From the following trial balance, with the additional information, please complete the adjustments, and prepare a financial statement (income, owner's equity and balance sheet). Close all the temporary accounts using the closing procedure and prepare a post-closing trial balance. Additional information 1. Repair inventory on hand: $12,000.00 2. Rent expired: $2,000.00 3. Depreciation on office equipment: $250.00 4. Interest expense: $180.00 5. $6,300.00 worth of unearned revenue job was completed. Debit Credit $ 31,000 $ 48,000 9,000 21,000 14,400 3,800 14,000 21.000 7,500 450 750 148.000 Accounts payable. Accounts receivable. Accumulated depreciation, equipment... Accumulated depreciation, truck. Cash Depreciation expense. Equipment. Franchise.. Gas and oil expense Interest expense Interest payable. Land not currently used in business operations. Long-term notes payable?.. Notes payable, due February 1, 2018 Notes receivable Intangible asset. Prepaid rent. Rent expense. Repair revenue. Repair supplies Repair supplies expense Truck Unearned repair revenue. Vic Sopik, capital Vic Sopik, withdrawals Totals 35,000 7.000 6.000 7.000 14,000 51,000 266,000 13,100 29,000 26,000 12,600 74,900 49,000 $457.250 $457,250

Answers

Answer 1

After making the necessary adjustments, financial statements including the income statement, owner's equity statement, and balance sheet are prepared. Temporary accounts are closed using the closing procedure, and a post-closing trial balance is generated.

Adjustments:

1. Repair inventory on hand of $12,000 is recorded as an increase in Repair Supplies and a decrease in Repair Supplies Expense.

2. Rent expired of $2,000 is recorded as an increase in Rent Expense and a decrease in Prepaid Rent.

3. Depreciation on office equipment of $250 is recorded as an increase in Depreciation Expense and a decrease in Accumulated Depreciation, Equipment.

4. Interest expense of $180 is recorded as an increase in Interest Expense and an increase in Interest Payable.

5. Unearned revenue job completed worth $6,300 is recorded as an increase in Repair Revenue and a decrease in Unearned Repair Revenue.

Financial Statements:

Income Statement:

- Revenues: Repair Revenue

- Expenses: Depreciation Expense, Gas and Oil Expense, Interest Expense, Repair Supplies Expense, Rent Expense

- Net Income: Total Revenues - Total Expenses

Owner's Equity Statement:

- Beginning Capital Balance + Net Income - Withdrawals = Ending Capital Balance

Balance Sheet:

- Assets: Cash, Accounts Receivable, Land not currently used in business operations, Equipment, Accumulated Depreciation (both for equipment and truck), Notes Receivable, Repair Supplies, Prepaid Rent

- Liabilities: Accounts Payable, Long-term Notes Payable, Notes Payable, Interest Payable

- Owner's Equity: Franchise, Vic Sopik, Capital

- Total Liabilities and Owner's Equity: Total Liabilities + Total Owner's Equity

Closing Procedure:

Temporary accounts (Repair Revenue, Depreciation Expense, Gas and Oil Expense, Interest Expense, Repair Supplies Expense, Rent Expense) are closed by transferring their balances to the Owner's Capital account.

Post-Closing Trial Balance:

A post-closing trial balance is prepared by listing all the accounts with their adjusted balances after the closing entries. The purpose of this trial balance is to verify that the books are in balance and only permanent accounts (assets, liabilities, and owner's equity) remain.

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Related Questions

a truck that cost $12,000 and on which $9,000 of accumulated depreciation has been recorded was disposed of for $2,000 cash. the entry to record this event would include a

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The following journal entry would record a truck that cost $12,000 and on which $9,000 of accumulated depreciation has been recorded and was disposed of for $2,000 cash

Debit: Accumulated Depreciation $9,000

Debit: Loss on Disposal $1,000

Credit: Truck $12,000Credit: Cash $2,000

Justification: When a company gets rid of a fixed asset, it must make the following accounting entries:

1. Accumulated Depreciation: The amount of accumulated depreciation must be debited.

2. Loss on Disposal: If the sales price is less than the net book value, the difference is recognized as a loss on disposal and debited.

3. Asset Account: The fixed asset account must be credited.

4. Cash Account: If the asset was sold for cash, the company's cash account must be credited.

Thus, the above journal entries would be the correct one for recording the sale of a truck that cost $12,000, has an accumulated depreciation of $9,000, and was disposed of for $2,000 in cash.

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Charles lent $6,400 at 5% p.a. on March 27, 2014. Calculate the amount of interest he should receive if the loan extends until February 18, 2015. Round to the nearest cent

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The amount of interest Charles should receive is $173.75.

To calculate the interest, we need to determine the time period between March 27, 2014, and February 18, 2015. From March 27, 2014, to February 18, 2015, there are 328 days.

Next, we need to calculate the interest using the formula: Interest = Principal × Rate × Time.

The principal amount is $6,400, the annual interest rate is 5% (0.05), and the time period is 328 days divided by 365 (assuming a 365-day year). Therefore, the interest is calculated as follows:

Interest = $6,400 × 0.05 × (328/365) = $173.75.

Therefore, Charles should receive $173.75 in interest on the loan.

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The performance evaluation measure that allows a proportional comparison of the performance of departments or divisions of different sizes is: Mulople choice Both ROI and Residual Income residual inco

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The correct answer is "Both ROI and Residual Income." Both Return on Investment (ROI) and Residual Income are performance evaluation measures that allow for

a proportional comparison of the performance of departments or divisions of different sizes. These measures take into account the profitability and efficiency of the department or division relative to its invested capital or residual income.

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(1%) Which of the following statements are correct? i) The 4 production factors are Capital, Labour, Land & Entrepreneurship. ii) Lower interest rates cause inflation. iii) A price floor leads to surplus production. iv) If products X and Y are complimentary, an increase in X's price will lead to an increase in demand for Y. v) The elasticity of products changes over time. A) i, ii, iii & v B) i, iii & v C) ii, iii & iv D) ii, iv & v E) i & iii

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B) i, iii & v.These factors are essential inputs in the production process.


i) The four production factors are indeed Capital, Labor, Land, and Entrepreneurship.
iii) A price floor, which sets a minimum price for a good or service, can lead to surplus production as it may discourage demand and create an excess supply.
v) The elasticity of products can change over time due to various factors such as changes in consumer preferences, technology advancements, market conditions, and competition. This means that the responsiveness of demand or supply to price changes can vary.

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In Class Practice (CH 02) Consider the following accounts and identify each as an asset (A), liability (L), or equity (E). 1. Rent Expense E 6. Accounts Payable 2. Brock, Capital E 7. Unearned Revenue 3. Furniture A 8. Notes Receivable 4. Service Revenue E 9. Brock, Withdrawals A 5. Prepaid Insurance 10. Insurance Expense

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Accounts Payable - Liability (L)Brock, Capital - Equity (E)Brock, Withdrawals - Equity (E)Furniture - Asset (A)Insurance Expense - Expense (A)Notes Receivable - Asset (A)Prepaid Insurance - Asset (A)Rent Expense - Expense (A)Service Revenue - Revenue (A)Unearned Revenue - Liability (L)

Accounts Payable: It is a liability (L) account because it represents money that the company owes to its suppliers and must pay in the future.

Brock, Capital: It is an equity (E) account because it represents the owner's investment in the company.

Brock, Withdrawals: It is an equity (E) account because it represents the owner's withdrawal of funds from the company.

Furniture: It is an asset (A) account because it represents the company's tangible property that can be used for business purposes.

Insurance Expense: It is an expense (A) account because it represents the cost of insurance coverage paid by the company.

Notes Receivable: It is an asset (A) account because it represents the money that the company is owed by its customers.

Pre-paid Insurance: It is an asset (A) account because it represents the money that the company has paid in advance for its insurance coverage.

Rent Expense: It is an expense (A) account because it represents the cost of renting property for business purposes.

Service Revenue: It is a revenue (A) account because it represents the money earned by the company from its services.

Unearned Revenue: It is a liability (L) account because it represents the money that the company has received in advance for its services but has not yet earned.

From the above explanations, it is evident that all the accounts can be classified into either assets (A), liabilities (L), equity (E), expenses (A), and revenue (A).

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represents intelligent workers and machines that identify errors and take quick countermeasures to eliminate the errors. Stability Standardize Just-In-Time Jidoka Question 10 (1 point) Which which is a benefit of business process improvement? Performance measurement tools Improved reliability Business toolbox Improvement roadmap tools

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.The Jidoka principle is a quality control approach in Lean Manufacturing that involves the detection of defects during the production process. It enables intelligent workers and machines to identify errors and take quick countermeasures to eliminate the errors.

The benefit of business process improvement includes the use of improvement roadmap tools. The improvement roadmap tools are a set of strategies that will guide a business to reach its goals and objectives. These tools are commonly used to make improvements in different areas of the business process.Business Process Improvement (BPI) is a technique used to enhance business operations and productivity. Some of the benefits of business process improvement include:Improved reliability. Performance measurement tools. Business toolbox Improvement roadmap tools. Stability Standardize Just-In-Time Jidoka. Business process improvement (BPI) is a systematic approach to helping an organization optimize its underlying processes to achieve more efficient results. This can involve improving the way tasks are executed, making changes to how certain procedures work, or implementing new technologies to streamline operations.The Jidoka principle is a quality control approach in Lean Manufacturing that involves the detection of defects during the production process. It enables intelligent workers and machines to identify errors and take quick countermeasures to eliminate the errors.

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Unions can be perceived as being economically harmful when they
strike infrequently
successfully negotiate higher wages
support modernization and new technology
none of the above

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Unions cannot be perceived as economically harmful when they strike infrequently, successfully negotiate higher wages, or support modernization and new technology.

Unions play a vital role in advocating for workers' rights and improving their working conditions. When unions strike infrequently, it means that labor disputes and disruptions are minimized, resulting in a more stable business environment. This stability allows for consistent productivity and uninterrupted operations, which can positively impact economic growth.

Successful negotiations by unions to secure higher wages can also have positive economic effects. When workers earn higher wages, they have more disposable income to spend, which can stimulate consumer demand and boost economic activity. Increased consumer spending can lead to higher sales for businesses, job creation, and overall economic growth.

Additionally, unions that support modernization and new technology contribute to economic progress. Embracing advancements in technology can enhance productivity, efficiency, and competitiveness. By working collaboratively with employers to implement new technologies, unions can help businesses adapt to changing market demands, improve operational processes, and ultimately drive economic growth.

Therefore, it is incorrect to perceive unions as economically harmful when they strike infrequently, negotiate higher wages successfully, or support modernization and new technology. These actions can have positive impacts on both workers and the broader economy by promoting stability, improving purchasing power, and facilitating progress.

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new growth that increases stem length on a plant arises mainly from

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The new growth that increases stem length on a plant mainly arises from cell division and elongation in the meristematic tissues. Meristems are specialized regions of undifferentiated cells that have the ability to continuously divide and produce new cells.

There are two main types of meristems involved in stem growth:

Apical Meristem: The apical meristem is located at the tips of stems and roots, and it is responsible for primary growth. It produces new cells that elongate and differentiate into various types of tissues, resulting in an increase in stem length.

Cambium: The cambium is a lateral meristem found in the vascular tissues of stems and roots. It is responsible for secondary growth, which leads to an increase in girth or thickness of the stem. The cambium produces new cells both towards the outside (forming secondary phloem) and towards the inside (forming secondary xylem).

Cell division occurs in the meristems, generating new cells. As these cells divide, some of them elongate, which contributes to the increase in stem length. Additionally, the cells differentiate into specialized tissues such as xylem, phloem, and various types of parenchyma cells, which collectively make up the growing stem. The coordination between cell division, elongation, and differentiation in the meristems is responsible for the new growth that increases stem length on a plant.

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True or False or"be true only if "
(b) A firm considers investing £100 million in a risky project. A bank offers to lend the firm £100 million at an interest rate of 4%. The appropriate discount rate for the NPV calculation is thus 4

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True. In a Modigliani and Miller (1958) world, also known as the capital structure irrelevance proposition, the firm's weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is determined by its investment policy and is independent of how cash flows are shared between equity and debt.

The proposition states that, under certain assumptions (e.g., perfect capital markets, no taxes, no transaction costs), the value of a firm is determined by its cash flows generated by its assets and the risk of those cash flows. The allocation of these cash flows between equity and debt does not affect the overall value of the firm or its WACC.

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A third-party logistics (3PL) service provider receives an average of 2,000 + 100*X orders per day at its warehouse, where X is the last digit of your Student PI number. Use the average daily order based on your Student PI number to answer this question.
Example: If your Student PI number is W1234567, then X = 7 and the average daily order = 2,700.
This company takes great effort in setting and adhering to its warehouse KPI of In-Full delivery rate at 97%.

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The given problem states that a third-party logistics (3PL) service provider receives an average of 2,000 + 100 * X orders per day at its warehouse, where X is the last digit of the student's PI number.

If the student's PI number is W1234567, then X = 7 and the average daily order = 2,700.Thus, as per the problem, if X = 7 and the average daily order is 2,700, then we will use these values in our calculations.Now, let's move towards the solution of the problem:The In-Full Delivery Rate (IFDR) KPI is considered to be one of the most important Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for logistics providers. It measures the percentage of orders that are shipped and delivered in full. The In-Full Delivery Rate (IFDR) KPI of a logistics company is set at 97%.IFDR = Number of orders shipped and delivered in full / Total number of orders shipped * 100Using the above formula, we can calculate the number of orders that must be shipped and delivered in full to achieve an IFDR of 97%.The total number of orders shipped daily = 2,700 (As per the problem statement)Let the number of orders that are shipped and delivered in full be y.The formula for IFDR is:97 = y / 2700 * 100y = 97/100 * 2700y = 2,619Thus, the number of orders that must be shipped and delivered in full to achieve an IFDR of 97% is 2,619, and the average daily order is 2,700. Therefore, the third-party logistics (3PL) service provider needs to ensure that at least 2,619 orders are shipped and delivered in full every day to achieve an In-Full Delivery Rate (IFDR) KPI of 97%.

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The Fulmar Division of Jayne Manufacturing had an ROI of 25% when sales were £3 million and controllable margin was £600,000. What were the average operating assets? O £150,000 O £750,000 O £2,400,000 O £12,000

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To determine the average operating assets of the Fulmar Division of Jayne Manufacturing, we are given the ROI (Return on Investment) and the controllable margin.

The formula for ROI is:

ROI = (Controllable Margin / Average Operating Assets) * 100

We are given that the ROI is 25% and the controllable margin is £600,000. Plugging these values into the formula, we can solve for the average operating assets:

25% = (£600,000 / Average Operating Assets) * 100

To isolate the average operating assets, we can rearrange the equation:

Average Operating Assets = (£600,000 / 25%) * 100

Simplifying the equation, we get:

Average Operating Assets = (£600,000 / 0.25)

Calculating the result, we find that the average operating assets of the Fulmar Division of Jayne Manufacturing are £2,400,000.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C: £2,400,000.

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TRUE/FALSE. If one person ranks their utility gained from a shirt as 5 while another ranks their utility from the same shirt as 6. We can determine that the second person received more utility from this shirt.

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"If one person ranks their utility gained from a shirt as 5 while another ranks their utility from the same shirt as 6. We can determine that the second person received more utility from this shirt" is false.

The statement is false because utility is subjective and cannot be directly compared or quantified across individuals. Utility is a measure of the satisfaction or value an individual derives from consuming a good or service. However, utility is a personal and internal concept that varies from person to person.

In the given scenario, the fact that one person ranks their utility from a shirt as 5 while another person ranks their utility as 6 does not allow us to determine that the second person received more utility from the shirt. It simply indicates that the second person subjectively perceived or valued the shirt slightly higher than the first person. It does not provide a basis for comparison of the absolute level of utility or conclude that one person received more utility than the other.

Utility rankings are individual-specific and based on personal preferences, tastes, and subjective evaluations. Therefore, it is not possible to make definitive conclusions about the relative magnitudes of utility between different individuals based on their subjective rankings alone.

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Business, societal, and ethical contexts of law, respond to the following prompts. For many Fortune 500 corporations, ethics has become a big business. Combined, such companies now spend billions of dollars doing good deeds and self-promoting those myriad efforts to the public. The expectation, of course, is that ethically-minded consumers will prefer the products and services of these companies. However, is it ethical for such companies to use ethics so strategically? Should business and ethics mix in this way?

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The question of whether it is ethical for companies to strategically use ethics as a means to promote their products and services is subjective and open to debate.

Ethical Marketing: Many companies engage in ethical marketing practices as a way to differentiate themselves from their competitors and appeal to consumers who prioritize ethical considerations. By highlighting their socially responsible initiatives and corporate philanthropy, these companies aim to build a positive brand image and attract ethically-minded consumers. This approach is driven by the belief that consumers will support companies that align with their values.

Business and Ethics: Business and ethics are not mutually exclusive concepts. In fact, incorporating ethics into business practices can lead to long-term sustainability and positive societal impact. Ethical business practices involve adhering to legal and regulatory requirements, treating employees fairly, respecting the environment, and being accountable to stakeholders. When companies genuinely embrace ethical values and integrate them into their operations, it can contribute to a more responsible and sustainable business environment.

Ethical Dilemmas: However, there are ethical dilemmas associated with companies using ethics strategically for self-promotion. It raises questions about the authenticity of their ethical commitment and whether their actions are driven by genuine values or simply for marketing purposes. Some argue that this strategic use of ethics can be seen as manipulative or misleading, potentially undermining the trust between companies and consumers.

The question of whether it is ethical for companies to strategically use ethics is complex and context-dependent. While companies have a responsibility to engage in ethical business practices and promote positive societal impact, the motivation and authenticity behind their actions are crucial.

Consumers should be discerning and critically evaluate the ethical claims made by companies. Ultimately, companies should strive for genuine ethical behavior and transparency, ensuring that their ethical initiatives are more than just a marketing strategy.

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Consider the following scenario: a downturn in the energy sector results in a significant decline in the value of assets at several large mutual funds. Which common cause of financial crises does this scenario best represent?
A: Increases in uncertainty
B:Balance sheet deterioration
C:Government fiscal problems
D: Increases in interest rates

Answers

B: Balance sheet deterioration. The scenario described, where a downturn in the energy sector leads to a significant decline in the value of assets at mutual funds, best represents the common cause of financial crises known as balance sheet deterioration.

Balance sheet deterioration refers to a situation where the value of assets held by financial institutions, such as mutual funds, decreases significantly, leading to a mismatch between their assets and liabilities. In this scenario, the decline in the value of assets held by the mutual funds, due to the downturn in the energy sector, negatively impacts their balance sheets. The energy sector downturn can result in various adverse effects, such as declining oil prices, reduced energy demand, or company bankruptcies within the sector. These factors can lead to a decrease in the value of energy-related assets held by mutual funds, causing their balance sheets to deteriorate. Balance sheet deterioration can have ripple effects on the financial system, as it affects the solvency and stability of financial institutions. When the value of assets declines, it can erode the capital base of mutual funds, making them vulnerable to insolvency or liquidity problems. This, in turn, can impact investor confidence, trigger redemptions, and potentially propagate financial instability throughout the system. While other factors, such as increases in uncertainty, government fiscal problems, or increases in interest rates, can also contribute to financial crises, the scenario described primarily aligns with balance sheet deterioration as the immediate cause of the crisis.

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Required
a) What is Organizational Behaviour?
b) Briefly explain three (3) principles underlying Organizational Behaviour
c) Outline three (3) important principles of organizational behaviour

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Organizational Behaviour refers to the study of how individuals behave and act within an organization.

b) Three principles underlying Organizational Behaviour include:Individual differences: This principle deals with the differences in attitudes, values, and behavior that individuals exhibit. Different people have different perceptions, which can lead to misunderstandings and conflicts in the workplace.Motivation: The principle of motivation deals with the factors that drive individuals to behave in certain ways. It is important to understand what motivates people to perform at their best and how to create an environment that fosters motivation.

c) Three important principles of organizational behavior include:Communication: Effective communication is vital to the success of any organization. It involves exchanging information, ideas, and feedback. Communication should be clear, concise, and respectful. This helps to avoid misunderstandings and conflicts in the workplace.Teamwork: Teamwork involves working collaboratively with others to achieve a common goal.

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Assume panel data for individuals (i) over several years (t). We want to run wage regression and the individual-level information on human capital (e.g. years of schooling) does not vary over time (because individuals in this sample went to school first, then joined the labour force but never returned to education). (a) We can run a fixed effects regression and will obtain an estimate for human capital. (b) In a pooled OLS regression the human capital variable will drop out if we include year dummies. (c) We can run a random effects regression and will obtain an estimate for human capital. (d) None of the above.

Answers

The correct answer is (b) In a pooled OLS regression, the human capital variable will drop out if we include year dummies.

In a pooled ordinary least squares (OLS) regression, including year dummies (fixed effects) will control for time-specific effects but will not account for individual-level variation that does not change over time. Since the individual-level information on human capital does not vary over time in this scenario, including year dummies will eliminate the variation in the human capital variable, causing it to drop out of the regression. Consequently, the estimate for human capital cannot be obtained in a pooled OLS regression when year dummies are included.

(a) Running a fixed effects regression would be appropriate in this case, as it allows for controlling individual-specific effects by including fixed effects for each individual. This would enable estimating the effect of other time-varying variables while accounting for individual-level variation that does not change over time.

(c) Running a random effects regression is not suitable in this scenario since the individual-level information on human capital does not vary over time. Random effects models assume that the individual-specific effects are uncorrelated with the explanatory variables, which may not hold true when the variable of interest does not vary over time.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) In a pooled OLS regression, the human capital variable will drop out if we include year dummies.

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The following is a list of the ratios and values we have
calculated in this text:
(a)
Classify each of the ratios below as a liquidity, solvency, or
profitability ratio.
(b)
For each of the rat

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In the given text, a list of ratios and values has been calculated. 1. Current Ratio: Liquidity Ratio, 2. Debt-to-Equity Ratio: Solvency Ratio, 3. Gross Profit Margin: Profitability Ratio, 4. Return on Assets (ROA): Profitability Ratio, 5. Return on Equity (ROE): Profitability Ratio, 6. Operating Margin: Profitability Ratio.

To classify the ratios as liquidity, solvency, or profitability ratios, we need to understand the nature and purpose of each ratio:

1. Current Ratio: Liquidity Ratio

  Explanation: The current ratio measures a company's ability to meet short-term obligations. It is calculated by dividing current assets by current liabilities.

2. Debt-to-Equity Ratio: Solvency Ratio

  Explanation: The debt-to-equity ratio evaluates a company's long-term financial stability by comparing its total debt to its shareholders' equity.

3. Gross Profit Margin: Profitability Ratio

  Explanation: The gross profit margin assesses a company's profitability by measuring the percentage of revenue that remains after deducting the cost of goods sold.

4. Return on Assets (ROA): Profitability Ratio

  Explanation: ROA measures a company's efficiency in generating profits from its assets. It is calculated by dividing net income by average total assets.

5. Return on Equity (ROE): Profitability Ratio

  Explanation: ROE evaluates a company's profitability in relation to its shareholders' equity. It is calculated by dividing net income by average shareholders' equity.

6. Operating Margin: Profitability Ratio

  Explanation: The operating margin assesses a company's profitability by measuring the percentage of operating income generated from each dollar of sales.

By classifying each ratio and providing a brief explanation for each, we can better understand their purpose and implications in assessing a company's financial performance.

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Which of the following statements about the balanced scorecard is FALSE? Multiple Choice English ↑ Spanish Evaluates performance from financial, customer, internal affairs, and learning and innovati

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The FALSE statement about the balanced scorecard is that it evaluates performance from financial, customer, internal affairs, and learning and innovation perspectives.

The balanced scorecard is a strategic performance measurement framework that evaluates performance across various dimensions, including financial, customer, internal processes, and learning and growth. It emphasizes a balanced approach to performance measurement by considering both financial and non-financial factors that drive long-term success.

The balanced scorecard recognizes that financial performance alone is not sufficient to gauge the overall health and future prospects of an organization. By incorporating customer perspectives, internal process efficiencies, and learning and innovation capabilities, the balanced scorecard provides a more comprehensive view of performance and helps align strategic objectives with operational actions.

Therefore, the statement is false, as the balanced scorecard indeed evaluates performance from financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth perspectives.

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Problem 2: Effort Game Two people are working together on a project. Simultaneously, they both must choose a level of effort between 0 and 100 (in integers). The payoffs are given by: u; (₁, ₂) = min{₁, ₂} - ce₁ 1. Suppose c 0.5. What are the NE? 2. Suppose c = 0.99. What are the NE? Can you generalize? 3. What if c>1? 4. Where do you think people might coordinate in situation (1) and (2)? 6

Answers

The Nash Equilibrium (NE) for the Effort Game with c = 0.5 is when both players choose an effort level of 50. At this NE, neither player has an incentive to deviate from their chosen strategy, as it maximizes their payoffs given the cost factor.

For c = 0.99, the NE is when both players choose an effort level of 0. In this case, the cost of exerting effort outweighs the potential payoff, leading both players to prefer no effort. This NE differs from the previous case due to the higher cost factor.

Generalization:

As the cost factor c approaches 1, the NE tends to converge towards both players choosing an effort level of 0. When c is close to 1, the cost of exerting effort becomes significant compared to the potential payoff, resulting in a suboptimal outcome where both players prefer no effort.

If c > 1, the NE remains at both players choosing an effort level of 0. With a cost factor greater than 1, the cost of exerting effort becomes even higher, making it less desirable for players to invest their resources.

In situation (1) with c = 0.5, coordination might occur around a moderate effort level, such as 50. This level balances the trade-off between maximizing payoffs and minimizing the cost of effort. In situation (2) with c = 0.99, the NE is at no effort, so coordination might occur towards no exertion, resulting in suboptimal outcomes.

In the Effort Game, the players must choose an effort level between 0 and 100, and their payoffs are determined by the minimum effort chosen by both players and the cost factor c. The payoff function u(₁, ₂) = min{₁, ₂} - ce₁ represents the minimum effort level chosen by both players minus the cost of effort for player 1.

To find the NE, we analyze each player's best response given the actions of the other player. In situation (1) with c = 0.5, both players have an incentive to choose an effort level of 50, as it maximizes their payoffs considering the cost factor. In situation (2) with c = 0.99, the cost of effort is higher, leading both players to prefer no effort to minimize costs

The NE in the Effort Game depends on the cost factor c. As c increases, the NE tends towards both players choosing no effort. Coordination of effort levels may vary depending on the cost factor, with moderate effort levels being more likely when the cost is relatively low. Higher costs lead to suboptimal outcomes where both players prefer no effort.

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need all parts to questions a &b
Water Planet is considering purchasing a water park in Atlanta, Georgia, for $2,100,000. The new facility will generate annual net cash inflows of $525,000 for eight years. Engineers estimate that the

Answers

The net present value (NPV) of the water park investment can be determined by calculating the present value of the net cash inflows and subtracting the initial cost of the park.

To calculate the net present value (NPV) of the water park investment, we need to consider the present value of the net cash inflows and the initial cost of the park. The net cash inflow is given as $525,000 per year for eight years, resulting in a total cash inflow of $4,200,000 ($525,000 × 8 years).

To determine the NPV, we discount the future cash flows to their present value using an appropriate discount rate. Assuming a discount rate of, for example, 10%, we can calculate the present value of the cash inflows. Using a present value formula or financial calculator, the present value of $4,200,000 with a discount rate of 10% would be $2,926,636.61. Next, we subtract the initial cost of the park, which is $2,100,000. Therefore, the NPV of the water park investment would be $826,636.61 ($2,926,636.61 - $2,100,000).

A positive NPV indicates that the investment is expected to generate more cash inflows than the initial cost, making it potentially a good investment opportunity. However, it is important to note that the accuracy and reliability of the NPV calculation depend on the accuracy of the cash flow projections, discount rate selection, and other factors such as market conditions and competition. Therefore, a thorough analysis considering various factors is necessary before making a final decision on the water park investment.

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please use orginal words. no plagiarism please. dont waste my question if you're going to copy from someone else. thankyou Discuss the reasons for negative future oil price (in April 2020). Please limit your report to no more than 300 words in total

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In April 2020, the future oil prices experienced a significant downturn due to several key factors. These included the global economic impact of the COVID-19 pandemic, the ongoing price war between major oil-producing countries, and the subsequent oversupply of oil in the market. These factors combined to create a negative outlook for oil prices, leading to a sharp decline in futures contracts.


The negative future oil prices observed in April 2020 were primarily driven by three major factors. Firstly, the COVID-19 pandemic caused a severe global economic downturn, leading to reduced demand for oil. Lockdown measures, travel restrictions, and reduced industrial activities significantly impacted transportation and energy consumption, causing a sharp decline in oil demand.

Secondly, a price war between major oil-producing countries exacerbated the situation. Saudi Arabia and Russia engaged in a dispute over market share and opted to increase their oil production, flooding the market with excess supply. This led to a significant oversupply of oil, further pressuring prices downward.

Lastly, the combination of reduced demand and oversupply led to storage constraints. With storage facilities filling up rapidly, concerns arose about the ability to accommodate excess oil production. This added to the downward pressure on prices as market participants feared a lack of storage capacity, leading to forced shutdowns and production cuts.

The convergence of these factors resulted in a highly unfavorable outlook for oil prices in April 2020, prompting a sharp decline in future contracts. The negative sentiment surrounding the oil market reflected the unprecedented challenges faced by the industry, with the COVID-19 pandemic and the price war compounding the downward pressure on oil prices.

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Completion Status: QUESTION 3 Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by companies and/or the government. II. Repurchase agreements have a very liquid secondary market. OI only Oll only O Both I and II O Neither I nor II

Answers

The correct statement is: Neither I nor II.

The first statement is incorrect. Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government, not companies. They are considered low-risk investments.

The second statement is also incorrect. Repurchase agreements, or repos, are financial transactions where a party sells securities to another party with an agreement to repurchase them at a later date. While repos can be relatively liquid investments, the secondary market for repos is generally less liquid compared to other financial instruments like stocks or bonds.

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An individual makes five annual deposits of $2,000 in a savings account that pays interest at a rate of 4% per year. One year after making the last deposit, the interest rate changes to 6% per year. Five years after the last deposit, the accumulated money is withdrawn from the account. How much is withdrawn?

Answers

The amount withdrawn after 5 years is $5,265.42. To calculate the withdrawal, we will calculate the accumulated value of 5 deposits at 4% per annum and at 6% per annum in two parts.

PART 1: When the interest rate is 4% per annumFormula: A = P (1+r/n)^ntGiven:P = $2,000r = 4% = 0.04n = 1t = 5 yearsUsing the formula;A = $2,000 (1+0.04/1)^(1*5)A = $2,000 (1+0.04)^5A = $2,000 (1.2167)A = $2,433.40Therefore, the accumulated value of 5 deposits at 4% per annum after 5 years is $2,433.40.

PART 2: When the interest rate is 6% per annumFormula: A = P (1+r/n)^ntGiven:P = $2,000r = 6% = 0.06n = 1t = 5 yearsUsing the formula;A = $2,000 (1+0.06/1)^(1*5)A = $2,000 (1+0.06)^5A = $2,832.02Therefore, the accumulated value of 5 deposits at 6% per annum after 5 years is $2,832.02.To calculate the total amount withdrawn, add the two parts together$2,433.40 + $2,832.02 = $5,265.42.

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Question 4 The Forming stage of Tuckman's model is classified by: O The team having a high degree of autonomy. O High dependence on the leader for guidance and direction. O Roles and responsibilities

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Question 4: The Forming stage of Tuckman's model is classified by roles and responsibilities.The Forming stage of Tuckman's model is characterized by high dependence on the leader for guidance and direction, as well as a high degree of autonomy. Roles and responsibilities are crucial at this stage.

The leader's roles and responsibilities may include explaining the team's purpose, goals, and vision. This is an opportunity for team members to get to know one another, exchange information, and establish relationships.Team members will have a clearer understanding of their roles and responsibilities as a result of this stage, which will help them to avoid confusion and chaos when performing their duties. Team members may begin to explore their own roles and responsibilities, as well as how they can contribute to the team's success, as they gain a better understanding of the team's purpose, goals, and vision.The forming stage is an exciting and important stage of the team development process, and establishing roles and responsibilities during this phase is critical to success. It lays the groundwork for the team's progress in the following stages of development.

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You have the data of Al Saad Al-Qahtani Industrial Company, which uses the production order costs system and indirect industrial costs are allocated on the basis of 70% of the cost of direct materials (for the current year and the previous year), and at the end of the year a summary of the production orders for the company appeared as follows (all amounts in riyals):
Command No.
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
Total
Balance first period
8,400
4,600
9,700
2,300
-
-
-
-
-
-
Direct Material Cost
10,400
9,100
6,500
19,400
5,600
7,000
2,800
8,600
14,100
9,000
Direct wage cost
3,600
10,400
7,500
5,600
9,800
4,900
9,800
3,200
10,200
7,200
Incremental (indirect) estimated costs
Total
Completion of this table is required
The balances at the beginning of the period represent the cost of production orders that are still in operation (in production) from the last year. The current period of purchases of materials were as follows:
- Direct material purchases during the period 450,000 riyals.
Indirect material purchases during the period 540,000 riyals.
The actual indirect industrial costs incurred by the company during the current period are as follows:
- Supervisors' wages: 300,000 riyals.
- Indirect tasks and materials: 320,600 riyals.
- Electricity and energy: 63,900 riyals.
- Depreciation of machinery and factory equipment: 40,400 riyals.
- Consumption of factory buildings: 55.700 riyals.
- Factory machinery maintenance: 98,200 riyals.
- Total: ________________ riyals.
- At the end of the period, the following production orders were completed: Order: 101, 102, 104, 105, 109
Also, during the period the following production commands were delivered to customers at a selling price of 220% of production cost:
command: 101, 104, 105.
The following production commands are still in full production warehouse
command: 102, 109.
The orders still in operation at the end of the period were:
command: 100, 103, 106, 107, 1084
- Required:
Complete summary of previous productivity commands.
Performing daily entries for previous operations with determining the allocation differences by increase or decrease and closing the differences in calculating the cost of goods sold.
Copying the control accounts (ledger) and determining the end-of-period balance for each account.
Preparing the income statement and determining the company's net income.

Answers

To complete the summary of previous production orders, we need to calculate the incremental (indirect) estimated costs for each command.

Since the indirect costs are allocated based on 70% of the cost of direct materials, we can calculate the indirect costs for each command using the following formula: Indirect Costs = 70% * Direct Material Cost. The control accounts (ledger) should be copied from the previous period, and the end-of-period balance for each account should be determined by considering the previous balance and the daily entries. The cost of goods sold can be calculated by summing up the costs of the completed production orders and deducting it from the total cost of production orders. Finally, the income statement can be prepared by deducting the cost of goods sold from the total revenue generated from the delivered production commands, and the company's net income can be determined by subtracting the total expenses from the total revenue.

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Which of these traits are not practiced by both Scrum and Kanban teams? Self-organizing Pull scheduling O Attending Daily Standup meetings O Limiting multitasking

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Scrum and Kanban are two popular Agile frameworks used in software development. They have different methodologies, which leads to differences in some of their core practices.

Both Scrum and Kanban have certain traits in common, and others that differ. This leads us to the question, which of these traits are not practiced by both Scrum and Kanban teams? The following are the traits that are not practiced by both Scrum and Kanban teams: Limited MultitaskingKanban doesn't have a limit on multitasking. It does, however, recommend that teams limit their Work in Progress (WIP). This is done to optimize workflow and increase productivity. In Scrum, multitasking is prohibited. The development team can only work on one task at a time. This approach allows them to focus on a specific task and complete it before moving on to the next. This results in a high-quality product. Pull scheduling Kanban boards use a pull scheduling system. They don't rely on predetermined sprints, unlike Scrum. This enables Kanban teams to work on tasks as they become available and based on the priorities. As a result, they can maintain a steady flow of work, which leads to faster delivery times.

On the other hand, Scrum uses a push scheduling system. This system requires the development team to work on tasks during the sprint cycle. The team can't make any changes during the sprint cycle, which could result in delays. Self-organizing. Both Kanban and Scrum teams are self-organizing. Kanban teams are more flexible in their approach to self-organizing. They rely on the team to determine the best way to complete their tasks. Scrum teams, on the other hand, are more structured. The Scrum Master oversees the development team's progress and ensures that they adhere to the Scrum framework. This helps them to stay focused on their goals. Attending Daily Standup meetings Both Scrum and Kanban teams attend daily standup meetings.

During these meetings, team members discuss the progress of their tasks and identify any issues that need to be addressed. Kanban teams, on the other hand, don't require daily standup meetings. They hold them as needed. Scrum teams, however, must hold daily standup meetings. This ensures that the development team stays on track and focuses on the sprint's objectives.

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All of these explain a change in long-run aggregate supply EXCEPT: changes in government spending increases in the economy. Information technology (IT) can boost efficiency in nearly everything: Markets are more efficient, an demand and aggregate supply curves of the economy be is little IT improves the design, manufacture, and supply chain of products produced. How would the impact of IT on the aggregate represented? O The long-run aggregate supply curve would shift to the right. e The long-run aggregate supply curve would shift to the left. O The aggregate demand curve would shift to the right O The aggregate demand curve would shift to the left shift of the curves. which of these s is true about shifts in aggregate demand and short-run aggregate supply) O If aggregate demand shifts left, the result will be a higher price level. O If aggregate supply shifts left, the result will be a lower price level. O If aggregate demand shifts left, the result will be a lower price level. O If aggregate supply shifts left, the result will be that the price level will not change. O Cost-push inflation causes a decline in output, an increase in price level, and an increase in unemployment During cost-push inflation, output increases and the price level decreases making it hard for producers to make money. Policymakers only have to increase aggregate demand to reduce inflation.

Answers

The impact of IT on the aggregate is that the- A.  long-run aggregate supply curve would shift to the right.

What is  the reason?

In the given scenario, all of these explain a change in long-run aggregate supply except for changes in government spending and increases in the economy.

Information Technology (IT) has made everything more efficient. It is no exception in the field of economics. It boosts the economy's efficiency in everything. Markets become more efficient, and the demand and aggregate supply curves of the economy become little. IT improves the design, manufacture, and supply chain of products produced.The impact of IT on the aggregate would be that the long-run aggregate supply curve would shift to the right.

IT makes it easier to manufacture products, improves supply chain logistics, and makes markets more efficient. It causes an increase in the economy's productivity, which shifts the long-run aggregate supply curve to the right.Shifts in aggregate demand and short-run aggregate supplyIf aggregate demand shifts left, the result will be a lower price level. On the other hand, if aggregate supply shifts left, the result will be a higher price level.

Cost-push inflation causes a decline in output, an increase in the price level, and an increase in unemployment. During cost-push inflation, output decreases, and the price level increases.

Making it difficult for producers to make money. Policymakers need to increase aggregate demand to reduce inflation.

Hence, option a. is correct.

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When a company obtains the rights to use the intangible asset previously created by another firm for a fee. This is an example of ________.
a. multibranding
b. positioning
c. co-branding
d. licensing
e. None of the above

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When a company obtains the rights to use an intangible asset previously created by another firm for a fee, it is an example of licensing (option d).

Licensing allows a company to access and utilize intangible assets, such as trademarks, patents, or copyrights, owned by another entity. Licensing refers to a contractual agreement between two parties, where the owner of an intangible asset grants permission to another company to use that asset in exchange for a fee or royalty payment. This arrangement allows the licensee (the company obtaining the rights) to benefit from the use of the intangible asset without having to create or develop it from scratch. By licensing an intangible asset, a company can leverage the existing reputation, brand recognition, technology, or other valuable intellectual property owned by another firm. This can provide several advantages, such as expanding product offerings, entering new markets, or enhancing the competitiveness of the licensee's products or services. It is a mutually beneficial arrangement where the licensor generates revenue from licensing fees, while the licensee gains access to valuable intangible assets without the need for significant investment in research, development, or brand building.

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Consider the continuous investment model in which investment I yields re- turn R(I) = 25√I in the case of success, and 0 in the case of failure. The 1 entrepreneur has cash A. The probability of success is pH = 4/5 if the entre- preneur behaves and PL = PH - Ap= 2/5 if he misbehaves. The entrepreneur obtains private benefit B = 3/5 per unit of investment if he misbehaves and 0 otherwise. Let I* denote the level of investment that maximises total surplus: PH R'(I) = 1. 1. Write down the entrepreneur's optimisation problem. 2. Find the minimum level of wealth that allows the entrepreneur to carry out the first-best level of investment, I*, A (I*). 3. Write down the condition that allows to determine the second best level of I. Solve for I (A). 4. Find the optimal level of investment when A= 10 and when A= 30. 5. Find the sensitivity of the gross utility to the level of assets.

Answers

1. The entrepreneur's optimization problem is to choose the level of investment I.

2. The minimum level of wealth that allows the entrepreneur to carry out the first-best level of investment,

I*, A(I*) is A ≥ 100/3.

3. pL R'(I) = PH R'(I*) - B. Upon solving for I(A), we get the equation: I(A) = (2/3A + 10)².

4. Optimal level of investment when A = 30: I(30) = (2/3(30) + 10)² = 56.76.

5. dU/dA = 5√I* + (20/√I*)(4/3A + 10) - (4/9)(2/3A + 10) = 0.

Here are the explanations:

1. The entrepreneur's optimization problem is to choose the level of investment I, so as to maximize their net benefit, which is the total surplus of investment returns and the cost of investment, as well as the private benefit from the failure case.

2. The minimum level of wealth that allows the entrepreneur to carry out the first-best level of investment,

I*, A(I*) is A ≥ 100/3.

3. The condition that allows determining the second-best level of I is given as

pL R'(I) = PH R'(I*) - B. Upon solving for I(A), we get the equation: I(A) = (2/3A + 10)².

4. Optimal level of investment when A = 10: I(10) = (2/3(10) + 10)² = 21.78.

Optimal level of investment when A = 30: I(30) = (2/3(30) + 10)² = 56.76.

5. The sensitivity of the gross utility to the level of assets is given by the formula:

dU/dA = R(I*) - I*(dR/dI)|I=I* + (dI/dA)|I=I*(pH - pL).

Substituting values, we get:

dU/dA = 5√I* + (20/√I*)(4/3A + 10) - (4/9)(2/3A + 10) = 0.

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QUESTION 12 1 POINT If people store their cash in safe-deposit boxes or in shoeboxes hidden in their closets, then Select the correct answer below: money supply expansion is limited money supply expansion is unchanged money supply expansion increases none of the above

Answers

Storing cash in safe-deposit boxes or hidden shoeboxes does not affect money supply expansion.

Money supply refers to the total amount of money in circulation in an economy. If individuals store their cash in safe-deposit boxes or hidden shoeboxes, it does not impact the overall money supply. The money remains out of circulation and is not available for lending or spending. Therefore, the act of storing cash in these ways does not contribute to money supply expansion. The money supply expansion is determined by factors such as central bank policies, commercial bank lending, and government spending.

Since the money is not actively circulating in the economy, it does not contribute to the expansion of the money supply. The money supply remains unchanged because the cash is essentially dormant and not being used as a medium of exchange.

However, it's important to note that the overall money supply can still be influenced by other factors, such as central bank policies, commercial bank lending, and government spending. The money supply is a complex concept affected by various factors, and individual actions of storing cash in safe-deposit boxes or shoeboxes have a limited impact on its expansion.

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