Answer:
B
Explanation:
Whether the object is travelling toward or away from us for PLATO.
Answer:
b whether the object is traveling toward or away from us
Explanation:
i just got the answer right on the test
how do birds the ant seen here reproduce
When salt is dissolved in water, the water is the
solute
solvent
solution
Answer:
solution
yeyeyeyeyeyeyeyyeeyeyyeyeye
There are many reasons why all humans do not perceive sounds similarly in our environment, including adaptation, hearing loss and/or deafness.
For 2A-2D, first determine whether the scenario is an example of sensory adaptation, conduction deafness, sensorineural deafness, and/or central deafness.
Second, for the scenarios that are examples of deafness, explain briefly how the scenario leads to deafness (i.e., how does the scenario alter normal auditory processing). If you have selected sensory adaptation as an answer, explain briefly why the scenario does not fall under the categorization of deafness. Use your own words to briefly explain - simply listing definitions is not sufficient. (2.5 points each for matching, 5 points each for correct justification)
2A. Listening to excessive loud noises everyday over years that causes loss of stereocilia
2B. Hearing construction outside when it first begins, but no longer noticing the sound minutes later
2C. Difficulty understanding speech, but no damage to ears or ability to understand nonverbal sounds
2D. A hole in the tympanic membrane caused by an ear infection
Answer: 2A Sensorineural deafness
2B Sensory adaptation
2C Central deafness
2D Conductive deafness
Explanation: The human ear is divided into 3 parts:
Outer Ear: auricle, ear canal and tympanic membrane;Middle Ear: eardrum, tympanic cavity and ossicles (malleus, incus and stapes);Inner Ear: oval window, semicircular ducts (attached to cochlea and nerves), cochlea and auditory tube;The Sensorineural deafness is a type of deafness caused by a damage in the inner ear, either the cochlea or the auditory nerve. It can happen because of medicine toxicity, exposure to noise along the years etc.
So, from the scenarios above, 2A is consistent with sensorineural deafness since stereocilia are hair cells of inner ear.
Sensory adaptation is a phenomenom that happens when an individual's sensory receptors is exposed to a stimuli for a prolonged period of time. For example, the situation described in 2B. It is not considered deafness because it is not caused by a damage in any part of the ear.
Central deafness is a very rare case of deafness. The damage in this type of deafness is in the brain and not in any of the 3 parts of the ear. That's why the scenario in 2C is the example of this.
Conductive deafness is the second most common type of ear problem and it occurs in the outer ear. One of the causes is blockage in the ear canal by the ear wax, external bodies, osteomas (bone growth) or otitis (oute ear infection). An example of this type of deafness is scenario 2D.
4. Which of the following statements BEST explains why you can hear noises
long distances at night?
A. There are fewer other noises at night.
B. Water conducts sound better at night.
C. Sound bounces off water better at night.
D. Sound waves are bent towards the cool air.
i guess its answer is option D
what is thesaurus and online resources?
Answer:
thesaurus is a book that is filled with all types of synonyms for words
synonyms are words that are different but same in meaning
eg: yummy
another word for yummy is delicious
so delicious is a synonym that is included in the book named thesaurus
hope it helps
; )
Explanation:
Giving brainliest:)
The part of the cell that is like your brain and gives instructions to the cell is
A.nucleus
B.protoplasm
C.membrane
D.fat cells
Help please
4. The top part A of the flask-shaped reproductive organ X in the flower of a plant secretes a surgery substance
into its lower part B which goes towards the bottom part of the flask-shaped organ. When a tiny grain D
coming from the top part E of another reproductive organ Y in the flower falls on part A, it grows a long
tube F through the organ X in response to the sugary substance and reaches the bottom part C of flask-
shaped organ to carry out fertilisation.
(a) What is (i) organ X, and (ii) organ Y, inside the flower ?
(b) Name parts (1) A (ii) B, and (iii) C, of flask-shaped organ.
(c) Name (i) grain D, and (ii) part E of organ Y.
(d) Name the tube F.
(e) What is the phenomenon of growing a long tube in response to a sugary substance in the process of
fertilisation in a flower known as ?
Answer:
X- pistil
Y- stamen
A-stigma
B-style
C-ovary
D- pollen grain
E- anther
F- pollen tube
I will mark brainlisest just please HELPPPPPPP
which of the following are Vertebrates?
Worms
Answer:
a vertebrate is an animal with spinal cord surrounded by cartilage or bone
Explanation:
fishes,whales,sharks
amphibians
reptiles
birds
mammals
If the pride is taken over by a new individual what happens to the females? Males? Cubs?
Answer: When a new male coalition first takes over a pride, the cubs represent a major impediment to their reproduction. Mothers of surviving cubs will not mate again until their offspring are at least 18 months of age but will mate within days if their cubs are lost.
Explanation:
True or False: Larger pigments will travel a greater distance on filter paper than smaller pigments.
Answer:
true true true true
true true
Answer:
I think the answer is true
Explanation:
A pigment that is the most soluble will travel the greatest distance and a pigment that is less soluble will move a shorter distance.
Circle the word that best completes the statement about cell theory.
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of organelles / cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living dead cells.
111. The atom cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology / chemistry.
MAIN IDEA: Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and most internal structures of
eukaryotic cells.
Question reformatted:
Circle the word that best completes the statement about cell theory.
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of organelles / cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living / dead cells.
iii. The atom / cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology / chemistry
Answer:
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living cells.
iii. The cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology
Explanation:
Cell theory is one of the central theories of biology and is universally accepted. It states that all organisms are cellular - that is they are made of cells. It also states that all living things come from other living cells (not spontaneously, or from dead cells). The cell is the most basic unit of life, organisms can be unicellular, but no living thing is 'less' than that.
1. The increase in the reproductive success of a species will have the greatest impact on
the-
Answer:
The increase in the reproductive success of a species will have the greatest impact on the prey of the animal.
Explanation:
The prey's population will decrease because there are more animals needing it to survive.
Why are stem cells important to multicellular organisms?
Answer:The fabulous ability of an embryo to diversify and of certain adult tissues to regenerate throughout life is a direct result of stem cells, nature's gift to multicellular organisms.
Explanation:
what are catabolic reactions
Answer:
which complex molecules are broken down to simpler components, are classified as catabolic reactions. Taken as a group of reactions within a cell or even an organism, they can be referred to as the cell's or organism's anabolism or catabolism.
Explanation:
environmental science aim to solve problems such as the extinction of a specific animal or plant species and deal with important issues such as
Answer:
Explanation:
amino acid structure: the only part of the amino acid structure that varies between the amino acids and makes each type unique is
Answer:
The side groups are what make each amino acid different from the others. Of the 20 side groups used to make proteins, there are two main groups: polar and non-polar. These names refer to the way the side groups, sometimes called "R" groups, interact with the environment.
Explanation:
Which answer best explains how most scientists think that planets form? A. Large chunks of matter break off a star that collides with another star; these chunks then become planets orbiting the star. B. Large chunks of matter break off a planet that collides with a smaller body; these chunks gradually clump together to become a new planet. C. A rotating cloud of space dust and gases begins to flatten and condense, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets. D. A rotating cloud of space dust and gases begins to condense, forming a protoplanet; if the protoplanet is massive enough, its gravity will attract nearby matter until the protoplanet becomes large and round enough to be considered a planet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Thats what the teacher told me
The scientists believe that planets form when a rotating cloud of space dust and gases flattens and condenses, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets, as described in Option C, also known as the "nebular hypothesis."
What is the nebular hypothesis?The nebular hypothesis is the most widely accepted scientific theory for the planetary systems, such that the solar system and, as per this theory, a cloud of gas and dust, called a nebula, collapse due to gravitational forces; the nebula contracts, and it rotates faster, flattening into a disk, which eventually cools and condenses, forming a protoplanetary disk.
Hence, the scientists believe that planets form when a rotating cloud of space dust and gases flattens and condenses, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets, as described in Option C, also known as the "nebular hypothesis."
Learn more about the nebular hypothesis here.
https://brainly.com/question/27986174
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If a red-eye female fly is crossed with a red-eye male fly, could they produce offspring with white eyes? Briefly explain your answer. Your answer must include a Punnett square that proves your answer.
If the red-eye parents are homozygous, no. But if the red-eye parents are heterozygous, yes.
Monohybrid crossingWe are assuming that the red-eye trait is dominant over the white-eye trait. If two red-eye parents are crossed with one another, whether they could produce white-eye offspring would depend on the zygosity level of the parents.
Assuming that red-eye is R and white-eye is r. If the two parents are homozygous red-eyed, their genotypes would be RR. Crossing the two:
RR x RR
RR RR RR RR
All the offsprings would be RR and there is a zero chance of producing a white-eye offspring.
Now, assuming that the two parents are heterozygous:
Rr x Rr
RR Rr Rr rr
Both RR and Rr are red-eyed while rr is white-eyed. The Punnet's square for the cross can be found in the attached image.
In other words, it will only be possible for the two red-eye parents to produce white-eye offspring if they are both heterozygous. Any other genotype will give a zero chance of white-eye offspring.
More on monohybrid crossing can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/15314052
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Which letter marks the zone of inhibition?
Answer:
A. B
Explanation:
"B" as labelled in the above is the zone of inhibition.
The Zone of Inhibition is actually a test which is used to assess antimicrobial activities of a material or solution in relation to an micro-organism as a target. It is also known as Kirby-Bauer Test. It measures the antibiotic resistance and also used to inhibit microbial growth.
At the Point B, microbes can not grow in there; they are inhibited.
In the test, if bacterial strain or any other strain is susceptible to the antimicrobial agent, a zone of inhibition appears. If it shows resistance to that agent, then no zone is evidential.
Justify your answer.Your cousin tells you that trees have leaves to protect the tree from sun damage, just like a natural umbrella. Do you agree? Justify your answer.
Answer:
no
Explanation:
trees need sunlight to grow the leaves that is on the tree
DATA ANALYSIS
% OF CELLS IN EACH PHASE OF THE CELL CYCLE
90
30
20
GO
30
40
30
20
10
INTERPHASE
PROPHASE
METAPHASE
ANAPHASE
TILOPHASE CTO NESS
Image or Sketch
Description
Interphase
Prophase
Answer:
A __________________ is a place holder or object where you can store a value or piece of data named by you
In which phases is chromatin condensed?
Answer:
In stage 2
Explanation:
During interphase (1), chromatin is in its least condensed state and appears loosely distributed throughout the nucleus. Chromatin condensation begins during prophase (2) and chromosomes become visible. Chromosomes remain condensed throughout the various stages of mitosis (2-5).
How does a cell deal with the buildup of hydrogen peroxide?
Answer:
They actually have a protein that breaks it down into harmless components: water and oxygen. Enzymes are proteins that speed up the rate of reactions, and there is a particular enzyme that can help break down hydrogen peroxide.
Which evidence from the Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material
Answer:
The evidence from the Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not was as result of some analysis in which it was discovered that Protein contains sulfur and DNA does not.
This was what led to the use of radioactive phosphorus and radioactive sulfur in self-identification.
When ATP is hydrolyzed, are you adding water or removing it? Explain 20 points I’ll do brainlest too
Answer:
Are there answers
Explanation:
Answer:
adding water
Explanation:
hydrolysis means adding water to it
Identify the types of genetic recombination.
occurs in metaphase I.
occurs during sexual reproduction.
Mis random chromosome alignment resulting in variation.
occurs in prophase I.
fuses gametes to form offspring with genes from each pare
exchanges genetic information between non-sister chromat
DONE
Answer:
independent assortment
fertilization
independent assortment
crossing over
fertilization
crossing over
Explanation:
RIGHT ON EDGE 2020
Mining companies bring workers from different places. This increases business in the town nearest to the mine.
Which type of impact is being described in this scenario?
A)
atmospheric impact
B)
biological impact
C)
ecosystem impact
D)
social impact
E)
topographic impact
Answer:
I believe this is C) ecosystem impact
Explanation:
The interactions between human population dynamics and the environment have often been viewed mechanistically. This review elucidates the complexities and contextual specificities of population-environment relationships in a number of domains. It explores the ways in which demographers and other social scientists have sought to understand the relationships among a full range of population dynamics (e.g., population size, growth, density, age and sex composition, migration, urbanization, vital rates) and environmental changes. The chapter briefly reviews a number of the theories for understanding population and the environment and then proceeds to provide a state-of-the-art review of studies that have examined population dynamics and their relationship to five environmental issue areas. The review concludes by relating population-environment research to emerging work on human-environment systems.
What organelle is attached to the Rough ER
Answer:
Ribosomes
Explanation:
Answer:
The ribosomes.
Explanation: