Genetics Worksheet Heterozygous means that the individual has two different letters, for example Aa, Bb, Dd. Homozygous means that the individual has two same letters, for example AA, bb, DD, eee Cats can have a trait where their ear folds down, a breed called the "Scottish Fold," displays this phenotype. The gene for folded ears is dominant (E) and the gene for straight ears (e) is recessive. 1. Write the three genotypes that are possible (choose your letters) and describe their phenotypes. Remember, genotypes have two letters and the phenotype describes what the cat looks like (folded or straight). 2. Show the cross of two heterozygous cats. What percentage of their offspring will have folded ears? percentage of folded ears. 3. A heterozygous cat is crossed with a cat that has straight ears. What percentage of their offspring will have folded ears? _percentage of folded ears. 4. If both parents have straight ears. What percentage of the kittens will have straight ears also? percentage of straight ears.

Answers

Answer 1

1. The three possible genotypes and their corresponding phenotypes are:

  - Genotype EE: Phenotype - Folded ears

  - Genotype Ee: Phenotype - Folded ears

  - Genotype ee: Phenotype - Straight ears

2. Cross between two heterozygous cats (Ee x Ee):

  The percentage of their offspring with folded ears is 75%.

3. Cross between a heterozygous cat (Ee) and a cat with straight ears (ee):

  The percentage of their offspring with folded ears is 50%.

4. Cross between two cats with straight ears (ee x ee):

  0% of the kittens will have folded ears.

The gene for folded ears (E) is dominant over the gene for straight ears (e). An individual can be homozygous dominant (EE) or heterozygous (Ee) for the folded ear trait, resulting in folded ears. An individual with two recessive alleles (ee) will have straight ears since the dominant folded ear allele is absent.

In this cross, each parent has one dominant folded ear allele (E) and one recessive straight ear allele (e). The possible genotypes of the offspring are EE, Ee, and ee. Among the offspring, 3 out of 4 possible genotypes (EE, Ee, and Ee) will have at least one dominant folded ear allele (E), resulting in folded ears. Therefore, 75% of their offspring will have folded ears.

In this cross, the heterozygous cat (Ee) has a dominant folded ear allele (E) and a cat with straight ears (ee) has two recessive alleles. The possible genotypes of the offspring are Ee and ee. Among the offspring, 1 out of 2 possible genotypes (Ee) will have folded ears, while the other 50% (ee) will have straight ears.

Both parents have two recessive alleles (ee) for straight ears. As a result, all the kittens will inherit two recessive alleles and have straight ears. Therefore, 0% of the kittens will have folded ears in this scenario.

To learn more about genotypes here:

https://brainly.com/question/30784786

#SPJ11


Related Questions

Different kinds of fatty acids could be metabolized by human cell, by using similar metabolic pathways. (a) (i) Upon complete oxidation of m vistic acid (14:0) , saturated fatty acid, calculate the number of ATP equivalents being generated in aerobic conditions. ( ∗∗∗ Show calculation step(s) clearly) [Assumption: the citric acid cycle is functioning and the mole ratio of ATPs produced by reoxidation of each NADH and FADH2 in the electron transport system are 3 and 2 respectively.] (6%)

Answers

Upon complete oxidation of myristic acid (14:0) in aerobic conditions, approximately 114 ATP equivalents would be generated.

To calculate the number of ATP equivalents generated upon complete oxidation of myristic acid (14:0), a saturated fatty acid, we need to consider the different metabolic pathways involved in its oxidation.

First, myristic acid undergoes beta-oxidation, a process that breaks down the fatty acid molecule into acetyl-CoA units. Since myristic acid has 14 carbons, it will undergo 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, producing 7 acetyl-CoA molecules.

Each round of beta-oxidation generates the following:

1 FADH2

1 NADH

1 acetyl-CoA

Now let's calculate the ATP equivalents generated from these products:

FADH2: According to the assumption given, each FADH2 can generate 2 ATP equivalents in the electron transport system (ETS). Since there are 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, we have 6 FADH2, resulting in 12 ATP equivalents (6 x 2).

NADH: Each NADH can generate 3 ATP equivalents in the ETS. With 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, we have 6 NADH, resulting in 18 ATP equivalents (6 x 3).

Acetyl-CoA: Each acetyl-CoA molecule enters the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle or TCA cycle) and goes through a series of reactions, generating energy intermediates that can be used to produce ATP. One round of the citric acid cycle generates 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP (which can be converted to ATP). Since we have 7 acetyl-CoA molecules, we will have 21 NADH, 7 FADH2, and 7 GTP (which is equivalent to ATP).

Calculating the ATP equivalents from acetyl-CoA:

NADH: 21 NADH x 3 ATP equivalents = 63 ATP equivalents

FADH2: 7 FADH2 x 2 ATP equivalents = 14 ATP equivalents

GTP (ATP): 7 ATP equivalents

Now we can sum up the ATP equivalents generated from FADH2, NADH, and acetyl-CoA:

FADH2: 12 ATP equivalents

NADH: 18 ATP equivalents

Acetyl-CoA: 63 ATP equivalents + 14 ATP equivalents + 7 ATP equivalents = 84 ATP equivalents

Finally, we add up the ATP equivalents from all sources:

12 ATP equivalents (FADH2) + 18 ATP equivalents (NADH) + 84 ATP equivalents (acetyl-CoA) = 114 ATP equivalents

To know more about oxidation

brainly.com/question/31844777

#SPJ11

Selection will be more effective if
Group of answer choices
a.Heritability is high
b.Genes do not have a large influence on phenotype
c.Variation in a trait is largely determined by the environment
d.Mating is random

Answers

a) High heritability means a significant portion of trait variation is due to genetics. In selection, high heritability allows desirable genetic variations to be passed on more effectively, driving evolutionary change.

Selection is more effective when heritability is high. Heritability refers to the proportion of phenotypic variation in a trait that is attributed to genetic factors. When heritability is high, it means that a significant portion of the variation in the trait is due to genetic differences among individuals.

In the context of selection, high heritability indicates that there is a strong genetic basis for the trait. This means that individuals with desirable genetic variations related to the trait are more likely to pass those variations to the next generation. As a result, selection acts more effectively in promoting the transmission of beneficial genetic traits and driving evolutionary change.

If genes have a large influence on phenotype (option b), it also contributes to high heritability, making selection more effective. On the other hand, if variation in a trait is largely determined by the environment (option c) or mating is random (option d), it can reduce the effectiveness of selection as genetic differences play a lesser role in determining trait variation.

learn more about heritability here:

https://brainly.com/question/29116728

#SPJ11

which of thee following systems is there only one to have direct
interactions with the other four
a) digestive
b) urinary
c) cardiovascular
d) respiratory
e) reproductive

Answers

Among the given options A.  the digestive system is the only system that has direct interactions with the other four systems, i.e., urinary, cardiovascular, respiratory, and reproductive.

What is the digestive system?

The digestive system is an intricate network of organs and glands that are responsible for breaking down food into nutrients for absorption and eliminating waste from the body. It includes the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, pancreas, and gallbladder.How is the digestive system related to the other four systems?The urinary system and the digestive system are interconnected because both are responsible for eliminating waste from the body.

The digestive system eliminates solid waste while the urinary system eliminates liquid waste from the body. The cardiovascular system and the digestive system are interconnected because the digestive system provides nutrients to the cardiovascular system. The cardiovascular system circulates the nutrients to the rest of the body, enabling them to function effectively. The respiratory system and the digestive system are interconnected because the respiratory system provides oxygen to the digestive system, which is required for the proper digestion of food.

The reproductive system and the digestive system are interconnected because the digestive system provides nutrients required for the growth and development of the reproductive system. Overall, the digestive system has direct interactions with all of the other systems, making it the only one to do so. Therefore the correct option is A

Know more about digestive system here:

https://brainly.com/question/956634

#SPJ8

A gene mutation causes a stop signal that prevents a protein from being synthesized in Arabidopsis thaliana. Which statement is true? O A) DNA was inserted, causing the halt in protein production, B) The protein that is produced will be shorter than normal. OC) The mutation occurred in the RNA of Arabidopsis thaliane. OD) A silent mutation caused the halted protein synthesis

Answers

A gene mutation causes a stop signal that prevents a protein from being synthesized in Arabidopsis thaliana. The statement that is true in the given situation is that the protein that is produced will be shorter than normal.

Gene mutation refers to a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is found in most individuals. The stop signal that causes a protein to stop being synthesized in Arabidopsis thaliana refers to nonsense mutations that affect the nucleotide sequence of an mRNA molecule.

A nonsense mutation is a point mutation that causes the premature termination of translation, resulting in a polypeptide chain that is truncated and usually nonfunctional. The mutated mRNA still codes for a protein, but the protein that is produced will be shorter than normal.

To know more about DNA visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30006059

#SPJ11

Question 23 Reminder: Patient W has recently gained a lot of weight in the face, chest and abdomen, contrasting with slender arms and legs. Patient W also has recently developed high blood pressure, bruise marks, muscle weakness, and mood swings. You suspect excess cortisol secretion, and sure enough, a blood test shows that patient W has very high cortisol levels. You suspect that the patient might have a tumor producing excess hormone. Question: If Patient W's tumor is in the anterior pituitary, which of the following hormone patterns would you expect to see compared to a normal healthy individual? Choose the correct answer OB. CRH high, ACTH low, cortisol high O A. CRH high, ACTH high, cortisol high OC. CRH low, ACTH high, cortisol high OD. CRH low, ACTH low, cortisol high

Answers

If Patient W's tumor is in the anterior pituitary, the expected hormone pattern would be:

OD. CRH low, ACTH low, cortisol high

In a normal healthy individual, the hypothalamus releases corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce and release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH, in turn, stimulates the adrenal glands to produce and release cortisol. However, in the case of an anterior pituitary tumor, the tumor cells can autonomously produce excessive amounts of cortisol, leading to high cortisol levels in the blood.

The tumor in the anterior pituitary would result in negative feedback on the hypothalamus and decrease the release of CRH. Since ACTH production is usually regulated by CRH, the levels of ACTH would be low. However, due to the autonomous cortisol production by the tumor, the cortisol levels in the blood would be high.

Therefore, the correct answer is OD. CRH low, ACTH low, cortisol high.

To know more about anterior pituitary click here:

https://brainly.com/question/31365728

#SPJ11

1.Genes that regulate Drosophila body (axis) patterning and are expressed from the oogenesis stage are known as:
a.segment polarity genes
b.homeotic genes
c.pair rule genes
d.maternal effect genes
2.
2.Hunchback can either activate or repress the expression of the krüppel gene.
a.TRUE
b.false
3.
3.Which of the following components of the Wnt pathway functions as a transcription factor?
a.GSK3
b.frizzled
c.wnt
d.ß-catenin
e.disheveled

Answers

1. The genes that regulate Drosophila body (axis) patterning and are expressed from the oogenesis stage are known as segment polarity genes.

2. The statement "Hunchback can either activate or repress the expression of the krüppel gene" is true.

3. ß-catenin is the component of the Wnt pathway that functions as a transcription factor.

Segment polarity genes are the group of genes that direct the polarization of each segment. The genes that regulate Drosophila body (axis) patterning and are expressed from the oogenesis stage are known as segment polarity genes. Their expression is initially regulated by maternal effect genes and later by gap genes. They divide the segments into two types of cells: posterior and anterior.Hunchback and KrüppelHunchback and Krüppel are examples of transcription factors that regulate gene expression during embryonic development in Drosophila melanogaster. Hunchback can either activate or repress the expression of the krüppel gene. The balance between Hunchback and other transcription factors (e.g. Giant) establishes the Krüppel stripe.The Wnt pathway functionsThe Wnt signaling pathway is a highly conserved pathway that controls a wide range of cellular processes, including cell proliferation, differentiation, and migration. ß-catenin is the component of the Wnt pathway that functions as a transcription factor. It controls the transcription of genes that are necessary for the regulation of cell growth and differentiation.

To know more about krüppel gene visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28448202

#SPJ11

Please type your answer neatly I really want to understand your respond to this questions, also keep the answer short. I promise if you meet what I asked for I will like the post, comment and share it. Thank you!!
1a. Think of the microscopes’ magnification, resolution, field and depth of view. Describe how these characteristics are related.
1b. What can you do to see more details in the microscope image?

Answers

Microscopes' magnification, resolution, field, and depth of view are all interrelated. Magnification refers to the microscope's capacity to increase the size of an object, and it is closely related to the field of view.

The field of view is the area of the object that is visible through the microscope. The larger the magnification, the smaller the field of view will be.
Resolution, on the other hand, refers to the microscope's capacity to differentiate two objects' closest points as separate.

The depth of view is how much of the object can be seen in focus at the same time. It is related to the resolution because it is necessary to have good resolution to focus on a specific part of the object.

The higher the resolution, the smaller the depth of view.

To know more about magnification visit:

https://brainly.com/question/21370207

#SPJ11

A collection of motor fibers exclusively A collection of axons in the peripheral nervous system A collection of nerve cell bodies A collection of axons in the central nervous system None of the included answers is correct The nervous system exhibits all these major functions EXCEPT: Modifying response All of the included answers are exhibited Integrating impulses Effecting responses Sensing the internal and external environment Projections from the cell body of a neuron include: Motor and sensory neurons None of the included answers is correct Neurons and neuroglia Axons and dendritesi Bipolar and multipolar neurons

Answers

Projections from the cell body of a neuron include: Axons and dendrites.

The cell body of a neuron gives rise to two main types of projections: axons and dendrites. Axons are long, slender extensions that transmit signals away from the cell body, while dendrites are shorter, branching extensions that receive signals from other neurons and relay them to the cell body. These projections play a crucial role in the communication and transmission of electrical signals within the nervous system. Axons conduct nerve impulses over long distances to transmit information to other neurons or target tissues, while dendrites receive incoming signals from other neurons to initiate electrical activity within the cell body.

To know more about Axons

brainly.com/question/29790232

#SPJ11

MATCHING Place the most appropriate number in the blank provided. Thyroid Prolactin 1. Thyrotropic hormone Adrenal medulla 2. Parathormone 3. Testosterone Anterior pituitary Adrenal cortex 4. Insulin

Answers

The matching of hormones with the gland or other structure that produces them can be found below.1. Thyrotropic hormone - Anterior pituitaryThyrotropic hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.

The thyrotropic hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release hormones.2. Parathormone - Parathyroid glandParathyroid glands produce parathormone. Parathormone helps regulate calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood.3. Testosterone - TestesTestosterone is produced by the testes. Testosterone plays a vital role in the development of male reproductive organs, sexual maturation, muscle and bone strength, and hair growth.4. Insulin - PancreasInsulin is produced by the pancreas. It controls glucose levels in the body by allowing cells to use glucose for energy.5. Thyroid hormones - Thyroid glandThe thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones, including thyroxine and triiodothyronine. These hormones control metabolism and energy use in the body.

6. Prolactin - Anterior pituitaryProlactin is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Prolactin plays a role in breast milk production and menstrual cycle regulation.7. Epinephrine/norepinephrine - Adrenal medullaEpinephrine and norepinephrine are produced by the adrenal medulla. They are stress hormones that prepare the body for "fight or flight" responses.8. Cortisol - Adrenal cortexCortisol is produced by the adrenal cortex. It helps the body respond to stress, regulates blood sugar levels, and controls inflammation in the body.

To know more about hormone visit :

https://brainly.com/question/30367679

#SPJ11

Describe/diagram the complete series of events that leads to formation of a membrane attack complex on a pathogen by the classical pathway. Also, describe how the story is different if the process is initiated by the lectin pathway instead. How is the acute phase response initiated and how is it related tothe classical and lectin pathways?

Answers

Formation of Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) via the Classical Pathway and lectin pathway.

Recognition: The classical pathway is initiated by the binding of C1 complex (consisting of C1q, C1r, and C1s) to specific antibodies, mainly immunoglobulin G (IgG) or immunoglobulin M (IgM), that have bound to pathogens or foreign substances. Activation: Binding of the C1 complex to the antibody-antigen complexes leads to the activation of C1r and C1s proteases within the C1 complex. C1r activates C1s.

Cleavage: Activated C1s cleaves C4 into C4a (an anaphylatoxin) and C4b, which binds to the pathogen's surface. Binding and Cleavage: C4b binds to nearby C2, which is then cleaved by C1s into C2a and C2b fragments. Formation of C3 Convertase: C4b and C2a combine to form the C3 convertase enzyme, known as C4b2a. The C3 convertase cleaves C3 into C3a (an anaphylatoxin) and C3b, which binds to the pathogen's surface.

Initiation of MAC Formation via the Lectin Pathway:

Recognition: The lectin pathway is initiated by the binding of mannose binding lectin (MBL), ficolins, or collectins to specific carbohydrate patterns on the pathogen's surface. Activation: MBL-associated serine proteases (MASPs) are activated upon binding of MBL or ficolins to the pathogen. MASPs include MASP-1, MASP-2, and MASP-3. Cleavage: Activated MASPs cleave C4 and C2, similar to the classical pathway, resulting in the formation of C4b2a, the C3 convertase.

To learn more about Membrane Attack Complex follow:

https://brainly.com/question/31763855

#SPJ11

2. Which of these theories of evolution was proposed by Jean-Baptiste Lamarck?
Theory of Natural Selection
Theory of the Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics
Speciation Theory
Epigenetic Inheritance Theory

Answers

The theory of evolution proposed by Jean-Baptiste Lamarck is the theory of the Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics.

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed the theory of the Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics. His theory suggested that organisms could pass on traits acquired during their lifetimes to their offspring. In this way, organisms could adapt to their environments and evolve over time.

According to Lamarck, traits that were used frequently would become more developed, while traits that were not used would slowly disappear. Lamarck's theory was based on the idea that an organism could gain a new characteristic in response to a need, and then pass that characteristic on to its offspring.

Learn more about Jean-Baptiste Lamarck: https://brainly.com/question/29179611

#SPJ11

iii) Give one species of bacteria each that are beta, alpha, or gamma hemophilic
iv) mention two organisms each that can be cultured on:
a) Blood agar
b) MacConkey
c) Chocolate agar
d) CLED

Answers

iii) Species of bacteria that are beta, alpha, or gamma hemophilic are as follows:

Beta-hemophilic bacteria:

Haemophilus influenzae. Alpha-hemophilic bacteria: Streptococcus pneumoniae. Gamma-hemophilic bacteria: Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

iv) The organisms that can be cultured on different agars are:

Blood agar: Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae, Staphylococcus aureus.

MacConkey: Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae.

Chocolate agar: Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis.

To know more about bacteria visit:

https://brainly.com/question/15490180

#SPJ11

Plant species from resource____environments often have low growth responses to fertilization because these plants typically have ___________ Intrinsic growth rates.
O rich: moderate O poor, high O rich high O poor low
O rich, fixed

Answers

Plant species from resource-poor environments often have low growth responses to fertilization because these plants typically have low intrinsic growth rates. The intrinsic growth rate is the maximum rate of growth of a population in an ideal, unlimited environment.

Plant species from resource-poor environments often have low growth responses to fertilization because these plants typically have low intrinsic growth rates. The intrinsic growth rate is the maximum rate of growth of a population in an ideal, unlimited environment. This growth rate is influenced by the availability of resources such as water, nutrients, and light. Fertilization can significantly impact plant growth, and it has been observed that it can increase plant growth by as much as 60% under the right conditions. Fertilizer is a rich source of nutrients that plants need to grow. In general, plants require nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, as well as a range of micronutrients, to grow optimally.

Resource-poor environments are characterized by low nutrient availability, and as a result, plant species that are adapted to these environments have evolved to have low intrinsic growth rates. This is because in these environments, it is not feasible for plants to grow too quickly, as this would require too many resources, which are not available. As such, plant species from resource-poor environments often have low growth responses to fertilization. The impact of fertilization on plant growth is highly dependent on the nutrient composition of the soil and the type of fertilizer used.

To know more about fertilization visit:

https://brainly.com/question/24196345

#SPJ11

Initiation of transcription in eukaryotes is almost always dependant on:
a. DNA being condensed within heterochromatin
b. Nonspecific DNA binding of RNA polymerases
c. The activity of histone deacetylases
d. The action of multiple activator proteins

Answers

In eukaryotes, the initiation of transcription is almost always dependent on the action of multiple activator proteins. Transcription factors that are specific to while chromatin remodeling complexes and histone modifiers may also be necessary.

In eukaryotes, transcription of protein-encoding genes is directed by RNA polymerase II. The initiation of transcription is a complicated and regulated process that involves multiple proteins, including transcription factors and chromatin regulators. In order for RNA polymerase II to bind to DNA and initiate transcription, multiple activator proteins must first bind to the promoter region of the gene.

These activator proteins can recruit other transcription factors and chromatin-modifying enzymes to the promoter, which can then help to recruit RNA polymerase II to the correct position on the DNA for transcription to begin. Additionally, chromatin remodeling complexes may be necessary to help make the DNA more accessible to RNA polymerase II by modifying the position or structure of nucleosomes. Therefore, the initiation of transcription in eukaryotes is almost always dependent on the action of multiple activator proteins.

To know more about dependent visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30094324

SPJ11

BIOCHEM
Which of these peptide hormones signals satiety?
A.
adiponectin
B.
ghrelin
C.
.PYY3-36
D.
NPY

Answers

Peptide hormones are the substances that act as signaling molecules and are secreted by endocrine cells. They act on the target organs and tissues to bring out a specific response. They are involved in the regulation of various processes such as growth, metabolism, stress response, and satiety.

Satiety is the feeling of fullness that follows a meal. It is regulated by the complex interactions between various hormones and neurotransmitters. One of the peptide hormones that signals satiety is PYY3-36.PYY3-36 (Peptide YY 3-36) is a peptide hormone secreted by the intestinal L-cells in response to food intake.

It acts on the hypothalamus to decrease appetite and increase satiety. It is known to inhibit the secretion of ghrelin, a hormone that stimulates appetite. PYY3-36 is also involved in the regulation of glucose metabolism, insulin secretion, and gut motility. Other peptide hormones involved in the regulation of appetite and satiety are adiponectin, ghrelin, and NPY (Neuropeptide Y).

Adiponectin is produced by adipose tissue and has anti-inflammatory and insulin-sensitizing effects. Ghrelin is produced by the stomach and stimulates appetite. NPY is produced by the hypothalamus and stimulates appetite.

To know more about molecules visit :

https://brainly.com/question/32298217

#SPJ11

Read the case study below and then answer the questions that follow. On October 15, 2005, in southeastern Louisiana, a managed 43 years and his wife aged 46 years had onset of diarrhea. The husband had a history of high blood pressure, alcoholism, diabetes, brain tumor, and chronic renal failure that required dialysis three times a week. On October 16, 2005, he was hospitalized for fever, muscle pains, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and severe diarrhea and dehydration: subsequently he experienced complete loss of renal function and respiratory and cardiac failure. However, after treatment with ciprofloxacin and aggressive rehydration therapy, the man recovered to his previous state of health. His wife had mild diarrhea and was treated as an outpatient with ciprofloxacin and extra fluids Because the couple's residence had been severely damaged and flooded by Hurricane Rita, both patients had waded in coastal flood waters in late September, 2-3 weeks before their illness onset. Five days before onset of illness, both had caten locally caught crabs. On October 14, the day preceding illness onset, both had caten shrimp purchased from a local fisherman. The shrimp were boiled for 5 minutes, however, at least some of the boiled shrimp were returned to a cooler containing raw shrimp and were caten later 1. Based on your evaluation of the patients' symptoms environmental exposure and food consumption, what bacterial organism(s) do you suspect to be the likely cause of their illness? Choose two possible organisms from the list of organisms discussed in the Food Microbiology lectures for your answer. (4 points) 2. Explain why you chose these organisms. Point to specific evidence why you chose these pathogen(s). (4 points) 3. As a microbiologist, how would you proceed to identify the bacterial organism? What tests could you do to begin to confirm the identity of organism you suspect is causing the illness? This is a good place to apply techniques you have learned from lab! (

Answers

The two bacterial organisms that could have caused the illness of the patient are Vibrio vulnificus and Vibrio parahaemolyticus.

The reason why these two bacterial organisms are suspected to have caused the illness of the patient is that Vibrio vulnificus is usually found in warm seawater while Vibrio parahaemolyticus is found in saltwater and seafood. It has been noted in the case that the couple has waded in coastal flood waters before the onset of the illness. Furthermore, they have eaten locally caught crabs five days before the onset of the illness, which is in line with the habitat of the said bacterial organisms.

As a microbiologist, one could use different techniques and tests to identify the bacterial organism causing the illness. Some of these tests include biochemical tests, serotyping, and virulence testing, among others. Furthermore, one could also employ molecular techniques like Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) to amplify specific regions of DNA to identify the bacteria. In this case, one could collect stool samples from the patients and analyze them in the lab to confirm the presence of the bacteria and identify the specific species responsible for their illness.

To know more about Vibrio vulnificus visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/17373570

#SPJ11

Review Questions 1. ______ is the net movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration. 2. a. _______ Did the color change in the beaker, the dialysis bag, or both in Procedure 6.17 b. Explain why 3. a. ______ For which dialysis bags in Procedure 6.2 did water move across the membrane? b. Explain how you determined this based on your results.
4. a. ______ What salt solution (0%, 9%, or 5%) is closest to an isotonic solution to the potato cells in Procedure 6.5? b. Explain how you determined this based on your results. 5. _______ Would you expect a red blood cell to swell, shrink, or remain the same if placed into distilled water? 6. Explain why hypotonic solutions affect plant and animal cells differently. 7. Explain how active transport is different than passive transport. 8. Phenolphthalein is a pH indicator that turns red in basic solutions. You set up an experiment where you place water and phenolphthalein into a dialysis bag. After closing the bag and rinsing it in distilled water, you place the dialysis bag into a beaker filled with sodium hydroxide (a basic/alkaline solution). You observe at the beginning of the experiment both the dialysis bag and the solution in the beaker are clear. After 30 minutes you observe that the contents of the dialysis bag have turned pink but the solution in the beaker has remained clear. What can you conclude in regards to the movements of phenolphthalein and sodium hydroxide?

Answers

Osmosis is the net movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration.

In Procedure 6.17, where did the color change occur and why?

In Procedure 6.17, the color change can occur in the beaker, the dialysis bag, or both. The color change indicates the movement of solute particles across the membrane.

If the color changes in the beaker, it suggests that the solute molecules have diffused out of the dialysis bag into the surrounding solution.

If the color changes in the dialysis bag, it indicates that the solute molecules have passed through the membrane and entered the bag.

The occurrence of color change in both the beaker and the dialysis bag suggests that there is movement of solute in both directions.

Learn more about Osmosis

brainly.com/question/31028904

#SPJ11

Why are dideoxynucleoside triphosphates required for
Sanger DNA sequencing? (4 pts)

Answers

Sanger DNA sequencing is a process that involves the identification of the DNA sequence through the use of chain termination. The process requires a primer that can anneal to the template strand of DNA to provide a starting point for the extension of a new DNA strand.

The extension of the new DNA strand requires the presence of dideoxynucleoside triphosphates. Dideoxynucleoside triphosphates are required for Sanger DNA sequencing for several reasons. Firstly, they lack the hydroxyl group on the 3' carbon atom of the deoxyribose sugar. This modification of the sugar molecule prevents the addition of any further nucleotides to the growing DNA strand after the dideoxynucleoside triphosphate has been incorporated into the chain. Secondly, dideoxynucleoside triphosphates are labeled with a fluorescent or radioactive tag to enable the detection of the sequence as it is synthesized. This feature allows the identification of the DNA sequence as each nucleotide is added to the new DNA strand by the DNA polymerase. Finally, the use of dideoxynucleoside triphosphates enables the production of a series of different lengths of DNA fragments that terminate at each of the four nucleotides. These fragments can then be separated by size to determine the DNA sequence.

Overall, dideoxynucleoside triphosphates are essential for Sanger DNA sequencing as they allow the identification of the DNA sequence and enable the production of different length DNA fragments that can be separated by size to determine the sequence.

To know more about DNA visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30993611

#SPJ11

What non-mendelian pattern is illustrated below? What is the
genotype of the F1?
.
What non-Mendelian pattern is illustrated below? What is the genotype of the F1? A male fly with yellow body and red eyes is crossed to a female with yellow bristles All the F1 have yellow bodies and

Answers

The non-Mendelian pattern illustrated below is incomplete dominance, where the phenotype of the heterozygous individuals is an intermediate blend of the phenotypes of the two homozygous parents.

In this case, a male fly with a yellow body and red eyes is crossed to a female with yellow bristles.

The F1 generation resulting from this cross exhibits yellow bodies, but their genotype cannot be determined with the given information.

Incomplete dominance highlights the complex nature of inheritance, where neither allele is dominant over the other, resulting in a unique phenotype in the offspring.

To know more about incomplete dominance refer to-

https://brainly.com/question/13402032

#SPJ11

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney? A. Excretion of metabolic wastes. B. Secretion of hormones. C. Maintenance of acid-base balance. D. Excretion of solid and liquid wastes. E. Maintenance of water-salt balance. 2. Which of the following substances causes nitrogen to be released as ammonia? A. alpha ketoglutarate D. uric acid B. amino acids E. glucose C. urea 3. Which one of the following is a part of the circulatory system? A. distal tubules D. proximal tubules E. glomerulus B. Bowman's capsule C. collecting duct 4. Glomerular filtrate is identical to plasma, except in respect to the concentration of: A. water. D. glucose B. proteins. E. urea. C. sodium.

Answers

Excretion of solid and liquid wastes is not a function of the kidney. The kidney is responsible for filtering the blood, removing metabolic wastes and excess water, salts, and minerals to form urine, which is excreted from the body.

Additionally, the kidney also helps maintain acid-base balance and secretes hormones.2. B. Amino acids are the substances that cause nitrogen to be released as ammonia.

Amino acids contain nitrogen, and when they are broken down in the liver, the nitrogen is removed and converted into ammonia, which is then excreted by the body.

Urea, another nitrogenous waste product, is formed in the liver from ammonia.3. The heart is a part of the circulatory system, responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.

To know more about responsible visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28903029

#SPJ11

Smoking participants of a cohort study are more likely to drop out. It is known that the effect of asbe stos on getting cancer is much stronger among smokers whise, " analyzing data for this study, researchers find no association between asbeston andie cancer. A potential explanation for the results of the study is specificity of association. effect modification. information blas. selection bias. confounding.

Answers

The potential explanation for the results of the study where analyzing data for this study, researchers find no association between asbestos and cancer is specificity of association.

A cohort study is a type of study in which a group of people (called a cohort) is observed over time to see if certain risk factors are associated with specific outcomes. This is a study design that is frequently used in medical research to assess the effect of a risk factor on the likelihood of developing a particular disease. These studies may be either prospective (in which data are collected on individuals over time) or retrospective (in which data are collected from existing records).Smoking participants of a cohort study are more likely to drop out. It is known that the effect of asbestos on getting cancer is much stronger among smokers whose analyzing data for this study, researchers find no association between asbestos and cancer.

A potential explanation for the results of the study is specificity of association.There is no doubt that smoking is associated with a high incidence of lung cancer. Asbestos is also a well-known cause of lung cancer. Because smoking and asbestos exposure are frequently encountered together, determining the impact of asbestos exposure on lung cancer risk has been difficult. Therefore, specificity of association is an explanation for the results of the study. The specificity of the association refers to the degree to which an exposure is related to a specific disease. The specificity of association has been linked to the likelihood of a confounding variable's existence.

The specificity of association may be used to rule out potential confounding variables in epidemiological research because it reveals the importance of the link between exposure and disease. Because of the high probability of confounding, investigators should pay careful attention to specificity when interpreting epidemiological data. Therefore, the potential explanation for the results of the study is specificity of association.

To know more about potential explanation visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30511630

#SPJ11

71 01 80 Which of the following has the potential to treat genetic diseases by blocking protein synthesis? DNA transformation DNA probing Gene therapy DNA transcription Gene silencing

Answers

Gene silencing techniques like RNA interference (RNAi) and antisense oligonucleotides (ASOs) have the potential to treat genetic diseases by blocking protein synthesis.

Gene silencing has the potential to treat genetic diseases by blocking protein synthesis. Gene silencing refers to the process of inhibiting or reducing the expression of a specific gene.

It involves the use of various techniques to interfere with the production of proteins encoded by the targeted gene. There are different approaches to achieve gene silencing, such as RNA interference (RNAi) and antisense oligonucleotides (ASOs).

RNAi involves the introduction of small RNA molecules, such as small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) or short hairpin RNAs (shRNAs), that are complementary to the target gene's mRNA.

These small RNA molecules bind to the mRNA, leading to its degradation and preventing the translation of the mRNA into a functional protein. This mechanism effectively blocks protein synthesis, thereby reducing the expression of the disease-causing protein.

Similarly, antisense oligonucleotides are short synthetic DNA or RNA molecules that bind to the mRNA of the target gene, thereby preventing its translation into protein.

By specifically targeting the mRNA, ASOs can inhibit protein synthesis and potentially treat genetic diseases caused by the overexpression or malfunctioning of certain proteins.

In summary, gene silencing techniques like RNA interference and antisense oligonucleotides have the potential to treat genetic diseases by blocking protein synthesis.

These approaches offer a promising avenue for developing therapies that can specifically target disease-causing genes and mitigate the effects of genetic disorders.

The complete question is:

"Which of the following has the potential to treat genetic diseases by blocking protein synthesis?

DNA transformation DNA probing Gene therapy DNA transcription Gene silencing"

Learn more about Gene silencing:

https://brainly.com/question/30433908

#SPJ11

: Calculate the estimated original phage concentration based on each row of the table, using the data presented below. Be sure to show your work, and report your final result for each row in scientific notation with the unit "PFU/mL". Dilution factor Volume of phage plated Plaque count 104 0.1 mL TNTC 105 0.1 mL TNTC 106 0.1 mL 303 107 0.1 mL 172 108 0.1 mL 94 109 0.1 mL 9

Answers

The estimated original phage concentration was calculated for each row using the dilution factor, volume plated, and plaque count. The results ranged from 10^9 to 10^13 PFU/mL, with "TNTC" values assumed to be at least one order of magnitude higher than the maximum countable value.

To calculate the estimated original phage concentration, we need to consider the dilution factor, the volume of phage plated, and the plaque count.

The dilution factor represents how much the original phage solution was diluted before plating.

In this case, the dilution factor is the same for each row and is equal to 10^4, 10^5, 10^6, 10^7, 10^8, and 10^9 for the respective rows.

The volume of phage plated is given as 0.1 mL for each row.

The plaque count represents the number of plaques (viable phage) observed on the plates after incubation.

However, for rows where the plaque count is reported as "TNTC" (too numerous to count), we cannot use the exact count. Instead, we assume that the actual plaque count is at least one order of magnitude higher than the maximum countable value.

Let's calculate the estimated original phage concentration for each row:

Row 1: Dilution factor = 10^4, Volume plated = 0.1 mL, Plaque count = TNTC

Assuming the plaque count is at least 10^5, the estimated original phage concentration is 10^5 x 10^4 / 0.1 = 10^9 PFU/mL.

Row 2: Dilution factor = 10^5, Volume plated = 0.1 mL, Plaque count = TNTC

Assuming the plaque count is at least 10^6, the estimated original phage concentration is 10^6 x 10^5 / 0.1 = 10^12 PFU/mL.

Rows 3-6 can be calculated in a similar manner:

Row 3: Estimated concentration = 10^13 PFU/mL

Row 4: Estimated concentration = 10^12 PFU/mL

Row 5: Estimated concentration = 10^11 PFU/mL

Row 6: Estimated concentration = 10^10 PFU/mL

In summary, the estimated original phage concentrations for each row are:

Row 1: 1 x 10^9 PFU/mL

Row 2: 1 x 10^12 PFU/mL

Row 3: 1 x 10^13 PFU/mL

Row 4: 1 x 10^12 PFU/mL

Row 5: 1 x 10^11 PFU/mL

Row 6: 1 x 10^10 PFU/mL

To know more about dilution factor refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30887569#

#SPJ11

Longer intestines relative to size are typical of rabbits, horses, and other herbivorous animals O carnivorous animals O lions and pythons O humans and other primates

Answers

Longer intestines relative to size are typical of herbivorous animals such as rabbits, horses, and other herbivores. This is because plant materials, which are rich in cellulose and other complex carbohydrates, require longer digestive processes to be broken down and metabolized.

Herbivores have evolved longer digestive tracts to allow for the prolonged digestion of plant materials. This is in contrast to carnivorous animals such as lions and pythons, which have shorter intestines relative to their size. This is because animal tissues are easier to digest and absorb, and require less time to break down. Finally, humans and other primates have relatively shorter intestines compared to herbivorous animals but longer compared to carnivorous animals. This is because humans are omnivorous and require a digestive system that can process both plant and animal materials. In summary, herbivorous animals have longer intestines compared to their body size to allow for the digestion of complex plant materials, while carnivorous animals have shorter intestines because they require less time to break down animal tissues.

To know more about herbivorous visit:

https://brainly.com/question/16786804

#SPJ11

Diabetes insipidus (DI) arises from lack of ADH production (central or pituitary DI), or ADH insensitivity in the kidney. Suggest the type of urine produced in an individual with DI and explain your reasoning. (5 marks)

Answers

In individuals with Diabetes Insipidus (DI), the lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production or ADH insensitivity in the kidneys leads to an inability to properly regulate water reabsorption.

ADH plays a crucial role in regulating water balance by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys. When ADH is deficient or ineffective, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine by reabsorbing water, resulting in the excretion of large volumes of dilute urine. This is because without ADH, the permeability of the collecting ducts in the kidneys is reduced, preventing water from being reabsorbed back into the bloodstream.

The dilute urine produced in DI contains a high volume of water and is typically colorless or pale in appearance. It has a low concentration of solutes such as electrolytes and waste products compared to normally concentrated urine. Additionally, individuals with DI may experience increased thirst (polydipsia) as a compensatory mechanism to replenish the excessive loss of water through urine.

To know more about antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

brainly.com/question/28063750

#SPJ11

Q1) How can multiple-drug-resistant plasmid be generated?
Q2) Lets think about the procedure of Amestest. In Amestest an auxotroph strain of bacteria is used. How can we do Amestest without using an auxotroph bacteria? Propose a imaginary case of amestest using antibiotic resistance as a selective event instead of using an auxotroph bacteria. How can this be possible, design the experiment.

Answers

1) Multiple-drug-resistant plasmids can be generated through horizontal gene transfer.  2) It is possible to design an imaginary case of Amestest using antibiotic resistance as a selective event instead of auxotrophy, by incorporating resistance genes into the bacteria's genome.

1) Multiple-drug-resistant plasmids, which confer resistance to multiple antibiotics, can be generated through various mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer. These mechanisms include transformation, transduction, and conjugation. In transformation, bacteria take up genetic material from their surroundings, which can include plasmids carrying antibiotic resistance genes. Transduction involves the transfer of genetic material between bacteria through bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria). Conjugation, on the other hand, involves direct physical contact between bacteria, allowing for the transfer of plasmids.

2) In the case of Amestest, traditionally an auxotroph strain of bacteria is used. Auxotrophs are unable to synthesize certain essential nutrients, requiring supplementation in their growth media. However, an imaginary case of Amestest can be designed without using auxotroph bacteria by utilizing antibiotic resistance as a selective event. This would involve incorporating antibiotic resistance genes into the bacteria's genome.

To accomplish this, genetic engineering techniques can be employed. One approach is plasmid transformation, where the resistance genes are introduced into the bacteria through the uptake of a plasmid carrying those genes. Another method is CRISPR-mediated gene editing, which allows for precise modification of the bacterial genome by introducing the desired resistance genes.

After incorporating the resistance genes, the bacteria would be subjected to antibiotic selection. Only the bacteria with the resistance genes would survive and reproduce, leading to the generation of multiple-drug-resistant strains. This alternative experimental design expands the scope of Amestest and provides insights into genetic recombination and the mechanisms of antibiotic resistance.

Learn more about Transduction here:

https://brainly.com/question/30747855

#SPJ11

Question 16 1 pts Which one of the following statements about fluid input and removal from the digestive system is correct? Most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the large intestine The amo

Answers

Most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the small intestine is correct about fluid input and removal from the digestive system.

The correct statement about fluid input and removal from the digestive system is: Most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the small intestine.  The digestive system is responsible for the digestion and absorption of food, water, and other nutrients from the diet. It's also responsible for eliminating waste products and excess fluids from the body. Most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the small intestine. Fluid input and removal from the digestive system: Fluid input and removal from the digestive system refers to the absorption of water and other nutrients from the digestive tract.

The fluid input and output from the digestive system are regulated by various mechanisms to ensure adequate hydration and removal of excess fluids from the body. The small intestine is responsible for the absorption of most of the nutrients and fluid from the food. The large intestine mainly absorbs water and electrolytes from the undigested food. However, most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the small intestine, not the large intestine.

To know more about small intestine visit

https://brainly.com/question/15858162

#SPJ11

Is it true or false?
introns that have been were not spliced; the 5' splice site of one intron can only function with the 3' splice site of the same intron.

Answers

The 5' splice site of one intron can not only function with the 3' splice site of the same intron. Therefore, the statement is false.

Introns that have been transcribed from DNA are typically removed through a process called splicing before the mRNA is translated into a protein.

Splicing involves the removal of introns and joining together of exons.

The 5' splice site of one intron can function with the 3' splice site of a different intron during the splicing process.

This allows for the removal of multiple introns and the correct joining of exons to generate a functional mRNA molecule.

To know more about intron, please refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/26464408#

#SPJ11

Lisa took a prescription medication that blocked her nicotinic receptors. i. Name the neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding. ii. Which ANS subdivision has been impacted? iii. Based on your an

Answers

i. The neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding is acetylcholine.

ii. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) subdivision that has been impacted is the parasympathetic nervous system.

iii. Based on the information provided, the blocking of nicotinic receptors by the medication is likely to result in decreased parasympathetic activity, leading to effects such as decreased salivation, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate.

i. The neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding is acetylcholine. Nicotinic receptors are a type of receptor in the nervous system that specifically bind to acetylcholine.

ii. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is responsible for regulating involuntary bodily functions. It is divided into two subdivisions: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. In this case, since the medication blocked nicotinic receptors, which are predominantly found in the parasympathetic division, the parasympathetic subdivision of the ANS has been impacted.

iii. Blocking nicotinic receptors in the parasympathetic division of the ANS would result in decreased parasympathetic activity. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for promoting rest and digestion. Its effects include increased salivation, increased gastrointestinal motility, and decreased heart rate. By blocking the nicotinic receptors, the medication would interfere with the binding of acetylcholine and subsequently decrease the parasympathetic response, leading to the opposite effects mentioned above, such as decreased salivation, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate.

Learn more about neurotransmitter here: https://brainly.com/question/28101943

#SPJ11

Exercise 22B.2: Spirometry 7. 1 4.2 8. 9. 10. Subject name Grayson VC (standing) 3 2 4.7 4.8 ave TV (sitting) 2 1 0.7 0.5 Tidal Volume is defined as: 3 0.8 VC (lab coats) 3 1 2 4.1 4.2 4.0 ave ave 1 3.5 VC (sitting) 2 3.2 VC (post-exercise) 3 3 3.6 1 2 5.1 5.2 5.3 Describe one reason why Vital Capacity would change after exercise. Describe how bandaging the ribcage affects Vital Capacity. ave Describe one reason why Vital Capacity would change between sitting and standing. ave

Answers

Vital Capacity (VC) can change after exercise due to increased respiratory effort and higher oxygen demand. Bandaging the ribcage can restrict chest expansion and decrease Vital Capacity. Vital Capacity can also differ between sitting and standing positions due to changes in lung mechanics and the effects of gravity on lung volume.

Vital Capacity (VC) is the maximum amount of air a person can exhale forcefully after taking a deep breath. After exercise, Vital Capacity may increase due to several factors. During exercise, the body requires more oxygen to meet the increased metabolic demand.

This leads to increased respiratory effort, causing deeper and more forceful inhalation and exhalation. As a result, the lungs can expand more, leading to an increased Vital Capacity.

Bandaging the ribcage can significantly affect Vital Capacity. By tightly wrapping the ribcage, the movement and expansion of the chest are restricted. This restriction limits the ability of the lungs to expand fully during inhalation, leading to a decrease in Vital Capacity.

Bandaging the ribcage can be used for various reasons, such as providing support or compression, but it can have a negative impact on lung function and respiratory capacity.

The difference in Vital Capacity between sitting and standing positions can be attributed to changes in lung mechanics and the effects of gravity. When a person is standing, gravity compresses the lungs to some extent, reducing their volume. This compression limits the ability of the lungs to expand fully during inhalation, resulting in a lower Vital Capacity compared to when sitting.

Additionally, the position of the diaphragm, the main muscle involved in breathing, may also change between sitting and standing, further influencing lung volume and Vital Capacity.

Overall, exercise, ribcage bandaging, and changes in body position can all have significant effects on Vital Capacity, highlighting the dynamic nature of respiratory function and the various factors that can impact lung volumes.

Learn more about  vital capacity  here:

brainly.com/question/32433626

#SPJ11

Other Questions
Review the phospholipid bilayer. Understand the fluid mosaicmodel of plasma membranes. Make sure you know what moleculesmake-up the membrane and the functions of membrane proteins. 100 Points Major Construction Company has kept records of its past construction projects. Their records show the following information: Job 1: Asphalt Concrete Paving Quantity = 800 tons in 3 days Job Describe the time temperature paths to produce the following microstructures in 0.77 wt% C: (a) 100% fine pearlite (b) 100% tempered martensite (c) 25% coarse pearlite, 50% bainite, and 25% martensite hipls help me answer 11 & 12 thank you!11. A spherical air bubble in water can function as a ing or a diverging lens? How is its focal length related to its radius? 12. You have a curved spherical mirror about a foot across. You find that Use Cramer's Rule to solve (if possible) the system of linear equations. (If not possible, enter IMPOSSIBLE.) 4x1 - x2 + x3 = -10 2X1 + 2x2 + 3x3 = 5 5x1 - 2x2 + 6x3 = -10 (x1, x2, x3) = ( ) Can our destructive behavior toward nature be explained by thefact that we are mentally ill - that is, we as a society orculture, not we as individuals? Problem 2: Draw 2 possible block diagrams for the system governed by the differential equation: m + cx + kx = f(t) Hint: consider multiple variations of the transfer function. You are working in a laboratory with primary focus on cell cycle. You are given following cell lines:a) p53 knockout cellsb) Mad2 knockout cellsc) Rb knockout cellsYour aim is to analyze the behavior of these cells under following conditions.i. Exposure to UV radiationii. Lack of mitogensiii. Treatment with nocodazole (a microtubule depolymerizing drug)What phenotypes do you expect to see? Explain for each cell type under each condition. (hint: your primary focus is cell cycle) Given the signals x [n] = [1 2 -1 2 3] and x [n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1]. Evaluate the output for: a. x[n] + x[-n]. b. x[1-n] x [n+3] . Classify each description as a characteristic of white fat, brown fat, or both. White fat Brown fat Answer Bank primary function is energy storage Incorrect each cell has one large fat droplet provides insulation Both made of adipocytes Attempt 1 Find the range of the function r (x) for the given domain r(x) = 2(2x)+3D={-1,0.1,3 Which of the following is false about energy, its availability, and its sources? a. Energy is captured by plants then transformed and transferred b. Energy can easily be created without the need for transference c. All of the above are correct d. Energy is lost as heat and radiated out into space e. All biological energy input for Earth comes from the Sun What is the lactase gene product responsible for? What is the function of the product of the lactase gene? What happened approximately 10,000 years ago that contributed to the evolution of the lactase gene? 1. He was jumping/jumped off the train while it moved / was moving Write a Matlab program which asks the user for their age. If their age is greater than or equal to 63 then ask them to retire. If they are less than 63 ask them to keep working. If n>5, then in terms of n, how much less than 7n4 is 5n+3? a. 2n+7 b. 2n7 c. 2n+1 d. 2n1 Your marketing research department estimates that the demand function for your product is equal to Q d=2,00020P. Suppose P=$60 The absolute value of the price elasticity of demand will be equal to (Round your answer to two decimal places.) A centrifugal compressor running at 9000 rpm. Delivers 6000 m^3/min of free air. The air is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree c to a pressure ratio of 4 with an isentropic efficiency of 82 %. The blades are radial at outlet of the impeller and flow velocity is 62 m/s throughout the impeller. The outer diameter of impeller is twice the inner diameter and slip factor is 0.9. FindOPTIONS 0.0963 kg/ N-h 963 kg/ N-h 9630 kg/ N-h 630 kg/ N-h On the basis of past experience, the probability that a certain electrical component will be satisfactory is 0.98. The components are sampled item by item from continuous production. In a sample of five components, what are the probabilities of finding (i) zero, (ii) exactly one, (iii) exactly two, (iv) two or more defectives? Wheat plants can survive in both wet and dry weather but express different genes in each environment. Compare a bacterial cell in the dry weather to one in the wet weather. Which sequences of RNA will be the same between the two?a) mRNAb) rRNAc) tRNAd) tRNA and mRNAe) rRNA and tRNA