54 m2

So......

area of shaded region  =  area of square - area of circle

area of shaded region  ≈       1444 m2     -  1133.54 m2

area of shaded region  ≈    310.46 m2

Step-by-step explanation:

Notice that the side length of the square is  38 m.

area of square  =  (side length)2  =  (38 m)2   =   1444 m2

Notice that the diameter of the circle is  38 m .

And its radius  =  diameter / 2   =   38m / 2   =   19 m

area of circle  =  pi * radius2  =  pi * (19m)2  =  pi * 361 m2   ≈   1133.54 m2

So......

area of shaded region  =  area of square - area of circle

area of shaded region  ≈       1444 m2     -  1133.54 m2

area of shaded region  ≈    310.46 m2

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

A function is any line that does not repeat in x-value (doesn't repeat on the x-axis).

Answer:

2 dollars each I think........

Answer:

mixed number form 1 1/9

decimal form 1.11111111111111 it goes on forever

percent form 111.111111111111% it goes on forever (again)

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope that helps!

Answer:

1  1/9

Step-by-step explanation:

10/9, you get 1 as the whole number.

You have a 1 left over when dividing 10 and 9. the 1 will be over 9.

Giving you 1 as the whole number and 1/9 next to it.

Answer:

35 times, or D

Step-by-step explanation:

A bag contains 5 red marbles, 6 blue marbles, 3 green marbles, 4 black marbles, and 2 yellow marbles. A marble will be drawn from the bag and replaced 100 times. What is a reasonable prediction for the number of times a green or black marble will be drawn?

A quick lesson on probability:

The probability of an event is: (the number of ways what you want can happen) / (total number of outcomes possible). For example, in a coin flip, there is 1 way to get heads, and 2 possible outcomes. Thus, the possiblity  of flipping a coin and getting heads is:

(1 way to get heads) / (2 possible outcomes) = 1/2

Then, if we were to flip the coin 100 times, we would expect about 1/2 of the times to be heads, so we should expect heads 50 times.  

On to the problem.

There are 3 green marbles and 4 black marbles, so there are 7 ways to draw a green or black marble.

Then, there are 5 + 6 + 3 + 4 + 2 = 20 possible outcomes.

Using the formula to find the probability, substitute the values we just found.

(the number of ways what you want can happen) / (total number of outcomes possible) =

(7 ways to draw a green or black marble) / (20 marbles that can be drawn) = 7/20 chance of getting a green or black marble.

Then, because there is a 7/20 chance of getting what we want, and there are 100 draws, we can say that an we should get green or black

7/20 * 100 = 35 times, or D

Feel free to ask any questions! :)

Answer:

either A,B,C, or D?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

59.85

Step-by-step explanation:

The scores on a mathematics exam have a mean of 70 and a stadard deviation of 7. Find the x-value that corresponds to the z-score -1.45.

We solve the above question using z score formula

z = (x-μ)/σ, where

x is the raw score

μ is the population mean = 70

σ is the population standard deviation = 7

z = -1.45

Hence:

-1.45 = x - 70/7

Cross Multiply

-1.45 × 7 = x - 70

-10.15 = x - 70

x = -10.15 + 70

x = 59.85

Answer:

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Glenn needs to cut pieces of ribbon that are each 1 meter long to make ribbon key chains. If he has 6 pieces of ribbon that are each 1 dekameter long, how many 1−meter pieces of ribbon can he cut?

1 decametre = 10 metres

Hence,

10 meters = 6 pieces of ribbon

1 meter = x pieces

Cross Multiply

10x = 6

x = 6/10

x = 2/3 (1 meter pieces of ribbon)

Answer:

what is the question or whatever

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The prime factorization of 200 is as follows: 200 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 5.

The prime factorization of 200 will be equal to 2 × 2 × 2 ×  5 × 5 or 2³ × 5².

It is given that a number is 200.

We have to find out the prime factorization of 200.

What do you mean by prime factorization ?

Prime factorization is a way to find the prime factors of a number, such that the original number is evenly divisible by the prime numbers.

As per the question ;

The given number is 200.

We have to find the prime factors of 200.

This meant to find out the prime numbers we should multiply together to make the original number which is 200.

So ;

200

= 2 × 100

= 2 × 2 × 50

= 2 × 2 × 5 × 10

= 2 × 2 × 2 ×  5 × 5

or

= 2³ × 5²

Thus , the prime factorization of 200 will be equal to 2 × 2 × 2 ×  5 × 5 or 2³ × 5².

To learn more about prime factorization click here ;

https://brainly.com/question/1081523

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Answer:

y = 36

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{y}{3}+2 = 14\\\\\frac{y}{3}=14-2\\\\\frac{y}{3}=12\\\\y = 12*3\\\\y = 36[/tex]

Answer:

An InVESTtigator

Step-by-step explanation:

I've heard this before

Answer:

An Investigator.

Answer:

[tex]x->-2^{-}, p(x)->-\infty[/tex] and as [tex]x->-2^{+}, p(x)->-\infty[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]p(x) = \frac{x^2-2x-3}{x+2}[/tex] -- Missing from the question

Required

The behavior of the function around its vertical asymptote at [tex]x = -2[/tex]

[tex]p(x) = \frac{x^2-2x-3}{x+2}[/tex]

Expand the numerator

[tex]p(x) = \frac{x^2 + x -3x - 3}{x+2}[/tex]

Factorize

[tex]p(x) = \frac{x(x + 1) -3(x + 1)}{x+2}[/tex]

Factor out x + 1

[tex]p(x) = \frac{(x -3)(x + 1)}{x+2}[/tex]

We test the function using values close to -2 (one value will be less than -2 while the other will be greater than -2)

We are only interested in the sign of the result

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

As x approaches -2 implies that:

[tex]x -> -2^{-}[/tex] Say x = -3

[tex]p(x) = \frac{(x -3)(x + 1)}{x+2}[/tex]

[tex]p(-3) = \frac{(-3-3)(-3+1)}{-3+2} = \frac{-6 * -2}{-1} = \frac{+12}{-1} = -12[/tex]

We have a negative value (-12); This will be called negative infinity

This implies that as x approaches -2, p(x) approaches negative infinity

[tex]x->-2^{-}, p(x)->-\infty[/tex]

Take note of the superscript of 2 (this implies that, we approach 2 from a value less than 2)

As x leaves -2 implies that: [tex]x>-2[/tex]

Say x = -2.1

[tex]p(-2.1) = \frac{(-2.1-3)(-2.1+1)}{-2.1+2} = \frac{-5.1 * -1.1}{-0.1} = \frac{+5.61}{-0.1} = -56.1[/tex]

We have a negative value (-56.1); This will be called negative infinity

This implies that as x leaves -2, p(x) approaches negative infinity

[tex]x->-2^{+}, p(x)->-\infty[/tex]

So, the behavior is:

[tex]x->-2^{-}, p(x)->-\infty[/tex] and as [tex]x->-2^{+}, p(x)->-\infty[/tex]

Answer:

is equal cuz a will be cut and be will be cut so what is left 1 is left so it is equal plz Mark me as the brainliest and thank me

Answer:

6 zeros in total

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:29. (-5,0) 30. (-1,0) (3,0) 31. (0,0) (2,0) (8,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the points that lie on the x axis

Answer:

Your answer is 27

I hope I helped, would appreciate brainliest! ;)

Step-by-step explanation:

'Percent (%)' means 'out of one hundred':

27% = 27 'out of one hundred',

p% is read p 'percent',

27% = 27/100 = 27 ÷ 100

Calculate percentage:

'Percentage' is obtained by multiplying 100 by 27%

27% of 100 is equivalent to multiplying them:

27% × 100 = ?

27% × 100 =

(27 ÷ 100) × 100 =

(27 × 100) ÷ 100 =

2,700 ÷ 100 =

27

Proof.

How do we check the result?

If 27% × 100 = 27 =>

Divide 27 by 100...

... And see if we get as a result: 27%

Note:

100/100 = 100 ÷ 100 = 100% = 1

Multiply a number by the fraction 100/100,

... and its value doesn't change.

n/100 = n%, any number.

Calculate the percent value:

27 ÷ 100 =

0.27 =

0.27 × 100/100 =

(0.27 × 100)/100 =

27/100 =

27%

So we have proved that the calculations are correct.

Answer:

Percentage of

27% of 100 = 27

Answer:

27%

Convert fraction (ratio) 27 / 100 Answer: 27%

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

15*1/5= 3

Answer:

g(x) = 4rx + 4r - 4x - 4

Step-by-step explanation:

g(x)= -(x+1)(r-1)(-4)

Answer:

D) The very last one

Step-by-step explanation:

n + 6 < 4

n < -2

< means it's an open circle and goes in the LEFT direction

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

there are 12 men

Step-by-step explanation:

men:3×4=12

woman:8×4=32

Answer:is it 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

to find one of the addend

subtract another one of the addend by the sum

eg : 9 + __= 20

20 - 9 = 11

now we can check

9 + 11 = 20

hope this helps

thanks bye

Answer:

The answer is below

Step-by-step explanation:

Two triangles are congruent if they have the same shape and their corresponding sides are equal to each other.

1) AB = DC, BE = CE     (given)

2) ∠AEB≅∠DEC  (vertical angles are congruent)

3) ΔABE ≅ ΔACE (side angle side congruence theorem)

If the two sides and an included angle of one triangle is equal to two sides and one included angle of another triangle, then the two triangles are congruent by SAS congruence theorem.