Find the value of the variable(s). (9x + 12) 3x (4y - 10)​

Answer:

65,994.52 Nepalese Rupee

Step-by-step explanation:

using conversion rate 1 usd = 119.74 nepalese rupee

553*119.74

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Explanation:

It is a function because any x input leads to exactly one y output. The graph visually passes the vertical line test. It is impossible to draw a single vertical line through more than one point on the cubic curve, so that's why the graph passes the test, and visually confirms we have a function.

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Extra info:

Something that isn't a function is [tex]y^2 = x[/tex] because it graphs a sideways parabola in which it is possible to draw a vertical line through more than one point on the curve. Two points on this parabola are (9, 3) and (9, -3). The input x = 9 corresponds to more than one output y = 3 and y = -3 simultaneously.

Answer:

Answer for this is 62 * 2 = 126

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

14×9=126

Step-by-step explanation:

how do you explain it lol

Answer:

simply

addition property of equality

simplify

multiplication property of equality

Answer:

v = -54

Step-by-step explanation:

27= -v/2

Multiply each side by -2

27 *-2= -v/2 *-2

-54 = v

Answer:

-54

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]27=\frac{-v}{2}[/tex] .... Equation to start with

[tex]27 x 2= \frac{-v}{2} x2[/tex] ..... Cancelling out the denominator and multiplying on the other side

[tex]54 = -v[/tex] .... Multipling

[tex]-54 =v[/tex] ..... Solving for v, not -v, so bring the negative over to the other side

Hope you understood:)

Step-by-step explanation:

come on ! this is so simple. with just a tiny little bit of thinking you get this yourself.

1 inch = 50 miles.

so, how many miles are then 2 inches ? hmmm ?

could it be that it is just 2×1 inch = 2×50 miles ?

yes ! it is that simple !

2×50 = 100 miles.

and so, how many miles are 3 inches ?

uuuuuhhhh !

what do you think ?

3×1 inch = 3×50 miles

yeah !

3×50 = 150 miles !

yes, so simple, so easy.

this is like the old questions like "every child gets 2 pieces of candy. there are 6 children. how many pieces of candy do we need ?"

Answer: the answer to your question is 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.035m = 22.40

Answer:

it's the third one.

Step-by-step explanation:

It should be a bold/filled circle on the line instead of an empty one.

Answer:

f(x) = 4x² + 48x + 149

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 4(x + 6)² + 5

The above expression can be written as: f(x) = ax² + bx + c, by doing the following:

1. Expand (x + 6)²

(x + 6)² = (x + 6)(x + 6)

(x + 6)(x + 6)

x(x + 6) + 6(x +6)

x² + 6x + 6x + 36

x² + 12x + 36

(x + 6)² = x² + 12x + 36

2. Substitute x² + 12x + 36 for (x + 6)² in

f(x) = 4(x + 6)² + 5

This is illustrated below:

f(x) = 4(x + 6)² + 5

(x + 6)² = x² + 12x + 36

f(x) = 4(x² + 12x + 36) + 5

Clear bracket

f(x) = 4x² + 48x + 144 + 5

f(x) = 4x² + 48x + 149

Therefore, the standard of the function:

f(x) = 4(x + 6)² + 5

is

f(x) = 4x² + 48x + 149

Answer:

1)He will use 144 squares in his design

2)He will use 36 squares in his design

Step-by-step explanation:

1) There is 12 squares going horizontally and 12 squares going vertically meaning the total amount of squares needed is:

12 x 12 = 144 inch squares

2) If he wants to cover a smaller box that is 1/2 feet big than he would take the square of 1/2 which is 1/4 and multiple it to the original answer to get the answer of the new question

144 x (1/4) = 36 inch squares

Answer:

The Answer should be 6%

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

MP =1500 and Discount =10%

So, SP = 1500 × 90% =1350

We know, profit = [tex]\frac{sp-cp}{cp}[/tex] × 100%

               =>20 =[tex]\frac{1350-cp}{cp}[/tex] × 100

               =>CP = 1125

Now, if profit =12%

then, SP' = 1260 ;(using previous equation for profit and CP=1125)

So, SP' = MP × (100 -Discount )

∴ Discount = 16% ;(SP' = 1260 and MP = 1500)

So, Discount should be increased = 16% - 10% = 6%

Pls mark this as the brainliest

Answer:

a = 0, i, -i, 1, -1

Step-by-step explanation:

What we're basically looking for here is a number, that when multiplied by itself any amount of times, will get us with the same number.

We know that 0 times and number will be 0, so 0 works.

1 times any number will be 1, and -1 would also work as -1² = 1.

i would also work as it represents the square root of a negative, and -i would also work.

Hope this helped!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The daily charge will be 17x for x days of rental. Added to the flat rate, the total becomes ...

  y = 130 +17x

__

For 9 days, the cost is ..

  y = 130 +17·9 = 130 +153 = 283 . . . . dollars charge for 9 days

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Because 12/18 = 2/3..(cancel 12 and 18 by 6)

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

2x6=12

3x6=18

6 is the multiplying number

( the 2 equations are the same amount )

Answer:

C. -2(-2)

Step-by-step explanation:

A. -2(-1/5) = 1

B. -2(1/2)=1

C. -2(-2)=4

D. -2(2)=-4

Answer:

Does the answer help you?

Answer:

102 cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of R1:

length = 7 cm

Width = 3 cm

Height = 2 cm

Volume = 7* 3  * 2 = 42 cm³

Volume of R2:

length = 5 cm

Width = 4 cm

Height = 3 cm

Volume = 5 * 4 * 3=  60 cm³

Volume of the figure = 42 + 60 =  102 cm³

Answer:

x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

1 - x = 16 - 4x

Rearrange :

-x +4x = 16 - 1

3x = 15

x = 5.

Hence, there is one solution : {5}

Answer:

x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

1-x=16-4x

-1 -1

-x=15-4x

+4x. +4x

3x=15

/3. /3

x=5

Answer:

6.9263 × 109

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

76 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let as consider O is the center of the circle . So from the figure it is clear that

[tex]\angle AOB=44^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]\angle COD=118^{\circ}[/tex]

By central angle theorem, central angle subtended by an arc is twice of inscribed angle of the same arc.

We know that, [tex]\angle BAD=97^{\circ}[/tex] and angle BOD is the central angle subtended by arc BD.

[tex]\angle BOD=2\times \angle BAD[/tex]

[tex]\angle BOD=2\times 97^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]\angle BOD=194^{\circ}[/tex]

Now,

[tex]\angle BOD=\angle BOC+\angle COD[/tex]

[tex]194^{\circ}=\angle BOC+118^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]194^{\circ}-118^{\circ}=\angle BOC[/tex]

[tex]76^{\circ}=\angle BOC[/tex]

[tex]m(arc(BC))=76^{\circ}[/tex]

Therefore, the measure of arc BC is 76 degrees.

Answer:

(8)

(9)

(10)

(11)

(12)

Answer:

[tex]$\frac{5\sqrt{2} }{2}$[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x: \text{opposite side of the angle of 45\º}[/tex]

[tex]5: \text{hypotenuse of the right triangle}[/tex]

[tex]$\sin(\theta)=\frac{\text{opp}}{\text{hyp}} \Rightarrow \sin(45\º)=\frac{x}{5} $[/tex]

[tex]$\text{Once }\sin(45\º)=\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2} $[/tex]

[tex]$\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2} =\frac{x}{5} \Rightarrow 2x=5\sqrt{2} \Rightarrow x=\frac{5\sqrt{2} }{2} $[/tex]

You can just remember that 5 is the diagonal of a square of side length x.

[tex]$5=x\sqrt{2} \Rightarrow x=\frac{5}{\sqrt{2} } \Rightarrow x=\frac{5}{\sqrt{2} } \cdot \frac{\sqrt{2} }{\sqrt{2} } = \frac{5\sqrt{2} }{2} $[/tex]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

The secant- tangent angle b is half the difference of the measures of the intercepted arcs , then

b = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ( 180 - 35) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 145° = 72.5° → B

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:none

Answer: $648

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

area of the full piece of pie. π(8)²*60/360 (we know 60°, because it's an equilateral triangle)

32π/3

now subtract the area of the triangle

1/2(8)(4√3) = 16√3

32π/3 - 16√3

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The opposite faces of the prism are congruent , then

SA = areas of (top/bottom + front/ back + 2 sides )

     = 2(19 × 16) + 2(19 × 10) + 2(16 × 10)

     = 2(304) + 2(190) + 2(160)

     = 608 + 380 + 320

     = 1308 m² → D

The total Surface Area is 1308 m²

The total area occupied by the surfaces of an object is called its surface area. In geometry, different 3D shapes have different surface areas which can be easily calculated using the formulas that we will be learning in this article. The surface area is classified into two categories:

The total surface area of a prism = Lateral surface area of prism + area of the two bases = (2 × Base Area) + Lateral surface area = (2 × Base Area) + (Base perimeter × height).

SA = areas of (top/bottom + front/ back + 2 sides )

= 2(19 × 16) + 2(19 × 10) + 2(16 × 10)

= 2(304) + 2(190) + 2(160)

= 608 + 380 + 320

= 1308 m²

Learn more about total surface area is :

https://brainly.com/question/8419462

#SPJ2

Answer:

Here's what I get  

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Net of a cube

Fig. 1 is the net of a cube  

b. Does the formula work?

Tony's formula works if you ignore dimensions.

There are six squares in the net of a cube.

If each side has a unit length s, the total area of the cube is 6s.

c. Will the formula work for any rectangular prism?

No, because a rectangular prism has sides of three different lengths — l, w, and h — as in Fig. 2.

d. Area of a rectangular prism

A rectangular prism has six faces.

A top (T) and a bottom (b) — A = 2×l×w

A left (L) and a right (R)    —   A = 2×l×h

A front (F) and a back (B) —   A = 2×w×h

                                  Total area = 2lw + 2lh + 2wh

If l = 5 m, w = 6 m and h = 8 m,

[tex]\begin{array}{rl}A &=& \text{2$\times$ 5 m $\times$ 6 m + 2$\times$ 5 m $\times$ 8 m + 2 $\times$ 6 m $\times$ 8 m}\\&=& \text{60 m}^{2} + \text{80 m}^{2} + \text{96 m}^{2}\\&=& \textbf{236 m}^{2}\\\end{array}[/tex]

Answer:

f(x) = (x + 6)(x + 6)

f(x)=0

x+6=0 ⇒ x=-6

Set (x+6)(x+6) equal to zero and solve each equation for x. We really only have one equation and it would be x+6 = 0 which solves to x = -6.

Plug x = -6 into f(x) and you would get f(x) = 0.

Answer:

e =1

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]16-3e=\frac{7}{5} e +11.6\\4.4-3e=\frac{7}{5}e\\4.4=\frac{22}{5} e\\22=22e\\1=e[/tex]