Explain why the duration and convexity are used jointly to
provide the estimate of the price change of the bond than just
using duration.

Answers

Answer 1

Duration and convexity are used jointly to provide a more accurate estimate of the price change of a bond because they capture different aspects of the bond's price-yield relationship.

Duration measures the sensitivity of a bond's price to changes in interest rates. It provides an estimate of the percentage change in the bond's price for a given change in yield. However, duration assumes a linear relationship between price and yield, which is not entirely accurate. In reality, the relationship is curved or convex.

Convexity measures the curvature or convexity of the bond's price-yield relationship. It quantifies the rate of change of duration with respect to yield changes. By incorporating convexity, we can account for the non-linear relationship between price and yield. Convexity captures the additional price change that is not captured by duration alone.

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Related Questions

A firm is considering outsourcing its production. Currently, in-house production costs $3,000,000 per year plus $12.00 per unit. The outsourcing option would cost $5,000,000 per year to operate, but the variable production costs would be $4.00 per unit. What level of production would the firm need to have in order to make outsourcing an economically viable option?

Answers

The company should consider outsourcing its production if its level of production is greater than or equal to 1,000,000 units.

Given, In-house production costs = $3,000,000 per year + $12.00 per unit Outsourcing option costs = $5,000,000 per year + $4.00 per unit We need to find out the level of production the company needs to have to make outsourcing an economically viable option. Let the level of production be x. Now, in-house production cost = 3000000 + 12x dollars and outsourcing production cost = 5000000 + 4x dollars.

Since outsourcing is a more economical option for the company, it is wise to use the outsourcing option if it is more profitable than producing in-house. That is,5000000 + 4x < 3000000 + 12x ⇒ 8x > 2000000⇒ x > 250000.So the company should consider outsourcing its production if its level of production is greater than or equal to 1,000,000 units.

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Symbol Technologies, Inc., was a fast growing maker of bar code scanners. According to the federal charges, Tomo Razmilovic, the CEO at Symbol, was obsessed with meeting the stock market's expectation for continued growth. His executive team responded by improperty recording revenue and allowances for returns, as well as a variety of other tricks, to overstate revenues by $230 million and pretax earnings by $530 million. What makes this fraud nearly unique is that virtually the whole senior management team was charged with participating in the six-year fraud. In April 2015, the SEC settled with the last of the 13 Symbol executives that were defendants in the case. Razmilovic, the former CEO, fled the country to avoid prosecution and was still at large at the time of the final settlement. The exact nature of the fraud is described in the following excerpts from the SEC civil complaint. Concerning sales of goods, the complaint alleged that "Defendant Borghese, Symbol's former head of sales, spearheaded the revenue recognition fraud. Whenever actual sales fell short of Razmilovic's target, Borghese stuffed the distribution channel by granting resellers return rights and contingent payment terms in side agreements that he negotiated or authorized.... In addition, Borghese employed multiple schemes for claiming revenue before it was earned, such as shipping the wrong product when the product ordered by the customer was unavailable.... In a related scheme that Burke originated, Mortenson and Donlon also caused revenue to be recognized in several quarters on shipments that did not occur until the next quarter. To conceal this premature recognition of revenue, Mortenson and Donlon, acting at the direction of Borghese and others, secured backdated phony 'bill and hold letters from the customers." Concerning sales of service, the complaint alleged that "Defendant Heuschneider, finance director for Symbol's customer service division, artificially inflated the service revenue reported by Symbol... by directing subordinates to make multimillion dollar fraudulent entries that improperty accelerated revenue recognition on existing service contracts. Heuschneider also fabricated revenue by improperty 'renewing dormant or cancelled service contracts without the customer's approval." Source: SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION, Plaintif, against SYMBOL TECHNOLOOIES, INC. TOMO RAZMILOVIC, KENNETH JAEOOL LEONARD GOLDNER, BRIAN BURKE, MICHAEL DEGENNARO, FRANK BORGHESE, CHRISTOPHER DESANTIS, JAMES HEUSCHNEIDER GREGORY MORTENSON

1. What facts, if any, presented in the complaint suggest that Symbol violated the revenue recognition principle?
2. Assuming that Symbol did recognize revenue when goods were shipped, how could it have property accounted for the fact that customers had a right to cancel the contracts (make an analogy with accounting for bad debts)?
3. What do you think may have motivated management to falsify the statements? Why was management concerned with reporting continued growth in net income?
4. Explain who was hurt by management's unethical conduct.
5. Assume that you are the auditor for other firms. After reading about the fraud, what types of transactions would you pay special attention to in the audit of your clients in this industry? What ratio might provide warnings about possible channel stuffing?

Answers

Symbol violated revenue recognition by overstating, recognizing revenue before it was earned, shipping wrong products, and fabricating revenue to meet stock market expectations.

The complaint reveals several facts that suggest Symbol violated the revenue recognition principle. The former head of sales, Borghese, engaged in fraudulent practices such as granting resellers return rights and contingent payment terms, recognizing revenue before it was earned, and shipping the wrong product when the ordered product was unavailable. These actions misrepresented the timing and amount of revenue recognized, violating the principle of recognizing revenue when it is earned.

If Symbol recognized revenue when goods were shipped, it should have accounted for the fact that customers had the right to cancel contracts similar to accounting for bad debts. Just as bad debt expense is estimated and recorded to account for potential non-payment by customers, Symbol could have estimated a provision for returns and cancellations based on historical data or industry standards. This provision would have reduced the revenue recognized to reflect the possibility of canceled contracts.

The management may have been motivated to falsify the statements due to the pressure to report continued growth in net income. The CEO, Razmilovic, was obsessed with meeting stock market expectations for growth. The management likely wanted to create an illusion of strong performance to attract investors, maintain the company's stock price, and potentially benefit financially through bonuses or stock options tied to performance metrics.

The unethical conduct of management primarily harmed investors who relied on the falsified financial statements when making investment decisions. Investors may have purchased Symbol's stock based on the misrepresented financial performance, leading to financial losses when the fraud was eventually exposed. Other stakeholders such as employees, suppliers, and creditors may have also been negatively affected as the fraudulent practices undermined the company's true financial position and stability.

As an auditor for other firms in the industry, transactions related to revenue recognition should be closely scrutinized. Special attention should be given to return policies, contingent payment terms, and service contract renewals without proper approval. These areas have shown vulnerability to manipulation in the case of Symbol. Additionally, the ratio of sales to accounts receivable can provide warnings about possible channel stuffing. Unusually high sales in relation to accounts receivable could indicate aggressive revenue recognition practices or inflated revenues due to channel stuffing, prompting further investigation.

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Which of the following reasons cannot explain quantity rationing by Pfeizer:
1) Inelastic demand conditions
2) Decreasing returns to scale
3) Maximizing market share
4) Signi cant market power
Pfeizer is thinking to discriminate among European consumers assigning a dierent price in each country according to the prevailing demand schedules. Compared with a uniform pricing scheme throughout the EU
1) Social welfare will be higher if quantities sold are higher
2) Social welfare will be always higher
3) Social welfare will be higher if quantities sold are lower
4) Social welfare will be always lower

Answers

Pfizer is a global pharmaceutical company that produces and distributes drugs, therefore, from the options given, the reason that cannot explain quantity rationing by Pfizer is decreasing returns to scale. Option 2. Compared with a uniform pricing scheme throughout the EU, social welfare will be higher if the quantities sold are higher. Option 1.

"Quantity rationing by Pfizer can be explained by the following reasons: Inelastic demand conditions: In the pharmaceutical industry, the demand for drugs is inelastic since medicines are considered a necessity to treat diseases. Therefore, Pfizer might ration quantity based on demand and supply.

Maximizing market share: Pfizer may ration quantity to gain a large market share in the pharmaceutical industry.

Significant market power: Pfizer has significant market power because it is a global pharmaceutical company, and the company can influence the price of drugs.

Therefore, Pfizer may ration quantity to maximize profit. Compared with a uniform pricing scheme throughout the EU, social welfare will be higher if the quantities sold are higher.

Therefore, the option that best fits is: Social welfare will be higher if the quantities sold are higher.

Hence, the right answer is option 2. Decreasing returns to scale. and option 1. Social welfare will be higher if the quantities sold are higher.

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: Safety Works manufacturers safety whistle keychains. They have the following information available to prepare their master budget: Operating Expenses Variable Operating costs Fixed Operating costs $1.25 per unit sold $234,000 Other Info: Units produced in 2020 47.000 Units sold in 2020 44,500 Safety Works sells each whistle for $13. It's been determined that each unit costs $6.25 to manufacture. How much is total budgeted operating expenses for the year ended 2020? O $114,375 $234.000 $289.625 $292.750

Answers

The total budgeted operating expenses for the year ended 2020 is $289,625.

To calculate the total budgeted operating expenses, we need to consider both the variable and fixed operating costs. The variable operating costs are calculated by multiplying the variable cost per unit sold ($1.25) by the number of units sold (44,500), resulting in $55,625. The fixed operating costs remain constant at $234,000. Adding the variable and fixed operating costs together gives us a total of $289,625 as the budgeted operating expenses for the year ended 2020.

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in a purely competitive industry, an optimal allocation of scarce resources occurs when:

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In a purely competitive industry, an optimal allocation of scarce resources occurs when the market reaches equilibrium, where supply and demand intersect and maximize social welfare.

In a purely competitive industry, the market is characterized by a large number of buyers and sellers, homogeneous products, perfect information, and ease of entry and exit. The optimal allocation of scarce resources occurs when the market reaches equilibrium. At equilibrium, the quantity supplied by producers matches the quantity demanded by consumers, and the market price is determined.

At equilibrium, there is no excess supply or demand, and resources are allocated efficiently. Producers produce the quantity that maximizes their profits, taking into account their costs of production, and consumers purchase the quantity that maximizes their utility, considering the market price. This equilibrium point represents the optimal allocation of scarce resources because it maximizes social welfare, ensuring that goods and services are produced and consumed in the most efficient manner possible.

In a purely competitive industry, competition ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and that no participant in the market can individually influence the market price or quantity. This leads to an optimal allocation of scarce resources that benefits both producers and consumers, promoting overall economic welfare.

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Please give ratings it will be appreciable, for any query please comment, Thank you Solution, The Correct option, Public Good A public good is non-rivalry and non-excludable in nature. Hence, people can't be excluded from enjoying.

Answers

People cannot be excluded from enjoying public goods. The correct answer is that people cannot be excluded from enjoying public goods.

Public goods are goods or services that are non-excludable, meaning that once they are provided, it is impossible or impractical to exclude individuals from enjoying their benefits. In other words, public goods are available for everyone to use and enjoy, and individuals cannot be denied access to them.

Unlike private goods, which can be restricted to only those who pay for them, public goods are characterized by their non-rivalrous and non-excludable nature. Non-rivalrous means that one person's use or consumption of the good does not diminish its availability to others. Non-excludable means that it is not feasible to exclude individuals from enjoying the benefits of the good or service.

Examples of public goods include clean air, national defense, street lighting, and public parks. These goods are provided by the government or other entities for the collective benefit of society. Since public goods are available to all and cannot be withheld from anyone, people cannot be excluded from enjoying them.

Therefore, the correct answer is that people cannot be excluded from enjoying public goods.

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The complete question is:

People can't be excluded from enjoying which of the following products? private goods private services O public goods durable goods An increase in spending that leads to further increases in spending and GDP, other things equal, describes the income multiplier. the wealth effect. the foreign purchase effect. inflation.

Alloy Wheel Manufacturing has accumulated the following budget data for year 2020:
1. Sales: 42,000 units, unit selling price $60.
2. Cost of one unit of finished goods: Direct materials 2 pounds at $5.25 per pound, direct labor 1.5 hours at $11.50 per hour, and manufacturing overhead $5.75 per direct labor hour.
3. Inventories (raw materials only): Beginning, 11,000 pounds; ending, 13,500 pounds.
4. Raw materials cost: $5.25 per pound.
5. Selling and administrative expenses: $185,000.6. Income taxes: 40% of income before income taxes.Required:
(a) Prepare a schedule showing the computation of cost of goods sold for 2020.
(b) Prepare a budgeted income statement for 2020.

Answers

Schedule showing the computation of cost of goods sold(COGS) for 2020.

Units sold: 42,000 units

Cost of one unit of finished goods:

Direct materials: 2 pounds x $5.25 per pound = $10.50

Direct labor: 1.5 hours x $11.50 per hour = $17.25

Manufacturing overhead: $5.75 per direct labor hour x 1.5 hours = $8.63

Total cost per unit: $10.50 + $17.25 + $8.63 = $36.38

Cost of Goods Sold = Units sold x Total cost per unit

Cost of Goods Sold = 42,000 units x $36.38 = $1,527,960

Therefore, the cost of goods sold for 2020 is $1,527,960.

Budgeted income statement for 2020:

Sales revenue $2,520,000

Cost of Goods Sold $1,527,960

Gross profit $992,040

Selling and administrative expenses $185,000.6

Operating income $807,039.4

Income taxes $322,815.76

Net income $483,424.24

This is calculated as follows:

Sales: 42,000 units, unit selling price $60

Sales revenue = Units sold x Unit selling price

Sales revenue = 42,000 units x $60 = $2,520,000

Cost of Goods Sold: $1,527,960 (As calculated above)

Gross profit = Sales revenue - Cost of Goods Sold

Gross profit = $2,520,000 - $1,527,960 = $992,040

Operating income = Gross profit - Selling and administrative expenses

Operating income = $992,040 - $185,000.6 = $807,039.4

Income before income taxes = Operating income

Income taxes = 40% x Income before income taxes

Income taxes = 40% x $807,039.4 = $322,815.76

Net income = Operating income - Income taxes

Net income = $806,240 - $322,815.76 = $483,424.24

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what type of compensation is based on a percentage of the income an individual esthetician generates?

Answers

The type of compensation that is based on a percentage of the income an individual esthetician generates is known as commission-based compensation.

This is a payment method that involves paying a certain percentage of sales revenue to the employee who made the sale. Commission-based compensation is commonly used in industries where sales are an essential part of the job. In the beauty industry, commission-based compensation is often used for estheticians and other beauty professionals who work in salons or spas. These estheticians earn a percentage of the income they generate, which motivates them to work harder to attract more customers and provide better services. In commission-based compensation, the amount of money an esthetician earns is directly related to their sales performance. This means that the more sales an esthetician makes, the higher their compensation will be. Commission-based compensation is a great way to incentivize employees to work harder and generate more income for the business. It's also a way for employees to earn more money based on their performance, which can be motivating and rewarding.

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the amount of cash paid for s&a expenses during the month of november is

Answers

I'm sorry, but without additional information, I cannot provide a specific answer to your question.

The amount of cash paid for S&A (selling and administrative) expenses during the month of November will depend on various factors, such as the company's size, industry, and financial situation. S&A expenses generally include costs related to marketing, advertising, salaries and benefits of administrative staff, office supplies, rent, and utilities. To determine the exact amount of cash paid for S&A expenses during November, you would need to refer to the company's financial statements or accounting records.

S&A expenses are a significant component of a company's operating expenses, which can impact its profitability and cash flow. Understanding the amount of cash paid for S&A expenses during a specific period, such as November, can help business owners and managers assess their company's financial performance and make informed decisions about future investments and expenditures. However, this information is specific to each company and cannot be provided without further context. To provide the amount of cash paid for S&A (Selling and Administrative) expenses during the month of November, I would need the specific figures or data related to those expenses. S&A expenses are costs related to the selling and administrative functions of a business. These can include salaries, rent, advertising, and other operating costs. To calculate the cash paid for these expenses during November, you would need to sum up all the relevant costs incurred in that month.

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A course in MBA gives a student strategic insight and opens opportunities in business and entrepreneur .Let's consider you are an entrepreneur who want wants to market MBA program of a university.
Note : please write your own words , don't copy from internet or from other experts.

Answers

If you are an entrepreneur looking to market an MBA program offered by a university, it is important to emphasize how this program can provide students with strategic insight that can help them succeed in business and entrepreneurship.

There are many reasons why students may be interested in pursuing an MBA program, but one of the most compelling is the opportunity to gain strategic insight that can help them navigate complex business environments and make effective decisions. This can be especially valuable for students who are interested in starting their own businesses or pursuing careers as entrepreneurs.To effectively market an MBA program, it is important to highlight the specific benefits that this program can offer to students. This might include information about the courses that are included in the program, the faculty who teach those courses, and the resources that are available to students throughout their time in the program. It may also be helpful to highlight the success stories of past graduates, particularly those who have gone on to achieve success in their own businesses or entrepreneurial ventures.By emphasizing the strategic value of an MBA program and highlighting the opportunities that it can provide to students, you can help to attract more prospective students to the program and increase its visibility within the broader business community.

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the money multiplier is question 7 options: 1/(1 – mps). interest payment divided by yield. yield divided by interest payment. 1 divided by the reserve requirement.

Answers

The money multiplier is the amount by which the money supply is increased for each dollar of increase in bank reserves. It's represented by the ratio of the money supply to the amount of reserves held by banks. This ratio is calculated using the following formula: Money multiplier = 1 / Reserve requirement. The money multiplier formula is 1 / Reserve requirement. For example, if the reserve requirement is 10%, then the money multiplier would be 10. By increasing or decreasing bank reserves, the central bank can affect the money supply and the level of economic activity.

A reserve requirement is the percentage of deposits that banks must hold as reserves. It is set by the central bank as a monetary policy tool to control the money supply. By changing the reserve requirement, the central bank can affect the amount of money that banks can lend out.

For example, if the reserve requirement is 10%, then banks must hold $0.10 in reserves for every $1.00 in deposits. This means that they can lend out $0.90 for every $1.00 in deposits. The money multiplier in this case would be 1 / 0.10 = 10.
To calculate the maximum increase in the money supply, we can use the following formula: Maximum increase in the money supply = Initial increase in reserves x Money multiplier.
For instance, if the initial increase in reserves is $1,000 and the money multiplier is 10, then the maximum increase in the money supply would be $10,000.
The money multiplier is an essential concept in the banking system, as it explains how banks can create money through lending. It is calculated by dividing the money supply by the amount of reserves held by banks. The reserve requirement is the percentage of deposits that banks must hold as reserves. By changing the reserve requirement, the central bank can influence the money supply and the money multiplier.

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Many firms offer consumers a "most favored nation" clause, which is a guarantee that the firm will never sell their product to any other buyer at a lower price. According to this price guarantee, if a purchaser ever does find out that the seller has sold the product to another buyer at a lower price, the seller will reimburse that consumer an amount equal to the price differential (.e., the difference between the higher price the consumer paid and the lower price paid by the other buyer). In the space below, carefully and clearly explain how this seemingly competitive clause can actually help to uphold and promote collusive outcomes.

Answers

The "most favored nation" (MFN) clause, despite appearing competitive, can actually contribute to upholding and promoting collusive outcomes in certain situations.

This clause guarantees that a firm will not offer its product to any other buyer at a lower price than the purchaser. While it may seem like a fair practice to ensure price consistency, it can create a barrier to price competition among buyers.

In collusive scenarios, competing firms may enter into agreements to fix prices or allocate markets, creating an anti-competitive environment. By implementing an MFN clause, a firm effectively eliminates the possibility of offering lower prices to other buyers. This can discourage potential buyers from seeking better deals or negotiating for lower prices, as they are assured that they are receiving the best price available.

In turn, the MFN clause helps sustain a stable pricing environment, as buyers are less likely to engage in price comparison and competition. The sellers, who are parties to the collusion, benefit from reduced price pressures and can maintain artificially inflated prices across the market. This practice, although anti-competitive, can provide stability and higher profits for colluding firms.

It's important to note that collusive behavior and anti-competitive practices are generally discouraged and regulated by competition laws in many jurisdictions. Such agreements can harm consumer welfare, limit market competition, and stifle innovation. Therefore, it is crucial for regulatory authorities to monitor and address any potential anti-competitive behavior, including the use of MFN clauses, to ensure fair and competitive market conditions for consumers.

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Which of the following is a power tell of submissive individuals?
Using a lower vocal register, and speaking more slowly
Adopting open postures
Modifying speech style to sound more like the person they are talking to
Speaking first, and influencing the conversation thereafter

Answers

A power tell of submissive individuals is modifying speech style to sound more like the person they are talking to.

How do submissive individuals adapt their speech style?

When it comes to power dynamics, submissive individuals often employ certain behaviors that convey their submissive nature. One notable power tell is the modification of speech style to align with the person they are conversing with. Submissive individuals tend to adjust their language, tone, and even vocabulary to mirror the speech patterns of the dominant individual, aiming to establish rapport and avoid potential conflict.

This mimicry of speech can be seen as a subconscious attempt to signal submissiveness and comply with the expectations set by the dominant party. By mirroring the speech style of the other person, submissive individuals may seek to create a sense of harmony and to convey their willingness to submit to the dominant individual's influence.

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Explain the concepts of: Segmentation - Targeting - Positioning, and mention the differences between terms.
1 to 2 pages maximum. Please note that your answers should be supported with examples.

Answers

Segmentation, Targeting, and Positioning (STP) is a marketing strategy used by companies to differentiate their products or services and enhance their competitiveness in the market. This article provides an explanation of each of these concepts and highlights the differences between them. Segmentation is a process of dividing the market into distinct groups of consumers who have similar characteristics and needs.

The purpose of segmentation is to enable the company to develop specific marketing strategies that are tailored to the needs of each group. For instance, if a company sells clothing, it may segment the market based on age, gender, income, lifestyle, or geographic location. Once the market is segmented, the company can identify the needs and preferences of each group, and develop products that meet their needs. TargetingTargeting is a process of selecting one or more segments that the company will focus on serving. The purpose of targeting is to enable the company to allocate its resources effectively and efficiently. The company may choose to target one segment or several segments, depending on its resources and goals. For instance, if a company sells luxury cars, it may choose to target the high-income segment, while if it sells budget cars, it may target the low-income segment.PositioningPositioning is a process of developing a unique and compelling image of the product or service in the mind of the consumer. The purpose of positioning is to create a competitive advantage and distinguish the product from its competitors. For instance, if a company sells coffee, it may position its product as premium, affordable, or convenient. Once the product is positioned, the company can develop marketing strategies that reinforce the desired image and persuade the consumer to choose the product over its competitors.Differences between STP conceptsThe key differences between STP concepts are summarized as follows:Segmentation vs. TargetingSegmentation focuses on dividing the market into distinct groups, while targeting focuses on selecting one or more segments to serve.Segmentation is a broader concept that includes the process of dividing the market, while targeting is a narrower concept that focuses on the selection of a specific segment.Segmentation is a prerequisite for targeting. A company cannot select a segment to serve without first segmenting the market.Targeting vs. PositioningTargeting is a process of selecting one or more segments to serve, while positioning is a process of developing a unique image of the product in the mind of the consumer.Targeting focuses on the selection of a specific segment, while positioning focuses on the development of a unique image of the product in the mind of the consumer.Targeting is a prerequisite for positioning. A company cannot develop a unique image of the product without first selecting a specific segment to serve.Segmentation vs. PositioningSegmentation focuses on dividing the market into distinct groups, while positioning focuses on developing a unique image of the product in the mind of the consumer.Segmentation is a prerequisite for positioning. A company cannot develop a unique image of the product without first segmenting the market.Segmentation is a broader concept that includes the process of dividing the market, while positioning is a narrower concept that focuses on the development of a unique image of the product in the mind of the consumer.ExampleConsider a company that sells shoes. It may segment the market based on age, gender, income, or geographic location. If it decides to target the high-income segment, it may position its product as premium, comfortable, or fashionable. This would enable the company to develop marketing strategies that are tailored to the needs and preferences of the high-income segment and distinguish its product from its competitors.

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When using the global measurements (T, I, & OE) technique
for the financial analysis of a proposed expenditure, which
questions we need to ask?

Answers

The T, I, & OE technique is an effective financial analysis method that can be used to evaluate a proposed expenditure.

The T, I, & OE technique is a financial analysis technique that uses global measurements. T stands for time value, I stands for investment value, and OE stands for operating efficiency. These measurements are used to evaluate the feasibility of a proposed expenditure by answering the following questions:

This question helps to determine whether the expenditure is worth making based on its potential future value. This question helps to determine whether the expenditure is a good investment based on the expected return on investment. This question helps to determine whether the expenditure is efficient and cost-effective based on its ability to generate revenue and reduce costs.

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What are the benefits of a well-orchestrated supply chain
plan?

Answers

A well-orchestrated supply chain plan offers several benefits:

Efficient Operations: By streamlining the flow of goods and information, a well-planned supply chain enhances operational efficiency. It reduces delays, minimizes bottlenecks, and optimizes inventory management, leading to improved productivity and cost-effectiveness.

Customer Satisfaction: A well-executed supply chain plan ensures timely delivery of products, enabling businesses to meet customer demands promptly. This leads to increased customer satisfaction, loyalty, and positive brand reputation.

Cost Reduction: Effective supply chain planning allows businesses to identify cost-saving opportunities. It enables better negotiation with suppliers, optimal inventory control, and efficient transportation management, resulting in reduced operational costs and improved profitability.

Agility and Adaptability: A well-orchestrated supply chain plan enables businesses to respond quickly to changes in market demand, supply disruptions, or other external factors. It allows for better risk management, flexibility, and adaptability, ensuring resilience in the face of uncertainties.

In conclusion, a well-executed supply chain plan brings numerous benefits, including enhanced operational efficiency, customer satisfaction, cost reduction, and agility. It enables businesses to optimize their processes, effectively meet customer demands, reduce costs, and adapt to changing market conditions, ultimately contributing to their overall success and competitiveness.

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A demand schedule holds
Select one:
1.product price constant.
2.equilibrium constant.
3.product quantity constant.
4.product quality constant.

Answers

A demand schedule holds the product price constant.

A demand schedule is a tabular representation that shows the quantity of a product or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at different price levels, assuming all other factors remain constant. In a demand schedule, the product price is held constant while the quantity demanded varies.

The purpose of a demand schedule is to demonstrate the relationship between price and quantity demanded, ceteris paribus (all other factors held constant). By keeping the price constant and observing the corresponding quantity demanded at different price levels, economists can construct a demand curve, which shows the downward sloping nature of demand.

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What is the current unemployment rate in the United States as of
January 2021? What was the unemployment rate in the United States
in January 2020? How has the pandemic affected the unemployment
rate

Answers

In January 2020, before the COVID-19 pandemic significantly impacted the global economy, the unemployment rate in the United States was 3.6%. This was relatively low compared to historical averages.

My responses are based on information available up until September 2021. As a result, I don't have access to the most recent data on the current unemployment rate in the United States as of January 2021 or specific details about the pandemic's impact on the unemployment rate. It is recommended to refer to reliable sources such as the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) or official government publications for the most up-to-date and accurate information on the current unemployment rate and its relationship to the pandemic.

However, I can provide you with historical information. In January 2020, before the COVID-19 pandemic significantly impacted the global economy, the unemployment rate in the United States was 3.6%. This was relatively low compared to historical averages.

The pandemic had a profound effect on the unemployment rate as businesses faced closures, layoffs, and economic uncertainty. From March to April 2020, the unemployment rate in the United States spiked to 14.8%, representing a rapid increase in job losses. This increase was primarily driven by lockdown measures, travel restrictions, and the overall economic disruption caused by the pandemic.

Throughout 2020 and into 2021, the unemployment rate fluctuated as the economy experienced various phases of recovery and reopening. Government interventions, such as stimulus packages and vaccination campaigns, played a role in shaping the trajectory of the unemployment rate. However, the specific impact of the pandemic on the unemployment rate can vary over time and across different regions and industries.

For the most accurate and current information on the unemployment rate, I recommend referring to official sources such as the Bureau of Labor Statisti

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The following payoff table shows profit for a decision analysis problem with two decision alternatives and three states of nature. States of Nature Decision Alternative 5₁ 5₂ $3 d₁ 260 110 35 d�

Answers

Hence, the decision-maker should choose d₁ for the states of nature 5₁ and 5₂ and d₂ for the state of nature $3

The given payoff table indicates the profit for a decision analysis problem with two decision alternatives and three states of nature. The states of nature are 5₁, 5₂, and $3. The decision alternatives are d₁ and d₂. For decision alternative d₁ and state of nature 5₁, the profit is $260, for state of nature 5₂, it is $110, and for state of nature $3, it is $35. For decision alternative d₂ and state of nature 5₁, the profit is $270, for state of nature 5₂, it is $120, and for state of nature $3, it is $45. If the decision-maker is risk-averse, the decision alternative d₁ is best because it has a smaller loss when the worst state of nature occurs. The decision alternative d₁ is the best for the states of nature 5₁ and 5₂ but the decision alternative d₂ is the best for the state of nature $3. Hence, the decision-maker should choose d₁ for the states of nature 5₁ and 5₂ and d₂ for the state of nature $3.Therefore, it can be said that decision-making involves selecting the best alternative from various alternatives to achieve a particular objective. Decision-making under uncertainty involves dealing with situations where the outcomes of alternatives are uncertain. A decision analysis problem involves identifying possible alternatives and states of nature, estimating probabilities for the states of nature, and evaluating the alternatives based on the payoff table. By analyzing the payoff table, one can determine the best alternative for each state of nature.

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Which of the following is true regarding WBI vs classroom training?
A. Employees react more favorably to classroom training
B. Blended courses may be the most effective
C. WBI should be avoided
D. Classroom training is better for all types of learning (e.g, declarative, procedural, knowledge)
E. All of the above

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Blended courses may be the most effective. This statement is true regarding WBI vs classroom training. Hence the true option is B.

Web-based training is known as WBI. It is a technique of learning that is available on the internet and is completely self-contained. WBI may consist of a combination of various forms of e-learning. For instance, synchronous and asynchronous sessions, videos, animations, games, quizzes, and simulations. As a result, WBI is useful for organizations as it allows them to offer training to their employees at their convenience and flexibility.

Classroom training is a form of traditional instruction in which the instructor and students meet in a designated classroom setting. In such training, students learn through interaction with the instructor and with one another. They may also learn through various materials and tools like chalkboards, whiteboards, audiovisual materials, handouts, and textbooks.

Types of learning: Declarative learning is the learning of information that can be expressed verbally or in writing. It is usually done through direct instruction, reading, and studying. A few examples include learning vocabulary, facts, historical dates, and concepts. Procedural learning is the learning of skills and procedures. This type of learning typically occurs through practice and feedback. A few examples include playing the piano, driving a car, using a software program, and assembling an item. B. Blended courses may be the most effective.

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Processes in a supply chain are said to be integrated when members of the supply chain work together to make purchasing, inventory, production, quality, logistics and other decisions that impact the overall profits of the supply chain. Select one: O True O False

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The given statement “Processes in a supply chain are said to be integrated when members of the supply chain work together to make purchasing, inventory, production, quality, logistics and other decisions that impact the overall profits of the supply chain” is true.

Supply Chain Management (SCM) is the management of the flow of goods and services, which involves the movement and storage of raw materials, work-in-progress inventory, and finished goods, as well as end-to-end order fulfillment from point of origin to point of consumption. In order to manage and streamline the process of the supply chain, it is essential to integrate various processes and decisions related to purchasing, inventory, production, quality, logistics, and other aspects that impact the overall profits of the supply chain. Therefore, the integration of processes in the supply chain is essential for better management and profitability of the supply chain. Hence, the given statement is true.

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Explain the effect that the following situation will have on the size of the multiplier The government extends unemployment benefits as a response to a lingering recession the value of the multiplier.

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The multiplier effect is a term used in economics to describe the increase in total output caused by an increase in investment, government spending, or consumption.

It can be calculated as the ratio of a change in the final income to a change in any one of its components. A recession refers to a significant decline in economic activity, which leads to job losses, decreased consumer spending, and reduced investment.

During such times, the government can use fiscal policies like increasing unemployment benefits to stimulate economic activity. The increase in government spending on unemployment benefits will put more money into people's pockets. They will have more money to spend, leading to an increase in demand for goods and services.

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Situation to discuss: 1 (We have flow of $1,500 in year 1 that is going to grow al 4% per year on an ongoing basis. How do you we determinate the flow at year 100? Explain in a paragraph. 2) We have a flow of 100.000 in year 1 that decreases by 6% per year on a continuous basis. How do we determinate the flow in year 50? Explain in a paragraph. 3) We have a flow of 300 in year 1 that decreases at rate of 100 per years. How many geometric series are formed by the flow? Name the series based on the way set up the graphs. Explain what the nomenclature would be to obtain a present value at 10% interest.

Answers

The present value of the cash flows would be $471.90.

1) In order to determine the flow at year 100, we must use the formula for calculating present value of a perpetuity, where the cash flow grows at a constant rate indefinitely.

The formula is:P = C / (r - g)

Where,P = Present value of cash flowC = Annual cash flowr = Discount rateg = Annual growth rate

Assuming a discount rate of 4%, we can calculate the present value of the cash flow in year 1 as:

P = $1,500 / (0.04 - 0.04) = $37,500Since the cash flow is growing at a rate of 4% per year, we can use the formula for calculating the future value of a growing perpetuity to find the cash flow in year 100.

The formula is:FV = C / (r - g)

Where,FV = Future value of cash flowC = Annual cash flowr = Discount rateg = Annual growth rate

Assuming a discount rate of 4%, we can calculate the future value of the cash flow in year 100 as:FV = $37,500 * [(1 + 0.04)^100 - 1] / 0.04= $1,352,988.98

Therefore, the flow at year 100 will be $1,352,988.98.2)

In order to determine the flow in year 50, we must use the formula for calculating future value of a cash flow with a constant rate of decrease.

The formula is:FV = PV * (1 - r)^t  Where,FV = Future value of cash flow

PV = Present value of cash flowr = Annual rate of decrease in cash flowt = Time period

Assuming a rate of decrease of 6% per year, we can calculate the cash flow in year 50 as:FV = $100,000 * (1 - 0.06)^50= $10,866.03

Therefore, the flow in year 50 will be $10,866.03.3) The flow of 300 in year 1 is decreasing at a rate of 100 per year. Therefore, the flow will form 3 geometric series, each with a common ratio of 0.6667.

The first series will have 3 terms, the second series will have 2 terms, and the third series will have 1 term.The nomenclature for obtaining a present value at 10% interest would be:P = (C1 / (1 + r)^1) + (C2 / (1 + r)^2) + ... + (Cn / (1 + r)^n)

Where,P = Present value of cash flowsC = Cash flow in each periodr = Discount rate

Assuming a discount rate of 10%, we can calculate the present value of the cash flows as:P = (300 / (1 + 0.1)^1) + (200 / (1 + 0.1)^2) + (100 / (1 + 0.1)^3)= $471.90

Therefore, the present value of the cash flows would be $471.90.

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If Bank of Hayward has a required reserve ratio of 10 percent, it can legally increase its loans by: Group of answer choices
A. $80,000.
B. $740,000.
C. $20,000.
D. $160,000.

Answers

If Bank of Hayward has a required reserve ratio of 10 percent, it can legally increase its loans by C. $20,000.

How much could the Bank increase loans by ?

Calculate the required reserves based on the given required reserve ratio of 10 percent.

Required Reserves = Transactions Account x Required Reserve Ratio

Required Reserves = $ 800,000 x 0.10

Required Reserves = $ 80, 000

.

Therefore, the bank can legally increase its loans by the amount equal to the excess reserves:

Excess Reserves = Total Reserves - Required Reserves

Excess Reserves = $ 100,000 - $ 80, 000

Excess Reserves = $ 20,000

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How many observations should be taken to be 95% confident of being within + 5% of the actual time a machine is busy if it is believed that the machine is in use 75% of the time? Select one: A. 364 observations B. 772 observations C. 1,200 observations D. 289 observations

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the correct answer is 772 observations.Based on the given options, the closest value to 772 is option B, 772 observations.

To be 95% confident that the estimate is within +5% of the actual time a machine is busy, the number of observations required can be determined using the formula for sample size calculation in work sampling studies.

The formula is given as:

n = [(Z * Z * p * (1 - p)) / E^2]

Where:

n = sample size

Z = Z-value corresponding to the desired confidence level (in this case, 95% confidence corresponds to a Z-value of approximately 1.96)

p = estimated proportion of time the machine is busy (in this case, 75% or 0.75)

E = acceptable margin of error (in this case, 5% or 0.05)

Plugging in the values into the formula, we get:

n = [(1.96 * 1.96 * 0.75 * (1 - 0.75)) / 0.05^2]

Simplifying the calculation, we find:n ≈ 770.16

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When Cindy borrows a $100 loan at 7.0 percent, she wants interest to be compounded OA. monthly OB. quarterly OC. weekly O D. annually

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D. Annually: This means that the interest would be calculated and added to the principal amount once a year.

When Cindy borrows a $100 loan at 7.0 percent, the frequency at which interest is compounded will determine how often the interest is added to the loan balance and recalculated.

Compounding refers to the process of earning interest on both the original principal amount and any previously accumulated interest.

In this case, the s for compounding frequency are monthly, quarterly, weekly, or annually. Each  represents how frequently the interest is added to the loan balance.

If interest is compounded monthly, it means that at the end of each month, the interest is added to the loan balance. Quarterly compounding implies that the interest is added every three months, weekly compounding means interest is added every week, and annual compounding means interest is added once a year.

The choice of compounding frequency affects the total amount of interest paid by Cindy over the loan period. Generally, more frequent compounding leads to higher interest payments because the interest is added more frequently.

To determine the best compounding frequency, Cindy should consider her financial situation and preferences. If she prefers to have a lower overall interest cost, annual compounding might be suitable. However, if she wants to minimize the loan balance quickly, more frequent compounding, such as monthly or quarterly, could be beneficial. Ultimately, the choice depends on Cindy's financial goals and the terms offered by the lender.

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the cost of reworking defective products before shipping to customers would be classified as which type of quality costs?

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Quality costs are the expenses incurred by a company to maintain the quality of its products or services. These costs can be classified into four categories: prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs, and external failure costs.

Prevention costs are incurred to prevent quality problems from occurring in the first place. These costs include employee training, process improvement, and equipment maintenance. Appraisal costs are incurred to identify quality problems, such as inspection and testing. Internal failure costs are incurred when defects are discovered before the product is shipped to the customer. These costs include the cost of reworking the defective product, scrap, and downtime. External failure costs are incurred when defects are discovered after the product has been shipped to the customer. These costs include warranty repairs, product returns, and legal fees. Based on the information provided in the question, the cost of reworking defective products before shipping to customers would be classified as internal failure costs. These costs occur when a company discovers defects before the product is shipped to the customer and must take corrective action to fix the problem.

In summary, the cost of reworking defective products before shipping to customers would be classified as internal failure costs, which is one of the four categories of quality costs.

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Identify the one true statement about currency forward contracts in the absence of bid-ask spreads: a.If you believe that the spot rate in 3 months will be larger than today’s 3-month forward rate, you should then sell forward. b,Extreme bind hedging, which is hedging the present value of all future FC cashflows, carries very little risk. c.A combination of forward contracts with the same maturity and different inception allows us to speculate on the value of forward contracts. d.The best way to hedge against FC cashflows is to simply avoid FC cashflows and invoice always in HC. There is no economic loss from doing this. e.None of the suggested answers.

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The one true statement about currency forward contracts in the absence of bid-ask spreads is: If you believe that the spot rate in 3 months will be larger than today's 3-month forward rate, you should then sell forward. Therefore, the main answer to the question is "a."

a. If you believe that the spot rate in 3 months will be larger than today's 3-month forward rate, you should then sell forward.

In general, a currency forward contract is a contract that enables you to lock in a future exchange rate for a currency transaction. Forward contracts are used by businesses and investors to minimize currency risk exposure. As a result, the given statement is true because in a situation where the spot rate in 3 months is greater than today's 3-month forward rate, then the investor is in a favorable position and can sell forward to obtain a profit. The statement is valid, and therefore option "a" is the main answer.

b. Extreme bind hedging, which is hedging the present value of all future FC cash flows, carries very little risk.

This statement is false because hedging the present value of all future FC cash flows, which is also known as extreme bind hedging, carries a significant amount of risk.

c. A combination of forward contracts with the same maturity and different inception allows us to speculate on the value of forward contracts.

This statement is false because the purpose of forward contracts is to minimize currency risk exposure rather than speculating on the value of forward contracts. Therefore, this statement is invalid.

d. The best way to hedge against FC cash flows is to simply avoid FC cash flows and invoice always in HC. There is no economic loss from doing this.

This statement is also invalid because companies that generate cash flows in foreign currencies cannot avoid FC cash flows. They must also consider the impact of currency fluctuations on their business. Invoice in HC might also be costly due to currency conversion fees. Therefore, the statement is incorrect. e. None of the suggested answers.

The answer is not e, which means that one of the given statements is valid. Hence, the answer is "a."

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One of mobile platform security issues is:
a. Smishing
b. Many devices have no upgrade features
c. Fake offerings
d. DDoS attacks11:55 PM

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One of the mobile platform security issues is: a. Smishing

Smishing refers to a type of cyber attack where attackers use text messages or SMS (Short Message Service) to trick users into revealing sensitive information or performing harmful actions. It is a combination of the words "SMS" and "phishing." Attackers may send deceptive text messages that appear to be from a legitimate source, such as a bank or a service provider, and try to convince users to click on malicious links, provide personal information, or download malicious content.

Smishing attacks exploit the trust and familiarity people have with text messages, making it a significant security concern for mobile platforms. Users should exercise caution and verify the authenticity of any messages they receive, especially if they involve sensitive information or requests for actions.

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"The management team of a company is evaluating the use of either return on investment or residual income as a measure of the performance of the company’s lines of business. In a presentation about the two measures, which of the following statements is correct?
Both measures include key elements such as revenues, costs, and level of investments, which are critical for top management decision-making.
Both measures avoid all potential goal-congruency problems within the organization.
The only disadvantage of the measures is that they both have a long-term focus, rather than a short-term focus.
Both measures can be manipulated to suit the user’s purposes as the calculation is based on accounting numbers.
Group of answer choices
I and II only
I and IV only
II and III only
III and IV only"

Answers

The correct statement regarding the use of return on investment (ROI) and residual income as performance measures for a company's lines of business is: I and IV only.

Statement I is correct: Both ROI and residual income include key elements such as revenues, costs, and level of investments, which are critical for top management decision-making. These measures provide insights into the profitability and efficiency of the company's business units.

Statement IV is also correct: Both ROI and residual income can be manipulated to suit the user's purposes as the calculations are based on accounting numbers. Managers may have incentives to manipulate the figures to present a more favorable performance.

Statement II is incorrect: Neither ROI nor residual income eliminates all potential goal-congruency problems within the organization. Goal-congruency problems can still arise due to conflicts of interest, misaligned incentives, or differences in performance expectations.

Statement III is also incorrect: The disadvantage mentioned, that both measures have a long-term focus rather than a short-term focus, is not applicable. ROI and residual income can be used for both short-term and long-term performance evaluation depending on the needs of the organization.

Therefore, the correct statement is I and IV only.

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A company paid cash for equipment in the amount of $17,000. Prepare the general journal entry.DEBIT: Cash for $17,000; CREDIT: Equipment for $17,000DEBIT: Equipment for $17,000; CREDIT: Depreciation expense for $17,000DEBIT: Equipment for $17,000; CREDIT: Note Payable for $17,000DEBIT: Equipment for $17,000; CREDIT: Cash for $17,000 introduction to optimisation question,i solved the first question, i need help with the second oneplease. please make sure the answer is clear. thank youMAT2008 INTRODUCTION TO OPTIMIZATION HOMEWORK II Due date: May, 224, 2022 1. Consider the problem minimize f(x,X)=(X-2X) + X4. (a) Suppose that Newton's method with line search is used to min- imize the function starting from the point z=(2,1). What is the Newton search direction at this point? Find the next iterate (b) Suppose that backtracing is used. Does the trial step a = 1 satisfy the sufficient decrease condition(Armijo condition) for = 0.27. For what values of a does a satisfy the Armijo condition. 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