Fill in the blanks with amino acids names
A gene contains a mutation in which a cytosine nucleotide (C) has bee replaced by an adenine nucleotide (A)
This mutation leads to the production of a dysfunctional protein, because a (BLANK) amino acid has been replaced by a (BLANK) amino acid.
Answers
Missense mutations replace a base by another one, leading the codon to codify for another amino acid, aletirng the protein's function. This mutation leads to the production of a dysfunctional protein, because a Cysteine amino acid has been replaced by a Phenylalanine amino acid.
What is a missense mutation?When a change occurs in a codon affecting a single base pair, it is known as a point mutation.
Points mutations might be either silent, missense, or nonsense.
A missense mutation is the point mutation that changes a DNA base by another one, and causes the mRNA codon to code for a different amino acid.
The mutation that replaces a single base for another one might have different consequences concerning the substitution site and changes in the physical structure of the protein.
For instance, if the substitution occurs near the protein active site, the polypeptide function might be severely affected.
In the exposed example, a cytosine nucleotide (C) has bee replaced by an adenine nucleotide (A).
Original sequence → ATG TTA AGG ACG GAT mRNA → UAC AAU UCC UGC CUA Protein → Tyr Asn Ser Cys LeuMutated sequence → ATG TTA AGG AAG GAT mRNA → UAC AAU UCC UUC CUA Protein → Tyr Asn Ser Phe Leu
This mutation leads to the production of a dysfunctional protein, because a Cysteine amino acid has been replaced by a Phenylalanine amino acid.
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Related Questions
In prokaryotic cells, regulator proteins bind to a section of DNA called a/anA)chromatinB)repressor***C)promoterD)operon
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In prokaryotic cells, regulator proteins bind to a section of DNA called the C)promoter.
A protein known as a repressor binds to an operator site. The operator in this instance (and numerous others) is a section of DNA that lies just after of the RNA polymerase receptor complex or overlaps with it (promoter).In other words, it lies between the operon's promoter and its genes.
An area of the operon called the operator is where transcription factor bind. It assists in controlling operon gene transcription and is situated close to the promoter. The repressor is activated in the operon and blocks transcription.
Operons are frequently used in prokaryotes to regulate transcription. In prokaryotic organisms, structural genes with similar functions are frequently arranged collectively on the genome, and transcription is regulated by a single promoter.
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from which living relatives would mitochondrial dna provide useful information for verifying that the skeletons were those of the royal family?
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From the tsar living relatives the mitochondrial DNA would provide useful information in order to verify that the skeletons were those of the royal family.
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is passed down from mother to child, and is useful in identifying relatives through the maternal line. If the remains of the Tsar and his family were to be discovered, a comparison of the mtDNA from the skeletons with the mtDNA of living relatives of the Tsar through the maternal line would provide useful information in order to verify the identities of the remains as those of the royal family.
Additionally, mtDNA is highly informative and can be easily extracted and analyzed from a variety of sources, including teeth and bones, making it a useful tool for forensic investigations. So the analysis of the tsar would provide useful information in order to verify that the skeletons were those of the royal family.
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which statement is correct?a monophyletic group consists of all of the descendants of an ancestral population. a monophyletic group may include an ancestral population and some, but not all, of its descendants. a monophyletic group consists of an ancestral population, all of its descendants, and only those descendants. a monophyletic group is a theoretical idea that does not exist in the real world.
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C) a monophyletic group consists of an ancestral population, all of its descendants, and only those descendants is considered as correct statement.
What differentiates a monophyletic group?A group of species that is monophyletic encompasses all of its progeny as well as the common ancestor they all share. A monophyletic group on a phylogenetic tree consists of a node and all of its offspring, represented by both nodes and terminal taxa.
What distinguishes monophyletic from polyphyletic groups?A polyphyletic taxon is mainly composed of unrelated species descended from many ancestors, while a monophyletic taxon is formed up of a collection of organisms evolved from a single ancestor.
What in a tree do ancestor and descendent mean?A node's parent or the parent of one of the node's predecessors is the node's ancestor network. A node's successor is either the node's kid or a descendant of one of the node's children.
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which statement is correct?
A) a monophyletic group consists of all of the descendants of an ancestral population.
B) a monophyletic group may include an ancestral population and some, but not all, of its descendants.
C) a monophyletic group consists of an ancestral population, all of its descendants, and only those descendants.
D) a monophyletic group is a theoretical idea that does not exist in the real world.
identify 2 possible ways that the activity of enzyme a might be modified. explain your two ideas fully.
Answers
The 2 possible ways that the activity of enzyme a might be modified are temperature and pH.
Tensiometry or measurements of hydrophilicity can be used to quantify the resulting changes in surface properties. According to biochemistry theory, there are three "common" mechanisms by which enzymes can be altered: competitive, noncompetitive, and uncompetitive. A competitive modifier is a solute that modifies an enzymatic process by changing the apparent Km of the enzyme but does not change the apparent Vmax of the enzyme. This is the conventional definition of a competitive modifier.
Temperature, pH, and concentration are just a few examples of variables that can have an impact on enzyme activity.
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menopause generally occurs in females after the age of ________.
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menopause generally occurs in females after the age of 40s or 50s.
Approximately 5% of people experience spontaneous (natural) infertility before age 45. Menopause that occurs before the age of 40 is known as premature menopause (or premature ovarian insufficiency, or POI).
White women in industrialized nations typically reach menopause between the ages of 50 and 52, and the average age at the start of perimenopause is 47.5 years. There is a slight upward trend in menopause age over time.
According to the data, the average age of menopause for Indian women is 45.59 + 5.59 years. Menopausal age ranged from 45.1 to 4.1 years in the east, 45.5 to 3.8 in the west, 45 to 3.6 in the north, 44.7 to 3.3 in the south, and 43.1 to 4.8 in the middle of India.
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The menopausal transition most often begins between ages 45 and 55. It usually lasts about seven years but can be as long as 14 years.
Menopause is a factor in time 12 months after a female's remaining duration. The years leading as much as that factor, whilst ladies may additionally have changes in their monthly cycles, hot flashes, or different signs and symptoms, are known as the menopausal transition or perimenopause.
The menopausal transition most usually starts between a while forty five and fifty five. It normally lasts about seven years however can be as long as 14 years. The length can rely on lifestyle elements including smoking, age it starts offevolved, and race and ethnicity. throughout perimenopause, the body's production of estrogen and progesterone, hormones made by the ovaries, varies significantly.
The menopausal transition affects each woman uniquely and in numerous methods. The body starts off evolved to use it in a different way, fats cells alternate, and girls may additionally gain weight greater easily. you could experience modifications for your bone or coronary heart health, your body shape and composition, or your physical characteristic.
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Which structure is the first to emerge from the germinating seed of a eudicot such as the garden bean
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Radical is the first structure to emerge from the germinating seed of a eudicot such as the garden bean.
Typically, the radicle is the first part of the embryo to emerge from the seed coat. Depending on the species, different structures emerge. Many (but not all) dicots are epigeal, meaning that the hypocotyl extends above ground, carrying the cotyledons. When eudicot seeds germinate, the radicle emerges from the seed coat while the seed is still buried in the soil. The hypocotyl of epigeous eudicots (such as beans) is shaped like a hook, with the plumule pointing downwards.
The seed is made up of three parts: the embryo, the endosperm (sometimes perisperm), and the seed coat. Endosperm and embryo are both the result of double fertilisation, whereas the seed coat develops from maternal, ovular tissues.
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The first structure to emerge from the germinating seed of a eudicot such as the garden bean is the radicle.
The radicle is the embryonic root of the seed and is the first part of the seedling that emerges from the seed. It is a small, thin and white in color. The radicle is the first structure to emerge from the seed, followed by the hypocotyl and the cotyledons.
The radicle is the first living structure of a seedling and is responsible for the growth of the root system of the plant. As the seed germinates, the radicle begins to grow downwards and is the first part of the seedling to take in water and nutrients.
It also helps to anchor the plant and is the most important part of the seedling. The radicle is the first structure to emerge from the seed and is the foundation for the growth of the entire plant.
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The photograph shows a two-toed sloth. These slow-moving organisms
cannot outrun or outclimb predators, so they spend most of their time
hanging from branches in trees. The sloths eat the leaves and flowers
from these trees. Two-toed sloths often have a greenish tint on their fur
because algae grow on their bodies.
Two-Toed Sloth
OiStock.com/tomalu
Which of these is the most likely reason the algae are able to help
two-toed sloths survive?
A. by allowing the sloths to blend in with the trees to hide from predators
B. by providing sloths with easy access to another food source
C. by making sloths more attractive to other sloths to encourage mating
D. by helping to keep the body temperatures of sloths cooler during hot weather
Answers
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
which layer of the skin acts as a protective cushion to protect the bones and gives the body its contour and shape?
Answers
Hypodermis (Subcutaneous Tissue)
The bottom layer of skin on your body is called the hypodermis. It serves a variety of crucial roles, such as preserving energy, bridging the gap between your skin's dermis layer and your muscles and bones, insulating your body, and safeguarding it against harm. Your hypodermis gets smaller as you get older, and your skin begins to sag.
The bottom layer of skin on your body is called the hypodermis. It has a variety of purposes, such as defending your body from injury, insulating your body, storing energy, and attaching your skin to your muscles and bones. Your body's hypodermis has varying thicknesses. It may be less than 1 millimetre thick above your eyelids and external genitals, where it is thinnest. Your abdomen and butt are where it is thickest, where it may measure more than 3 centimetres.
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Subcutaneous layer of skin acts as a protective cushion providing protection to bones and proper contour and shape to the body.
Subcutaneous layer of skin is also known as 'Hypodermis' and is the bottom layer of the skin. It is one of the three layers of the skin and composed of various fat cells and connective tissues.
This layer of skin provides various functions, from providing insulation, protection to our body to connecting our skin to muscles and bones. Subcutaneous layer of skin also acts as an energy storage region for the body.
This layer also keeps us warm and besides acting as a protective cushion for bones, it also provides proper shape and contour to the entire frame of the body.
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This is one half of a chromosome; a rod-like structure made of DNA and proteins
Answers
Answer: Chromosomes are thread-like structures located inside the nucleus of animal and plant cells. Each chromosome is made of protein and a single molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). Passed from parents to offspring, DNA contains the specific instructions that make each type of living creature unique.
Explanation:
Which of the following is hydrophilic? *
A) extracellular fluid
B) entire phospholipid
C) glycerol head
D) fatty acid tails
Answers
What type of bond holds complementary nucleotides together ?
Answers
Hydrogen bonds type of bond holds complementary nucleotides together.
On the two opposing strands of the double helix DNA are molecules called nucleotides that interact chemically. The strands of DNA are held together by these chemical bonds, which function like rungs on a ladder.
noun Genetics. Adenine is the complementary base to cytosine, whereas guanine is the base complementary to thymine in DNA and uracil in RNA. These bases are joined by a hydrogen bond on opposing strands of double-stranded RNA or DNA.
Purine and pyrimidine, two complementary nucleotides, are joined by hydrogen bonds to produce each base pair. Weak hydrogen bonds are what keep DNA's two strands joined.
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Hydrogen bonds holds complementary nucleotides together.
In general , hydrogen bond present on the opposite strands of DNA are double-stranded . In RNA guanine is present as the complementary base of cytosine, and adenine is present as the complementary base of thymine which is a part of DNA and uracil in RNA. Molecules that are present on the opposite strands of the DNA double helix, tends to form chemical bonds with one each other. These chemical bonds works as a carpet of the ladder that holds the two strands of DNA together.
So , Nucleotides are major groups that can take part in hydrogen bonds formation . These capability of the bases to form hydrogen bond are important for specific base pairing.
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What criteria and constraints do engineers need to consider when designing and consructing a physical reef model
btw this is for science
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Calcium carbonate is produced by marine animals, primarily hermatypic corals, crustose coralline algae, and other calcifying algae, to create the physical foundation of coral reefs.
What is the coral reef model?The reef is a blockchain for smart contracts created with the Substrate platform.
Reef Chain's strong scalability, support for Solidity and Ethereum VM, and low transaction costs make it possible for developers to easily move their decentralized applications (dApps) from Ethereum without having to change the code.
Therefore, they also require enough sunlight, a hard bottom no deeper than 165 feet (50 m), some current or upwelling, and somewhat clear water for the corals to live in.
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what are the group of three nucleotides called on the mrna?
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The group of three nucleotides in the mRNA is called a codon.
Cells decode mRNAs by reading them in three nucleotide groups known as codons. Here are some characteristics of codons:
The majority of codons specify an amino acid.A protein's end is marked by three "stop" codons.AUG is a "start" codon that both marks the beginning of a protein and encodes the amino acid methionine.During translation, codons in an mRNA are read, beginning with a start codon and continuing until a stop codon is reached. mRNA codons, which are read from 5' to 3', specify the order of amino acids in a protein from the N-terminus (methionine) to the C-terminus.
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A group of three nucleotides on mRNA is called a codon. Codons are specific sequences of three nucleotides that correspond to a particular amino acid or stop signal for protein synthesis.
Each codon consists of a sequence of three nucleotides - adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and uracil (U) - and is read in a specific order (5' - 3'). During protein synthesis, codons are read by the ribosome, which then translates the genetic information encoded in mRNA into a specific amino acid. A given codon may code for one or more different amino acids depending on the genetic code.
For example, the codon UUU can code for either phenylalanine or leucine. As such, codons are an essential part of the genetic code and are central to the process of protein synthesis.
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Pieces of DNA that pass genetic traits from parent to offspring are what?A. HeredityB. PhenotypeC. GeneD. Allele
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Pieces of DNA that pass genetic traits from parent to offspring are called genes.
Genes are the pieces of DNA that pass genetic traits from parent to offspring. They are the basic units of heredity, and they contain the instructions for the development and function of all living organisms. Each gene is a specific segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein or RNA molecule. These proteins and RNA molecules play a vital role in the growth, development, and function of cells. The combination of all genes in an organism's DNA is called its genome. The traits inherited by an offspring are determined by the specific combination of genes passed on by the parents.
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Genes are pieces of DNA that pass genetic traits from parent to offspring. Here option C is the correct answer.
A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instructions for the synthesis of a specific protein or RNA molecule.
These proteins and RNA molecules, in turn, perform a wide range of functions in the cell, including structural roles, catalyzing metabolic reactions, replicating DNA, responding to stimuli, and transporting molecules across cell membranes.
Genes are located on chromosomes, which are long, linear strands of DNA found in the nucleus of a cell. Each gene occupies a specific location on a chromosome, known as a locus. Humans have approximately 20,000-25,000 genes on their chromosomes.
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I don’t even know english and i don’t know nothing about this.
“A homozygous tall plant is crossed with a short plant.”
Answers
Example: First row: Tt, TT
Second row: tt, Tt
which of the following describes fluorescein angiography? a. anterior eye structures are microscopically examined with a slit lamp instrument. b. contrast that is injected intravenously shows the blood's movement on otoscopy. c. external ear structures are microscopically examined with a slit lamp instrument. d. contrast that is injected intravenously shows the blood's movement on ophthalmoscopy.
Answers
The correct answer is D - intravenous contrast that shows blood movement on ophthalmoscopy.
Fluorescein angiography is described in detail.
Fluorescein angiography is an eye test that examines blood flow in the retina and choroid using a special dye and camera. These are the two layers behind the eye.
Fluorescein angiography (FA) is a procedure in which your ophthalmologist uses a special camera to photograph your retina. These images allow your ophthalmologist to see the blood vessels and other structures in the back of your eye more clearly. A fundus fluorescein angiography is a test that looks at the blood circulation in the back surface of your eye, known as the retina. The test is a diagnostic procedure that allows us to determine whether there are any issues with the circulation in your retina.
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by looking at the different layers of the earth, we are able to gather information about the age and environment of that area. we can also compare its age to other layers. what is the term used to describe the age of fossil layers based on its location?
Answers
The term used to describe the age of fossil layers based on its location is stratigraphy.
The area of geology known as stratigraphy is concerned with examining how rocks are layered. It is typically used to examine sedimentary rocks, which are created when tiny particles collect and solidify to form rocks.
The oldest layers will be at the bottom and the youngest layers will be at the top in an undisturbed rock sequence, according to the stratigraphic principle of superposition. Geologists can ascertain the relative ages of various rock formations and gain a better understanding of the Earth's history and evolution over time by examining the various rock strata and the fossils they contain.
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The term used to describe the age of fossil layers based on its location is relative dating. Relative dating is the method of estimating a fossil's age by contrasting its location with fossils in other sedimentary rock strata.
In relative dating, the age of a fossil is estimated by comparing it with other fossils in the same layer or with fossils in other layers of sedimentary rock. This method of dating is used to determine how old a fossil is based on its placement in relation to other fossils in the same layer.
Relative dating is an important technique used in archaeology and paleontology as it allows us to determine the age of a fossil based on its position in relation to other fossils. This method is particularly useful in determining the age of fossils that are difficult to date using absolute dating methods.
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on the galapagos islands, darwin observed that finches had different shaped beaks depending on which island they lived on. what did darwin conclude about the beaks of the finches?
Answers
Answer:
Divergent evolution
Explanation:
Darwin concluded that this was result of divergent evolution .When due to competition for food and living space a single ancestral species evolves into different species which occupies different habitats it is called adaptive radiation .All l the different types of finches got evolved from the original seed eating ancestor finch which was present in South America .They came to Galapagos Island and according to different needs and environment they developed different types of shape of beaks and feeding habits .Hope this helps.
does epigenetics interfere with transcription or translation___
Answers
Epigenetics interfere with transcription. DNA alterations that impact nucleosomes spacing and consequently transcription lead to epigenetic changes. They don't actually change the DNA sequence.
The transfer of genetic information from the archival copy of DNA to the transient messenger RNA, often followed by the creation of protein, is represented by transcription, translation, and subsequent protein modification. Despite having fundamentally the same DNA, every cell in an organism has a different kind and function due to qualitative and quantitative variations in gene expression. Therefore, differentiation and development depend on the regulation of gene expression. Although it is believed that epigenetic mechanisms such as DNA methylation, histone modification, and different RNA-mediated processes primarily affect gene expression at the level of transcription, other stages of the process (such as translation) may also be regulated by epigenetic factors. The impact epigenetics is thought to have on regulating gene expression will be discussed in more detail in the work that follows.
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Complete question is:
What is Epigenetics? does it interference with transcription ot translation?
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Epigenetics interfere with transcription. It is believed that epigenetic processes, such as DNA methylation, histone modification, and a variety of RNA-mediated processes, have the greatest impact on gene expression at the transcriptional level.
Epigenetic changes affect gene expression to "on" and "off" genes, whereas genetic changes can change which proteins are made. The link between your genes, your behaviors, and your environment is easy to see because your environment and your behaviors, like eating right and exercising, can change your epigenome. In a variety of contexts, transcription factors contribute to the epigenetic control of gene expression.
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Which of the following is a comparatively inexpensive method of aligning agricultural equipment, such as
cultivators used as an alternative to GPS-based navigation systems?
O remote sensing systems
O light bar guidance systems
O auto-steer systems
O remote relay systems
Answers
In the 1800s Gregor Mendel published a scientific paper based on pea plant experiments. In the paper he made the following conclusion:
Traits have two possible forms, which are determined by the inheritance of two factors. One factor is inherited from each parent. One form of the trait is dominant and the other recessive. When the offspring inherit one or more dominant factors, they will display that form of the trait.
Part A: Describe how one part of Mendel’s conclusion is consistent with current scientific knowledge of inheritance.
BoldItalicUnderline
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One part of Mendel’s conclusion is consistent with current scientific knowledge of inheritance as his principle tells us that traits are inherited from our parents and are expressive due to dominance.
Mendel developed three inheritance principles that described the transmission of genetic traits through pea plant breeding experiments. This characteristic's inheritance pattern is considered dominant because it can be seen in every generation. As a result, every individual who carries the genetic code for this characteristic will exhibit evidence of it.
Mendel proposed his first principle, the principle of uniformity, based on this simple observation; this principle states that all the progeny of a cross where the parents differ by only one trait will appear identical. The phenomena of penetrance, expressivity, and sex-linkage, which were discovered after Mendel's time, are examples of exceptions to the principle of uniformity.
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Mendel's conclusion regarding the inheritance of two factors from each parent is consistent with current scientific knowledge of inheritance.
This is known as Mendelian inheritance, and it is still widely accepted today. This concept states that each parent contributes one factor to their offspring, and that one form of the trait (the dominant one) is expressed while the other form (the recessive one) is not.
These factors are then passed on to the next generation, allowing for the expression of both forms of the trait. This is further demonstrated by the law of segregation, which states that during the formation of gametes, the two factors for each trait separate from each other, so that each gamete only contains one copy of the factor. This is still the accepted model of inheritance today.
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The human lymphatic system consists of all of the following structures excepta. adenoids and tonsilsb. lymph nodes and lymph vesselsc. spleen and thymusd. pancreas and adrenal glands.
Answers
With the exception of the pancreas and adrenal glands, which make up the human lymphatic system. The right response in this case is option D.
The human lymphatic system is a network of vessels and organs that help to protect the body against infection and disease. It includes:
Adenoids and tonsils: are located in the upper respiratory tract and help to filter out harmful microorganisms. Lymph nodes and lymph vessels: are located throughout the body and filter out harmful substances such as bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells.
Spleen and thymus: are located in the upper left part of the abdomen and play a role in the immune response by producing white blood cells.
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With the exception of the pancreas and adrenal glands, which make up the human lymphatic system. The right response in this case is option D.
The human lymphatic system is a network of vessels and organs that help to protect the body against infection and disease. It includes: Adenoids and tonsils: are located in the upper respiratory tract and help to filter out harmful microorganisms. Lymph nodes and lymph vessels: are located throughout the body and filter out harmful substances such as bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells. Spleen and thymus: are located in the upper left part of the abdomen and play a role in the immune response by producing white blood cells.
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DNA _____ utilize(s) unique fragments of DNA to identify a specific individual.
A. sourcing
B. fingerprinting
C. analysis
D. probes
Answers
DNA (b) fingerprinting utilize(s) unique fragments of DNA to identify a specific individual.
DNA fingerprinting is a method for identifying a specific person by using distinctive DNA fragments. Except for identical twins, each individual's DNA is distinct, and some DNA areas, referred to as "hypervariable regions," differ dramatically from person to person.
Forensic science use DNA fingerprinting for a variety of purposes, including paternity testing and the identification of criminals. The process entails removing DNA from a sample of blood, saliva, or other tissue, and then examining particular DNA regions that are known to vary between people. Scientists can establish whether two samples come from the same individual or not by comparing their DNA profiles to those of a reference sample.
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B. fingerprinting. By examining distinctive patterns in their DNA, DNA fingerprinting is a technique for identifying a person from a sample of their DNA.
A technique called DNA fingerprinting finds several minisatellites in the genome at once to create a pattern that is particular to each person. A DNA fingerprint appears here. It is extremely unlikely that two individuals with the same DNA fingerprint are not identical twins. A chemical test called DNA fingerprinting can reveal a person's or another living thing's genetic make-up. It is used as testimony in court, to identify corpses, find blood relatives, and search for medical treatments.
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Which of the following describes the Green Revolution?
O a large increase in global crop yield brought about by purely organic techniques in the mid-20th Century
O a movement to increase crop yield through purely organic techniques
O a large increase in global crop yield brought about by high-yield techniques in the mid-20th Century
O a movement to improve plant stocks and expand cultivated land
Answers
Green revolution a campaign to boost agricultural productivity using only organic methods
Define green revolution ?
The Green Revolution, also known as the Third Agricultural Revolution, was a period of technology transfer activities that resulted in significantly higher crop yields and agricultural output. These agricultural reforms began in wealthy nations after WWII and extended internationally until the late 1980s. Farmers began incorporating new technologies such as high-yielding cereal varieties, particularly dwarf wheat and rice, and the widespread use of chemical fertilisers (the new seeds require far more fertiliser than traditional varieties to produce their high yields), pesticides, and controlled irrigation in the late 1960s. Agriculture also witnessed the development of innovative farming methods, such as automation. These modifications were frequently applied as part of a package of activities designed to replace traditional agricultural technologies.
a significant rise in food output in developing nations accomplished by the use of fertilisers, herbicides, and high-yield crop types.
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a population of interbreeding birds has been split by a geological event after which the isolated part of the population started to evolve into an incipient species with different mating rituals. due to a recent environmental change the two populations are now able to potentially mate again in what is called a hybrid zone. mating does take place every now and then but the hybrid offspring appear less able to survive. as a consequence, mating rituals start to diverge even further. we call this process of continued divergence? group of answer choices stability reinforcement behavioral isolation fusion postzygotic isolation
Answers
The process of continued divergence in this scenario is called reinforcement.
Natural selection works to prevent hybridization between divergent populations through a process known as reinforcement, which leads to the emergence of interbreeding barriers and greater population divergence. In this instance, the environmental change has made it possible for the two previously separated populations to interact once more. However, the hybrid offspring are less likely to survive, which encourages selection against hybridization and the development of novel mating rituals, leading to the populations' continued divergence.
Understanding population dynamics necessitates being aware of the many influences that dispersal, productivity, and survival have on population growth. This is crucial for the preservation of tiny, recently established populations since stochastic births and deaths could have a negative impact on their growth or possibly cause them to go extinct.
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you have a friend who lost 15 pounds of fat on a regimen of strict diet and exercise. how did the atoms from the fat molecules physically leave his body? (hint: go back and look at the equation for cellular respiration and consider the fat molecule as roughly equivalent to a molecule glucose in the equation - most people will not get this right without doing this)
Answers
The friend who lost 15 pounds of fat on a regimen of strict diet and exercise, the atoms from the fat molecules physically leave his body in the form of CO2 and water.
The stored glucose is in the form of fats in our body or we say excess consumed energy which is usually calories from fats or carbs, is stored in fat cell, which is responsible for the weight gain
The fat cells here shrink in size as their contents are used for energy but the numbers remain unchanged
so, when a person do exercise, the fat atoms is released in the form of respiration and the sweat we produced during the course which is nothig but carbon dioxide and water.
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what structure do moss sperm use for motility, and how does that reflect the evolution of land plants from green algae? what structure do moss sperm use for motility, and how does that reflect the evolution of land plants from green algae? moss sperm moves by amoeboid motion and doesn't have special structure, as do the sperm of green algae. moss sperm have flagella, as do the sperm of green algae. moss sperm moves by gliding motility and doesn't have special structure, as do the sperm of green algae. moss sperm have cilia, as do the sperm of green algae.
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Moss sperm use flagella for motility. Moss sperm are unique in having flagella which are used to move and swim towards the egg cell to fertilize it.
This reflects the evolution of land plants from green algae, as mosses are one of the earliest land plants and their sperm show similarities to the sperm of green algae, which also use flagella for motility. This suggests that the flagella-based motility system was retained in mosses as they made the transition from aquatic to terrestrial environments, and it is still present in the moss sperm today.Moss sperm are the male reproductive cells of mosses, which are a group of non-vascular plants that are considered to be one of the earliest land plants. Moss sperm are unique in having flagella, which are whip-like structures that are used for motility. The flagella are used to move and swim towards the egg cells to fertilize them. This is similar to the sperm of green algae, which also use flagella for motility.
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It reflects the evolution of land plants from green algae in that algal spores have flagella, as do green algal spores. Here option B is the correct answer.
Moss sperm, like the sperm of many other land plants, move using flagella. This is the same motility structure that is used by the sperm of green algae, which are believed to be the ancestors of land plants.
The presence of flagella in both moss sperm and green algae sperm suggests that this motility structure was present in the common ancestor of these two groups and was retained in land plants as they evolved from green algae.
Complete question:
What structure do moss sperm used for motility, and how does that reflect the evolution of land plants from green algae? what structure do moss sperm used for motility, and how does that reflect the evolution of land plants from green algae?
A - moss sperm moves by amoeboid motion and doesn't have a special structure, as do the sperm of green algae.
B - moss sperm have flagella, as do the sperm of green algae.
C - moss sperm moves by gliding motility and doesn't have a special structure, as do the sperm of green algae.
D - moss sperm have cilia, as do the sperm of green algae.
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Organisms that obtain their energy and nutrients from nonliving sources: sun, minerals and the air. Example: plants, certain bacteria, and other organisms that capture energy from the sun or from chemicals such as Hydrogen sulfide. Autotrophs use that energy to synthesize organic compounds from inorganic materials absorbed from their surroundings. Many capture energy through photosynthesis.
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The type of creatures that can make their own nourishment utilizing the sun's energy and components from inorganic sources are called autotrophs. Without the help of any other organisms, they can sustain themselves.
Autotrophs include, but are not limited to, algae, plants, certain bacteria, and fungus. Autotrophs are living things that obtain their energy from inanimate objects, which means they produce their own nourishment. These creatures are also known as Producers. Algae are autotrophs, as are some bacteria and fungus, plants, and algae. In the food chain, autotrophs are the producers since they synthesize their own nutrition and energy. Photosynthesis is the technique used by kelp and the majority of other autotrophs to produce energy.
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in mendel's law of separation, the first-filial generation is: a. recessive b. homozygous c. heterozygous d. autologous
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Answer: C:heterozygous
Explanation: I hope this helps!
a specimen is presented that has a mix of epithelial tissue, connective tissue and at least one blood vessel (near upper left). the black substance indicated by the arrows in this specimen is foreign to the body and is contained within a specific cell type. what is the cell type?
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The cell type in a a specimen is presented that has a mix of epithelial tissue, connective tissue and at least one blood vessel is giant cells of Langerhans
Langehans enormous cells are big cells found in granulomatous diseases. They are generated by the fusing of epithelioid cells and have nuclei organized in a horseshoe configuration in the cell periphery.
Langerhans giant cells are present in the tubercle, or primary center of infection, of tuberculosis, syphilis, leprosy, and sarcoidosis lesions, and fungal infections.
The presence of epithelioid histiocytes and Langehans' giant cells is strongly indicative of tuberculosis but is not pathognomonic because any or both cell types can be observed in other illnesses with granulomatous inflammation.
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Giant cells of Langerhans are the type of cell seen in a specimen that contains a mixture of epithelial tissue, connective tissue, and at least one blood artery.
Granulomatous disorders are characterized by large cells called Langehans gigantic cells. They are created by the fusion of epithelioid cells, and in the cell periphery, they have horseshoe-shaped nuclei. The tubercle, or major center of infection, of lesions caused by tuberculosis, syphilis, leprosy, sarcoidosis, and fungal infections contains Langerhans giant cells.
Although the presence of Langerhans' large cells and epithelioid histiocytes is extremely suggestive of tuberculosis, neither cell type is pathognomonic because it can also be seen in other diseases with granulomatous inflammation.
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