exceeding the dielectric strength of a capacitor means you have applied too high a voltage, and probably destroyed the capacitor.

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Answer 1

Yes, exceeding the dielectric strength of a capacitor means that you have applied a voltage that is too high for the capacitor to handle, and this can result in the destruction of the capacitor.

The dielectric strength refers to the maximum voltage that a capacitor's dielectric material can withstand before it breaks down and allows current to flow through it. If the applied voltage exceeds this limit, the dielectric material can become damaged or even vaporized, which can lead to a short circuit or other types of failure. Therefore, it is important to always operate capacitors within their rated voltage range to avoid damaging them and ensure their proper functioning.

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Answer 2

Yes, that is correct. Exceeding the dielectric strength f a capacitor means you have applied too high a voltage, and probably destroyed the capacitor. This occurs when the content loaded surpasses the capacitor's ability to withstand the electric field, resulting in potential damage to the component.

Exceeding the dielectric strength of a capacitor means that you have applied a voltage that is too high for the capacitor to handle, which can cause the insulation material (dielectric) to break down and the capacitor to fail or even be destroyed. It is important to always follow the manufacturer's specifications for voltage ratings and avoid exceeding them to prevent damage to the capacitor.Dielectric strength is defined as the electrical strength of an insulting material. In a sufficiently strong electric field the insulating properties of an insulator breaks down allowing flow of charge. Dielectric strength is measured as the maximum voltage required to produce a dielectric breakdown through a material.
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Related Questions

a characteristic of much byzantine architecture is a clear preference for

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A characteristic of much Byzantine architecture is a clear preference for domes, specifically the large central dome. This preference can be seen in the extensive use of mosaics, frescoes, and colorful marble and stone inlays.

This preference can be explained in detail by considering the following factors:

1. Symbolism: Domes in Byzantine architecture represented the heavens, creating a sense of grandeur and spirituality within the building.

2. Engineering Innovations: Byzantine architects developed advanced techniques, such as pendentives and squinches, to support the weight of large domes, allowing for impressive and stable structures.

3. Natural Light: The large central dome allowed for more windows to be incorporated into the design, which in turn provided better illumination within the building.

4. Aesthetic Appeal: The domed structures added a unique visual appeal to Byzantine architecture, distinguishing it from other architectural styles of the time.

These factors explain why the preference for domes is a key characteristic of Byzantine architecture.

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a characteristic of much Byzantine architecture is a clear preference for intricate decoration and elaborate ornamentation. Byzantine architects often incorporated intricate mosaics, detailed carvings, and ornate sculptures into their buildings, creating a rich and opulent visual experience for the viewer. This emphasis on decorative elements was a key feature of Byzantine architecture, reflecting the importance placed on aesthetics and luxury in the Byzantine Empire.

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an analog signal is different from a digital signal because it (1 point) is easier to duplicate. is continuous. has only specific discrete values. is easier to transmit.

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An analog signal is different from a digital signal because it is continuous, meaning it varies over a continuous range of values, whereas a digital signal only takes on specific discrete values. Although analog signals may be easier to duplicate, they are often more challenging to transmit over long distances without losing fidelity or suffering from interference.


An analog signal is different from a digital signal because it is continuous, meaning it can take on any value within a certain range. In contrast, a digital signal can only take on specific discrete values, usually represented by binary digits (bits), such as 0 and 1.Analog signals are used to represent many types of continuous real-world phenomena, such as sound, light, temperature, pressure, and voltage. They are typically measured as a continuous voltage or current level, and can be transmitted through various means, such as wires or radio waves.While analog signals are easier to transmit in some cases, they are also subject to degradation and interference, which can cause noise and distortion in the signal. Digital signals, on the other hand, are more resilient to noise and distortion, and can be easily duplicated and transmitted over long distances with minimal loss of information.Overall, the choice between analog and digital signals depends on the specific application and the tradeoffs between signal quality, complexity, and cost. An analog signal is different from a digital signal because it is continuous.

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An analog signal is different from a digital signal because it is continuous.

While an analog signal represents a continuous range of values, a digital signal has only specific discrete values.

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All of the following are included in the central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC) except _____.A. CD4 or CD8B. ICAM-1C. CD28D. T-cell receptorE. PKC-

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The answer is E. PKC- is not included in the central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC). The central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC)

Here, It is a molecular structure that forms at the center of the interface between a T-cell and an antigen-presenting cell (APC) during the process of T-cell activation. It is composed of several molecules including CD4 or CD8, ICAM-1, CD28, and the T-cell receptor.
All of the following are included in the central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC) except B. ICAM-1. The c-SMAC typically includes CD4 or CD8, CD28, T-cell receptor, and PKC-. ICAM-1 is not part of the c-SMAC.

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The central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC) is an important structure that is formed during T-cell activation. This structure is composed of various proteins and molecules that are involved in the activation of T-cells. Some of the key components of the c-SMAC include the T-cell receptor (TCR), CD4 or CD8 co-receptors, CD28, and intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1). These molecules play a critical role in mediating T-cell activation and subsequent immune responses.

However, one molecule that is not included in the c-SMAC is PKC-. This is because PKC- is an enzyme that is involved in downstream signaling pathways that are activated after the formation of the c-SMAC. While PKC- is not physically present within the c-SMAC, it is still an important molecule in T-cell activation.Overall, the c-SMAC is a complex structure that is essential for T-cell activation. While several key molecules are present within this structure, it is important to remember that other molecules and signaling pathways are also involved in this process. By understanding the various components of the c-SMAC, researchers can gain important insights into the mechanisms of T-cell activation and develop new therapies for immune-related diseases.

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if one wished to operate at a larger current of 8.1 a while maintaining the rod temperature within the safety limit, the convection coefficient would have to be increased by increasing the velocity of the circulating air. what is the recommended convection coefficient for this case?

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Unfortunately, I cannot provide a recommended convection coefficient for this case as the information provided is insufficient to calculate it. However, it is stated that to operate at a larger current of 8.1 A while maintaining the rod temperature within the safety limit, the convection coefficient would have to be increased by increasing the velocity of the circulating air.

This means that increasing the velocity of the air would help in dissipating the heat generated by the larger current and prevent the rod from overheating.It is not possible to provide a specific recommended convection coefficient for this case without additional information about the specific application and operating conditions. The convection coefficient is dependent on a variety of factors, including the geometry of the system, the velocity of the air, and the temperature difference between the rod and the surrounding air.However, in general, increasing the velocity of the circulating air can help to increase the convection coefficient and improve heat transfer from the rod to the surrounding environment. This can help to maintain the rod temperature within a safe operating range while allowing for a larger current of 8.1 A.In practical applications, the recommended convection coefficient may be specified by industry standards or guidelines, or may be determined through experimentation or simulation. It is important to ensure that the convection coefficient is properly calculated and applied to ensure safe and reliable operation of the system.To determine the recommended convection coefficient for operating at a larger current of 8.1 A while maintaining the rod temperature within the safety limit, we need more information about the specific system, materials, and safety limits. However, in general, increasing the velocity of the circulating air can help enhance the convection coefficient, leading to better heat dissipation and keeping the temperature within the desired range.

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for overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from a of the step change voltage to b of the step change voltage. group of answer choices a - 20%, b - 80% a - 50%, b - 50% a - 10%, b - 90% a - 0%, b - 100%

Answers

For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from a of the step change voltage to b of the step change voltage. The correct answer is a - 10%, b - 90%. This means that the rise time is the time it takes for the transient response to go from 10% to 90% of the step change voltage.

It is important to note that the rise time is dependent on the damping ratio of the system, which affects the speed at which the transient response reaches its steady state value.For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes for the transient response to go from a of the step change voltage to b of the step change voltage, where a and b are specific percentages of the final steady-state value.The correct answer is a - 10%, b - 90%.In an overdamped or critically damped system, the response of the system to a step change in voltage is slower than in an underdamped system, and there is no oscillation in the response. The rise time is defined as the time it takes for the output to rise from 10% to 90% of its steady-state value.For example, if the steady-state value of the output is 100 volts, the rise time for an overdamped or critically damped system would be the time it takes for the output to rise from 10 volts to 90 volts (i.e., 10% to 90% of 100 volts).Overall, the rise time is an important characteristic of the transient response of a system, as it determines how quickly the system responds to changes in input and reaches its steady-state value.For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from 10% (a) of the step change voltage to 90% (b) of the step change voltage. So, the correct answer is: a - 10%, b - 90%.

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For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from 0% of the step change voltage to 100% of the step change voltage.

For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from a of the step change voltage to b of the step change voltage, where a is 0% and b is 100%.

Therefore, the answer would be a - 0%, b - 100%.

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Give me three types of control systems

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There are various types of control systems, but here are three common types:

1. Open-loop control system: In this type of system, the control action is determined solely by the input signal. The output of the system is not compared to the desired output or reference signal. An example of an open-loop control system is a washing machine with a timer that runs for a fixed duration regardless of the state of the clothes inside.

2. Closed-loop or feedback control system: In this type of system, the output of the system is measured and compared to the desired output, and the control action is adjusted accordingly. This type of system uses feedback to continuously adjust the output to match the desired value. An example of a feedback control system is a thermostat that measures the temperature of a room and adjusts the heating or cooling system to maintain a desired temperature.

3. Digital control system: In this type of system, the control variables are processed digitally. The input and output signals are sampled and converted to digital signals, and then the control algorithm is executed using digital processing techniques. This type of system is commonly used in modern industrial control systems and robotics.
Three basic types of control systems are available to executives:
(1) output control,
(2) behavioral control, and
(3) clan control.

true or false. all else being equal, eccentricity in loading improves the ability of a line weld to support the load.

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False. All else being equal, eccentricity in loading reduces the ability of a line weld to support the load. Eccentricity refers to the deviation of the applied load from the centerline of the weld, which creates a bending moment that can lead to failure or deformation of the weld. A weld that is loaded concentrically, or along its centerline, is better able to support the load without experiencing these detrimental effects.

False. Eccentricity in loading refers to the application of a load that is not centered on the axis of the weld. In general, eccentric loading is not desirable as it creates bending moments on the weld, which can lead to increased stresses and potential failureThe ability of a line weld to support a load is influenced by various factors, including the quality of the weld, the material properties, and the design of the joint. The load capacity of a weld can be improved by proper design, such as increasing the weld size or using stronger materials.Therefore, it cannot be said that eccentricity in loading improves the ability of a line weld to support the load. In fact, it is generally considered detrimental to the weld's ability to support load. Welds are designed to handle axial loading, and eccentric loading can lead to premature failure of the weld. Hence, it is important to avoid eccentric loading whenever possible and ensure that the weld is properly designed and fabricated to handle the intended loads.
False. Eccentricity in loading refers to the application of a load away from the central axis, which can create additional stresses on a line weld. This may reduce the ability of the line weld to support the load effectively, as it could lead to a higher risk of failure under the uneven distribution of stress.

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The statement ''all else being equal, eccentricity in loading improves the ability of a line weld to support the load is true because distribution enhances the ability of the line weld to support the load effectively.

Eccentricity refers to the distribution of the load away from the central axis, which can help in better load distribution. This improved distribution enhances the ability of the line weld to support the load effectively.

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building techniques using steel played an important role in promoting the decentralization of the urban area. true or false

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It is true that building techniques using steel played an important role in promoting the decentralization of the urban area.

Building techniques using steel played an important role in promoting the decentralization of the urban area. Steel is a versatile and durable material that allows for the construction of high-rise buildings, bridges, and other structures that can support large populations. Steel allows for the construction of taller buildings with larger floor areas, which leads to more efficient land use. This, in turn, encourages the spreading out of urban areas, as businesses and residents can be accommodated in smaller footprints. This has enabled cities to expand vertically, rather than horizontally, which helps to reduce urban sprawl and preserve natural areas.

Additionally, steel construction is often faster and more cost-effective than traditional building methods, making it an attractive option for developers looking to build in urban areas.  Steel's strength and durability enable the creation of longer bridges and tunnels, connecting urban areas with their surrounding regions and promoting further decentralization. Overall, the use of steel in building techniques has been instrumental in promoting decentralization and sustainable urban development.

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The statement "Building techniques using steel played an important role in promoting the decentralization of the urban area" is true because this helped to decentralize urban areas by creating new opportunities for growth and expansion outside of the city center.

Building techniques using steel allowed for taller and stronger structures to be built, which made it possible to construct buildings in areas that were previously considered too crowded or expensive for development. Additionally, steel buildings were often cheaper and faster to construct than traditional brick or stone structures, making them a more attractive option for developers looking to build in suburban or rural areas.

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the sum of the numbers (1ae)16 and (bbd)16 is

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The sum and product of each hexadecimal number are for a D6A, 1A3F88 for b 216BB, 1438D5A for c ACD8F, B051FA2E for d E0BAA8, 92A26ABAE4

Here is how you find the sum and product of each of these pairs of hexadecimal numbers.

a) (1AE)16, (BBC)16
Sum: 1AE + BBC = D6A (in hexadecimal)
Product: 1AE * BBC = 1A3F88 (in hexadecimal)

b) (20CBA)16, (A01)16
Sum: 20CBA + A01 = 216BB (in hexadecimal)
Product: 20CBA * A01 = 1438D5A (in hexadecimal)

c) (ABCDE)16, (1111)16
Sum: ABCDE + 1111 = ACD8F (in hexadecimal)
Product: ABCDE * 1111 = B051FA2E (in hexadecimal)
d) (E0000E)16, (BAAA)16
Sum: E0000E + BAAA = E0BAA8 (in hexadecimal)
Product: E0000E * BAAA = 92A26ABAE4 (in hexadecimal)

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evolution processes illustrate the tension that exists between individual’s efforts to promote change and ""customers"" preferences and habits related to existing (previously adopted) solutions. TRUE OR FALSE?

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The statement "evolution processes illustrate the tension that exists between individual’s efforts to promote change and customers' preferences and habits related to existing (previously adopted) solutions" is TRUE.

Evolution processes often involve tension between individuals seeking to promote change and the preferences and habits of customers who have previously adopted existing solutions. This tension can slow down or impede the process of change, but ultimately it is necessary for the evolution of new and better solutions. It occurs because individuals may push for innovations or improvements, while customers may resist change due to their familiarity and comfort with existing solutions. This dynamic creates a balance between innovation and maintaining customer satisfaction.

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True. Evolution processes illustrate the tension that exists between individuals' efforts to promote change and customers' preferences and habits related to existing (previously adopted) solutions.

Evolution processes do indeed illustrate the tension that exists between individuals trying to bring about change and the preferences and habits of customers who have already adopted existing solutions. This tension can be seen in the constant struggle between innovation and tradition, as well as between individual creativity and the need to conform to established norms and expectations. Ultimately, the success of any new idea or product depends on finding the right balance between these competing forces and striking a chord with customers who are willing to embrace change while still staying true to their own values and preferences.
Evolution is a process that results in changes in the genetic material of a population over time. Evolution reflects the adaptations of organisms to their changing environments and can result in altered genes, novel traits, and new species.

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Assume:

A = 1101 0011 1111 0110

B = 0110 1101 1101 1110

Write the series of operations necessary to pack A into B (and store the result in C), where the 8 lowest order bits of B are stored in the 8 highest order bits of C, and the 8 highest order bits of A are stored in the 8 lowest order bits of C.

Answers

To pack A into B and store the result in C, the following operations can be performed.

What is the explanation for the above response?

Perform a logical shift right on A by 8 bits, which will result in 0000 0000 1101 0011.Perform a logical shift left on B by 8 bits, which will result in 1011 0110 1101 1110.Perform a logical OR operation between the results of step 1 and step 2, which will result in 1011 0110 1111 1110.Perform a logical shift left on A by 8 bits, which will result in 0000 0000 0000 0000.Perform a logical shift right on B by 8 bits, which will result in 0000 0000 0110 1101.Perform a logical OR operation between the results of step 4 and step 5, which will result in 0000 0000 0110 1101.Perform a logical OR operation between the results of step 3 and step 6, which will result in C = 1011 0110 1111 1110 0000 0000 0110 1101.

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a dial indicators can be used to measure which two of the following: (a) diameter, (b) length, (c) roundness, (d) straightness, (e) surface roughness, and (f) thickness?

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A dial indicator can be used to measure (c) roundness and (d) straightness. These tools are useful for assessing the deviation of a surface from its ideal shape, such as determining how round a cylindrical object is or how straight a flat surface is.

A dial indicator can be used to measure the (b) length and (d) straightness of an object.A dial indicator is a precision measurement tool that uses a plunger or probe to make contact with the object being measured. It is typically used in manufacturing and engineering to ensure that parts and components are within specified tolerances.While a dial indicator can provide useful information about the surface roughness, diameter, roundness, and thickness of an object, it is not the most appropriate tool for measuring these characteristics. Other measurement tools, such as micrometers, calipers, and profilometers, are better suited for these tasks.

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A two-way is normally used as an off/on switch and to control _____.

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A two-way switch is generally used as an on/off switch to control one light or electrical device from two locations.

It is to help the user access te electronic devices from multiple locations.

Thus, a two-way switch is very useful.

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A two-way is normally used as an off/on switch and to control the flow of electrical power or circuitry between two points.

A switch is a simple device that makes or breaks a circuit. A switch can perform mainly two functions- ON, by closing its contacts, or fully OFF, by opening its contacts. When contacts are closed, it creates a path for the current to flow, and vice-versa, an open contact will not allow the current to flow. In electrical wiring, switches are most commonly used to operate electric lights, permanently connected appliances or electrical outlets.

In 1884, John Henry Holmes invented the quick break light switch. His technology ensured the internal contacts moved apart quickly enough to deter the electric arching which could be a fire hazard and shorten the switch’s lifespan. This quick break technology is still employed in today’s domestic and industrial light switches.

The most commonly available and used electrical switches in our homes is the one-way switch. But there also exists two-way switch, though not commonly used. In its working, the main difference between them is the number of contacts they each have. The one-way switch has two contacts and the two-way switch has three contacts. In a two-way switch, there are two, one-way switches combined in one. One of the terminals can be connected to either of the two, but not both at the same time.

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a concentric tube heat exchanger having an area of 100 m2 is used to heat 5 kg/s of water that enters the heat exchanger at 50oc. the heating fluid is oil having a specific heat of 2.1 kj/kg and a flow rate of 8 kg/s. the oil enters the exchanger at 100oc and the overall heat transfer coefficient is 120 w/m2k. calculate the exit temperature of the oil and the heat transfer if the exchanger operates in a counterflow mode

Answers

In a concentric tube heat exchange with an area of 100 m2, 5 kg/s of water enters at 50°C and is heated by oil with a specific heat of 2.1 kJ/kg and a flow rate of 8 kg/s. The oil enters the exchanges at 100°C, and the overall heat transfer coefficient is 120 W/m2K. Given that the exchange operates in counter flow mode, we can calculate the exit temperature of the oil and the heat transfer.

First, let's determine the heat transfer rate (Q) using the formula Q = m_water * c_water * (T_out_water - T_in_water), where m_water is the mass flow rate of water, c_water is the specific heat of water (4.18 kJ/kgK), and T_out_water and T_in_water are the outlet and inlet temperatures of water, respectively.
Since Q = m_oil * c_oil * (T_in_oil - T_out_oil), we can solve for T_out_oil: T_out_oil = T_in_oil - (Q / (m_oil * c_oil)).
The overall heat transfer coefficient (U) can be used to calculate Q: Q = U * A * ΔT_lm, where A is the heat exchanger area and ΔT_lm is the log mean temperature difference. For counterflow, ΔT_lm = [(T_in_oil - T_out_water) - (T_out_oil - T_in_water)] / ln((T_in_oil - T_out_water) / (T_out_oil - T_in_water)).
By solving the above equations simultaneously, we can determine the exit temperature of the oil and the heat transfer rate (Q). The resulting values will provide insight into the efficiency and performance of the concentric tube heat exchanger operating in counterflow mode.

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advanced control system and matlab
help in q2

Answers

The overall transfer function of the system with the compensator is: G_ol(s) = 10.5 * (1 + 0.2s) / (s(s+2)(s+5)(1+0.035s)(1+5.6s))

How the explain the transfer function

The transfer function of the overall with the lag-lead compensator can be written as:

= Kp * Kz * G(s) * G_c(s)

Substituting the given values and the values of G(s) and G_c(s), we get:

= 10.5 * (1 + 0.2s) / (s(s+2)(s+5)(1+0.035s)(1+5.6s))

Thus, the required lag-lead compensator is:1.75 * (1 - 5.67s) / (1 + 0.2s)

The overall transfer function of the system with the compensator is:

10.5 * (1 + 0.2s) / (s(s+2)(s+5)(1+0.035s)(1+5.6s))

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A balanced Δ-connected load consisting of a pure resistance of 16 Ω per phase is in parallel
with a purely resistive balanced Y-connected load of 13 Ω per phase as shown in Figure below.
The combination is connected to a three-phase balanced supply of 346.41-V rms (line-to-line)
via a three-phase line having an inductive reactance of j3 Ω per phase. Taking the phase
voltage Van as reference, determine
a) The current, real power, and reactive power drawn from the supply.
b) The line-to-neutral and the line-to-line voltage of phase a at the combined load terminals.

Answers

The three-phase line voltage is given as 346.41 Vms

The real power drawn from the supply is given as 19.2kW

What is Line Voltage?

"Line voltage" refers to the voltage level that is supplied to a building or facility by the power company's electrical grid. In the United States, the standard line voltage for residential and commercial buildings is 120 volts or 240 volts, depending on the type of electrical service provided.

Line voltage is also sometimes referred to as "mains voltage" or "utility voltage." The term "line-to-line voltage" is used to describe the voltage difference between two phases of a three-phase electrical system.

In summary, line voltage is the electrical voltage level that is supplied to a building or facility from the power company's electrical grid.

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lateral buckling is inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other. b. roll-thru buckling is partly inhibited by the combined effect of the angled suspenders and the deadweight of the roadbed. c. roll-thru buckling is partly inhibited by the road bed, which attaches to the arch at about the quarter points of the arch. d. tension elements in the roadbed are all the horizontal force required to achieve full arch action over the full length of the arches. e. roll-through buckling is inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other.

Answers

Lateral buckling is inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other. This provides stability and support for the structure.

Roll-thru buckling is partly inhibited by the combined effect of the angled suspenders and the deadweight of the roadbed, as well as by the roadbed attaching to the arch at about the quarter points of the arch. This attachment helps distribute the load and prevent buckling. Tension elements in the roadbed provide the horizontal force required to achieve full arch action over the full length of the arches, ensuring stability. Finally, roll-through buckling is also inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other, maintaining the overall structural integrity.

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The statement that best describes the buckling mechanisms of an arch bridge is e. roll-through buckling is inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other.

Arch bridges are designed to support loads primarily through axial compression forces. However, they are also susceptible to different types of buckling under certain loading conditions. Roll-through buckling is one of the most critical types of buckling in arch bridges, where the arch rolls or twists laterally due to insufficient lateral bracing, resulting in instability and possible collapse.To inhibit roll-through buckling, arch bridges typically incorporate horizontal elements that link the two arches, creating a rigid frame action that can resist lateral forces. The angled suspenders also provide additional bracing to reduce the lateral displacement of the arches. In contrast, tension elements in the roadbed primarily resist the vertical forces that act on the bridge, such as the weight of the traffic and the weight of the bridge itself.In summary, the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches together are critical factors that inhibit roll-through buckling in an arch bridge.

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As Apple’s CEO, the late Steve Jobs orchestrated innovations that revolutionized all of these industries except which?Multiple Choicemusicsmartphonesdigital publishingcable televisiontablet computing

Answers

The industry that Steve Jobs did not revolutionize through his innovations as Apple's CEO was cable television.

As Apple's CEO, the late Steve Jobs orchestrated innovations that revolutionized all of these industries except cable television. The industries that he did revolutionize include music, smartphones, digital publishing, and tablet computing. He revolutionizes the music industry with the iPod and iTunes, smartphones with the iPhone, digital publishing with the iPad, and tablet computing with the iPad as well.

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A parallel circuit has a resistance values of 1,200 ohm, 2,200 ohm, and 3,000 ohm. If the circuit has a total current flow of 0.25 Ampre. How much current flows through each of the resistors

Answers

In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each resistor is the same, while the current through each resistor is different.

To find the current through each resistor, we can use Ohm's Law:

I = V / R

where I is the current, V is the voltage, and R is the resistance.

Since the voltage is the same across each resistor in a parallel circuit, we can use the total current and the resistance values to find the current through each resistor.

Let's start with the first resistor:

I1 = V / R1
I1 = 0.25 / 1200
I1 = 0.00020833 A

Now, let's find the current through the second resistor:

I2 = V / R2
I2 = 0.25 / 2200
I2 = 0.00011364 A

Finally, let's find the current through the third resistor:

I3 = V / R3
I3 = 0.25 / 3000
I3 = 0.00008333 A

Therefore, the current flowing through the first, second, and third resistors are 0.00020833 A, 0.00011364 A, and 0.00008333 A, respectively.

the surface force maintenance and material management program is governed by what instruction

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The Surface Force Maintenance and Material Management Program is governed by the Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEA) Instruction 4790.8.

The policies and procedures outlined in the Surface Force Maintenance and Material Management Program are established by NAVSEA Instruction 4790.8. This instruction outlines the policies and procedures for managing the maintenance and material readiness of surface ships and their associated systems.

The program includes the planning, execution, and documentation of maintenance and material management activities to ensure the safety, reliability, and mission readiness of the ship. The instruction also provides guidance for the proper management and control of shipboard material, including inventory control, procurement, and disposal. The Surface Force Maintenance and Material Management Program is essential for maintaining the operational effectiveness of surface ships and ensuring the safety of the crew and equipment.

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The Surface Force Maintenance and Material Management Program, also known as the 3M program, is governed by the Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEA) Instruction 4790.8B. This instruction provides guidelines and procedures for the management, maintenance, and inspection of surface ship equipment and systems.

The purpose of the 3M program is to ensure that surface ships are maintained at the highest level of readiness and operational capability.The instruction outlines the responsibilities of the ship's commanding officer, department heads, and maintenance personnel, as well as the procedures for conducting preventive maintenance, corrective maintenance, and material management. The program also includes a system of documentation and reporting to track the status of maintenance and repairs.The 3M program is critical to the operational readiness of the Navy's surface fleet. It ensures that ships are properly maintained and ready to respond to any mission, from routine patrols to combat operations. The program is regularly updated to incorporate new technologies and equipment, and to address any emerging maintenance issues. Overall, the 3M program plays a vital role in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the Navy's surface ships.

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A suction line accumulator is used to ensure that liquid refrigerant enters the compressor.True or False

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False. A suction line accumulator is used to ensure that only vapor refrigerant enters the compressor, while any liquid refrigerant is stored in the accumulator until it can evaporate and turn into vapor.
False. A suction line accumulator is used to prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor. Its purpose is to collect and temporarily store any excess liquid refrigerant, allowing only vapor refrigerant to pass through to the compressor.False.

A suction line accumulator is a component used in refrigeration systems to prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor. Its purpose is to collect and store any liquid refrigerant that may be present in the suction line and vaporize it before it reaches the compressor. The accumulator accomplishes this by having a baffle inside the accumulator that separates the liquid refrigerant from the refrigerant vapor. The refrigerant vapor is then allowed to exit the accumulator and continue on to the compressor, while the liquid refrigerant is stored at the bottom of the accumulator until it vaporizes and can also exit.If liquid refrigerant were to enter the compressor, it could cause damage to the compressor due to the compressor being designed to compress vapor refrigerant and not liquid refrigerant. Liquid refrigerant in the compressor could also lead to reduced efficiency and cooling capacity of the refrigeration system.herefore, the correct statement is that a suction line accumulator is used to prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor, not to ensure that it enters the compressor.

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The statement "A suction line accumulator is used to ensure that liquid refrigerant enters the compressor is False because liquid refrigerant and returning it to the system as vapor, ensuring only vapor refrigerant is sent to the compressor.

A suction line accumulator is used to prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor. It protects the compressor by collecting excess liquid refrigerant and returning it to the system as vapor, ensuring only vapor refrigerant is sent to the compressor.

The answer is False.

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electronic components are much more likely to fail than electromechanical components. (True or False)

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True. Electronic components are more likely to fail than electromechanical components. This is because electronic components rely on the flow of electrons, which can be affected by factors such as voltage spikes, temperature changes, and moisture.

Electromechanical components, on the other hand, use physical movement to perform their function, which is generally more reliable than electronic components.
if electronic components are much more likely to fail than electromechanical components. The statement is False. The failure rate of electronic and electromechanical components depends on various factors like quality, operating conditions, and usage. It is not correct to generalize that electronic components are more likely to fail than electromechanical components.

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The statement that electronic components are much more likely to fail than electromechanical components is generally true. Electronic components are devices that rely on the flow of electrons through them, while electromechanical components use a combination of electrical and mechanical processes to operate.

There are several reasons why electronic components are more likely to fail. One major factor is that they are often more complex than electromechanical components, and thus have more potential points of failure. Electronic components also tend to generate more heat than electromechanical components, which can cause them to degrade and fail over time. Additionally, electronic components are more susceptible to damage from electrical surges, static electricity, and other forms of electrical interference.Despite these challenges, electronic components are still widely used in many applications because of their numerous advantages over electromechanical components. They are typically smaller, lighter, and more efficient than electromechanical components, and can be integrated more easily into complex systems. Electronic components are also capable of performing a wider range of functions than electromechanical components, making them essential for many modern technologies.In summary, while electronic components may be more prone to failure than electromechanical components, their advantages often make them the preferred choice for many applications. It is important to take appropriate measures to protect electronic components from damage and ensure their longevity, such as using proper grounding and surge protection measures, and following best practices for storage and handling.

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fermentation tank in a pullman brewpub is rated for a maximum absolute pressure of 75 psia. a bourdon gauge attached to the tank reads 64 psig. is there a danger that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank has been exceeded? explain why or why not

Answers

Yes, there is a danger that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank has been exceeded. This is dangerous because the tank could rupture or explode if the pressure continues to increase.

This is because:

First, it's important to understand what "absolute pressure" and "psig" mean in this context. Absolute pressure is the total pressure exerted by a gas, including atmospheric pressure (which is around 14.7 psi at sea level). Psig, on the other hand, refers to the pressure exerted by a gas above atmospheric pressure. So if a tank has a reading of 64 psig, that means the gas inside is exerting a pressure of 64 psi above atmospheric pressure.

Now, let's look at the numbers. The fermentation tank in the Pullman brewpub is rated for a maximum absolute pressure of 75 psia. This means that the total pressure inside the tank (including atmospheric pressure) should not exceed 75 psi. However, the bourdon gauge attached to the tank reads 64 psig, which means that the pressure inside the tank is actually 78.7 psia (64 psig + 14.7 psi atmospheric pressure).

This is above the maximum absolute pressure rating of 75 psia for the tank, which means that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank has been exceeded. This is dangerous because the tank could rupture or explode if the pressure continues to increase. It's important to take immediate action to relieve the pressure and prevent further build-up to ensure the safety of the people working with the tank and the surrounding area.

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Hi! Your question is whether there is a danger that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank in a Pullman brewpub has been exceeded, given that it is rated for a maximum absolute pressure of 75 psia, and the Bourdon gauge reads 64 psig.

To answer this, we need to compare the actual absolute pressure in the tank to the rated maximum absolute pressure limit.

Step 1: Convert the gauge pressure (psig) to absolute pressure (psia).
Gauge pressure measures pressure relative to atmospheric pressure. To convert it to absolute pressure, add the atmospheric pressure to the gauge pressure. The standard atmospheric pressure is approximately 14.7 psi.

Absolute Pressure = Gauge Pressure + Atmospheric Pressure
Absolute Pressure = 64 psig + 14.7 psi (approximately)

Step 2: Calculate the absolute pressure.
Absolute Pressure = 64 + 14.7
Absolute Pressure ≈ 78.7 psia

Step 3: Compare the calculated absolute pressure to the maximum pressure limit.
In this case, the calculated absolute pressure (78.7 psia) is higher than the maximum rated pressure limit of the fermentation tank (75 psia).

In conclusion, there is a danger that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank has been exceeded, as the calculated absolute pressure (78.7 psia) is higher than the rated maximum absolute pressure limit (75 psia).

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The plaintiff properly filed an action in federal district court for breach of a partnership agreement. At the conclusion of the presentation of the evidence to the jury by both parties, the defendant filed a motion for judgment as a matter of law, contending that the evidence was insufficient as a matter of law to establish the existence of a partnership. The judge denied this motion. After the jury rendered a verdict in favor of the defendant, the plaintiff filed a motion for judgment as a matter of law 25 days after the entry of the judgment.
Should the court grant the plaintiff's motion?
Answers:
A. No, because the plaintiff did not file a motion for judgment as a matter of law prior to the submission of the case to the jury.
B. No, because the motion was not filed within 10 days of the entry of the judgment.
C. Yes, because the defendant filed a motion for judgment as a matter of law at the conclusion of the presentation of the evidence to the jury by both parties.
D. Yes, because the court rejected the defendant's motion for judgment as a matter of law at the conclusion of the presentation of the evidence.

Answers

Yes, because the court rejected the defendant's motion for judgment as a matter of law at the conclusion of the presentation of the evidence.

The plaintiff properly filed an action in federal district court for breach of a partnership agreement. At the conclusion of the presentation of the evidence to the jury by both parties, the defendant filed a motion for judgment as a matter of law, contending that the evidence was insufficient as a matter of law to establish the existence of a partnership. The judge denied this motion. After the jury rendered a verdict in favor of the defendant, the plaintiff filed a motion for judgment as a matter of law 25 days after the entry of the judgment.

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) Describe the steps that you would go through in order to design a control system for
maintaining the pH of the liquid in a stirred tank (see Figure Q. I - 2) at a desired value. What questions must you resolve? Develop a feedback and a feedforward control
configuration for this system

Answers

The following steps are commonly used when designing a control system to keep the pH of a liquid in a stirred tank at a desired level:

Determine the target pH level and the permitted pH range: Identify the proper sensor: Choose an appropriate control algorithm: Choose a reliable actuator: The control parameters should be determined: Put the control system in place: Analyze and tweak the system:

How to explain the system

The following issues must be addressed in order to develop a control system for keeping a liquid's pH in a stirred tank at a desired level:

What pH range and ideal pH value are acceptable?

What kind of sensor is needed to determine the liquid's pH?

What kind of actuator is necessary to change the liquid's pH?.

Which control algorithm ought to be employed?

What are the system's proper control parameters?

How ought the control system to be put into practice?

How will the system be evaluated and modified to make sure it functions properly?

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you have been awarded a contract for wiring a new federal building. what twisted-pair wiring standard must you use?

Answers

As per industry standards, for wiring a new federal building, the recommended twisted-pair wiring standard to be used is Category 6 (Cat6) wiring.

This standard provides improved performance and faster data transfer rates compared to previous standards, making it a suitable choice for government buildings with high data transmission requirements.
When wiring a new federal building using twisted-pair wiring, you must adhere to the TIA/EIA-568 standard, which is the most commonly used standard for commercial and government building installations. This standard outlines the proper installation practices, performance requirements, and cable specifications for twisted-pair cabling systems.

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in what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin

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In order for an aircraft to spin, it must be placed in a specific flight condition known as an aggravated stall. This occurs when the angle of attack of the aircraft is too high and the airflow over the wings becomes disrupted, causing a loss of lift.

As a result, one wing may stall before the other, creating an unequal lift distribution that can cause the aircraft to enter a spin. Pilots must be trained to recognize and recover from this dangerous situation in order to prevent accidents.
In order to spin, an aircraft must be placed in a specific flight condition known as a "stall." A stall occurs when the angle of attack is too high, causing a reduction in lift and an increase in drag. To initiate a spin, the aircraft must be in a stalled condition and have a yawing motion (rotation around the vertical axis). This combination of factors causes one wing to generate more lift than the other, resulting in the spinning motion.

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In order for an aircraft to spin, it must be in a stall condition. A stall occurs when the angle of attack (AOA) is too high, causing the airflow over the wings to separate and the lift generated by the wings to decrease. When the AOA reaches the critical angle of attack, the airflow can no longer create enough lift to keep the aircraft in the air, and it begins to descend.

During a spin, one wing drops while the other rises, and the aircraft rotates around its vertical axis. This occurs when one wing continues to generate lift while the other does not, causing the aircraft to roll and yaw simultaneously.It is important to note that not all aircraft are designed to spin, and attempting to spin an aircraft that is not certified for it can be dangerous. Pilots must receive proper training and follow the aircraft manufacturer's guidelines to perform spins safely.Overall, an aircraft must be in a stall condition to spin. This occurs when the angle of attack is too high and the airflow over the wings separates, causing the aircraft to lose lift and enter a descending motion while rotating around its vertical axis.

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This manipulator is used to establish a field width for the value that follows it: field_width set field setw iomanip None of these

Answers

The manipulator used to establish a field width for the value that follows it is setw from the iomanip library in C++. It allows you to specify the number of characters that should be used for the output of the value.

For example, if you want to output a value with a field width of 5, you would use set w(5). This will ensure that the value is formatted with 5 characters, adding spaces as necessary to achieve the desired width. So the correct option in this case would be "set field setw iomanip". The term "set field set w iomanip" does not make sense in this context.
The manipulator used to establish a field width for the value that follows it is "setw". This term is part of the iomanip library in C++. So, the correct answer is "setw". The other terms mentioned in the question, such as "field_width", "set field", and "setw ioman ip", are not relevant to the context of the question.

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The manipulator in question is called "setw" and it is a part of the "iomanip" library in C++. option c is correct.

This manipulator is used to set the field width for the value that follows it. The value can be a string, integer, or any other data type.

The purpose of setw is to make the output more readable and organized by aligning the data in columns. For example, if you are printing a table with multiple columns, you can use setw to set the width of each column so that the data is aligned and easy to read.

The syntax for using setw is as follows:

cout << setw(10) << "Hello";

In this example, setw(10) sets the field width to 10 characters for the string "Hello". This means that "Hello" will be printed with a width of 10 characters, even if it is shorter than that. If the string is longer than 10 characters, it will be truncated to fit within the allotted space.

Overall, setw is a useful manipulator for formatting output in C++. It helps to make the output more readable and organized, which is important when dealing with large amounts of data.

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Note: The complete question would de as bellow,

This manipulator is used to establish a field width for the value that follows it:

a)field_width

b)set field

c)setw

d)iomanip

e)None of these

by purchasing software that gathers data and predicts trends in the most popular genres without any extra programming, the library can purchase the books that people will read

Answers

By utilizing software that collects data and forecasts trends in popular genres, the library can make informed decisions on which books to purchase. This ensures that the library's collection stays up-to-date and aligns with the reading interests of the community, ultimately leading to increased patron satisfaction and engagement.

By purchasing software that gathers data and predicts trends in the most popular genres, the library can make informed purchasing decisions on the books that people are likely to read. This eliminates the need for extra programming and ensures that the library's collection stays relevant and in-demand. The software can analyze data such as user preferences, browsing history, and book ratings to generate accurate predictions on which books will be popular in the future. This ultimately saves the library time and money by avoiding the purchase of books that may not be well-received by their audience. Overall, investing in such software can greatly benefit the library's collection development strategy and help them better serve their community's reading needs.
By utilizing software that collects data and forecasts trends in popular genres, the library can make informed decisions on which books to purchase. This ensures that the library's collection stays up-to-date and aligns with the reading interests of the community, ultimately leading to increased patron satisfaction and engagement.

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By purchasing software that gathers data and predicts trends in the most popular genres, the library can make informed decisions when acquiring new books.

This approach ensures that the library's collection remains up-to-date and relevant to the interests of its patrons, ultimately increasing the likelihood that people will read the selected books. Furthermore, this software eliminates the need for extra programming, saving time and resources.Such data-driven decisions also allow the library to maximize its budget, as it can focus on purchasing titles that are more likely to be borrowed and enjoyed by the community. Additionally, understanding trends in popular genres can assist the library in creating targeted promotions and events, further engaging patrons and fostering a love for reading.In summary, utilizing software that gathers data and predicts trends in popular genres is an efficient and cost-effective way for a library to maintain a relevant and engaging collection. This approach benefits both the library and its patrons by ensuring a diverse and appealing selection of books that cater to the community's interests.

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b. Given that H is a function of T and V, that is H(T,V), derive the following
expression:
dH = [C, + v), ] 4T + [7) - V
dT
] av
Where H is the enthalpy of the system, and all other variables have the usual
meaning. Use the above expression to calculate the enthalpy change for 1 mol of
an ideal gas when is it is compressed from T₁ = 273 K, P₁ = 1 atm and V₁ = 12 L
to P₂ = 10 atm and V₂ = 6 L.. For an ideal gas, Cy= 1.5 R. [10 Marks]
a. The following heat engine produ

Answers

Note that the enthalpy change for 1 mol of the ideal gas during the compression process is -6.42R.

What is the explanation for the above response?


To derive the expression, we use the total differential of H:

dH = (∂H/∂T)dT + (∂H/∂V)dV

From the definition of enthalpy, we know that H = U + PV, where U is the internal energy of the system, P is the pressure, and V is the volume. Thus, we can write:

dH = d(U + PV) = dU + PdV + VdP

Using the first law of thermodynamics, dU = dQ - PdV, where dQ is the heat added to the system. Substituting this into the above equation, we get:

dH = dQ + VdP

Since the ideal gas is assumed to be undergoing an isothermal process, we can write:

dQ = CdT, where C is the heat capacity of the gas.

Also, for an ideal gas, we have the equation of state:

PV = nRT

Taking the differential of this equation, we get:

dP(V) + P(dV) = nR(dT)

Solving for dP/dT at constant volume, we get:

(dP/dT)V = nR/V

Substituting this into the expression for dH, we get:

dH = CdT + VdP = CdT + (nR/V)dT = [(C + nR/V)dT] + [PdV - (nR/V)dV]

Since the process is isothermal, dT = 0, and we have:

dH = [PdV - (nR/V)dV]

Substituting for P and V in terms of T and the given initial and final conditions, we get:

dH = [(nRT₁/V₁)d(V/V₁) - nRdT₁ ln(V₂/V₁)] = [(nRT₁/V₁)(-1/2)ln(2) - nRdT₁ln(6/12)]

Substituting the given values for T₁, V₁, P₂, and V₂, we get:

dH = [-1.5R(273K)/12L(-1/2)ln(2) - 1.5R(273K)ln(6/12)] = -6.42R

Therefore, the enthalpy change for 1 mol of the ideal gas during the compression process is -6.42R.

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