Equal charges, one at rest, the other having a velocity of 104 m/s, are released in a uniform magnetic field. Which charge has the largest force exerted on it by the magnetic field

Answer:

The glider’s speed after the skydiver lets go is 26 m/s

Explanation:

To calculate the glider’s speed just after the skydiver lets go, we will need to use the conservation of momentum

Mathematically;

mv = mv + mv

so 680 * 26 = (680-60)v + 60 * 26

17680 = 620v + 1560

17680-1560 = 620v

16120 = 620v

v = 16120/620

v = 26 m/s

Answer:

its supposed to be (a) 1W

Answer:

The average velocity for this trip is 0 km/hr

Explanation:

We know that average velocity = total displacement/total time.

Now, its displacement is d = final position - initial position.

Since the  car starts and ends at its initial position at Hither, if we assume its initial position is 0 km, then its final position is also 0 km.

So, its displacement is d = 0 km - 0 km = 0 km.

Since the total time for the round trip is 2 hours, the average velocity is

total displacement/ total time = 0 km/2 hr = 0 km/hr.

So the average velocity for this trip is 0 km/hr  

Answer:

E = 17.64 x 10⁶ N/C = 17.64 MN/C

Explanation:

The electric field is given by the following formula:

E = F/q

E= W/q

E = mg/q

where,

E = magnitude of electric field = ?

m = mass of plastic sphere = 5.4 g = 5.4 x 10⁻³ kg

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

= charge = 3 nC = 3 x 10⁻⁹ C

Therefore,

E = (5.4 x 10⁻³ kg)(9.8 m/s²)/(3 x 10⁻⁹ C)

E = 17.64 x 10⁶ N/C = 17.64 MN/C

Answer:

Hello your question has some missing parts and the required diagram attached below is the missing part and the diagram

Digital circuits require actions to take place at precise times, so they are controlled by a clock that generates a steady sequence of rectangular voltage pulses. One of the most widely

used integrated circuits for creating clock pulses is called a 555 timer.  shows how the timer’s output pulses, oscillating between 0 V and 5 V, are controlled with two resistors and a capacitor. The circuit manufacturer tells users that TH, the time the clock output spends in the high (5V) state, is TH =(R1 + R2)*C*ln(2). Similarly, the time spent in the low (0 V) state is TL = R2*C*ln(2). Design a clock that will oscillate at 10 MHz and will spend 75% of each cycle in the high state. You will be using a 500 pF capacitor. What values do you need to specify for R1 and R2?

ANSWER : R1 = 144.3Ω,   R2 =  72.2 Ω

Explanation:

Frequency = 10 MHz

Time period = 1 / F =  0.1 u s

Duty cycle = 75% = 0.75

Duty cycle can be represented as :   Ton / T

Also: Ton = Th = 0.75 * 0.1 u s  = 75 n s

TL = T - Th = 100 ns - 75 n s = 25 n s

To find the value of R2 we use the equation for  time spent in the low (0 V) state

TL = R2*C*ln(2)

hence R2 = TL / ( C * In 2 )

c = 500 pF

Hence R2 = 25 / ( 500 pF * 0.693 )  = 72.2 Ω

To find the value of R1 we use the equation for the time the clock output spends in the high (5V) state,

Th = (R1 + R2)*C*ln(2)

  from the equation make R1 the subject of the formula

R1 =  (Th - ( R2 * C * In2 )) / (C * In 2)

R1 = ( 75 ns - ( 72.2 * 500 pF * 0.693)) / ( 500 pF * 0.693 )

R1 = ( 75 ns  - ( 25 ns ) / 500 pf * 0.693

     = 144.3Ω

Answer:

Explanation:

Change in entropy is expressed as ΔS = ΔQ/T where;

ΔQ is the total heat change during conversion of ice to water.

T is the room temperature

First we need to calculate the total change in heat using the conversion formulae;

ΔQ = mL + mcΔθ (total heat energy absorbed during phase change)

m is the mass of ice/water = 900g = 0.9kg

L is the latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.33 x 10⁵J/kg

c is the specific heat capacity of water = 4200J/kgK

Δθ is the change in temperature of water = 10°C - 0C = 10°C = 283K

Substituting the given values into ΔQ;

ΔQ = 0.9(333000)+0.9(4200)(283)

ΔQ = 299700 + 1069740

ΔQ = 1,369,440 Joules

Since Change in entropy ΔS = ΔQ/T

ΔS =  1,369,440/30+273

ΔS = 1,369,440/303

ΔS = 4519.60 J/K

Hence, the change in entropy of the universe is 4519.60 J/K

Answer: d = 33 cm or 0.33 m

Explanation: In physics, Work is the amount of energy transferred to an object to make it move. It can be expressed by:

W = F.d.cosθ

F is the force applied to the object, d is the displacement and θ is the angle formed between the force and the displacement.

For the ice block, the angle is 0, i.e., force and distance are at the same direction, so:

W = F.d.cos(0)

W = F.d

To determine d:

d = [tex]\frac{W}{F}[/tex]

d = [tex]\frac{3}{9}[/tex]

d = 0.33 m

The distance d the block ice moved is 33 cm.

Answer:

B. over the symbol.

Explanation:

vectors are represented with a symbol carrying an arrow head with also indicates direction

Answer:

1) 14 kW

2) 4.67 x 10^-5 N

Explanation:

Area of solar panel = 10 m^2

Intensity of sun's radiation incident on earth = 1.4 kW/m^2

Solar power absorbed = ?

We know that the intensity of radiation on a given area is

[tex]I[/tex] = [tex]\frac{P}{A}[/tex]

where I is the intensity of the radiation

P is the power absorbed due to this intensity on a given area

A is the area on which this radiation is incident

From the equation, we have

P = IA

P = 1.4 kW/m^2  x  10 m^2 = 14 kW

b) For a perfect absorbing surface, the radiation pressure is given as

p = I/c

where p is the radiation pressure

I is the incident light intensity = 1.4 kW/m^2 = 1.4 x 10^3 kW/m^2

c is the speed of light = 3 x 10^8 m/s

substituting values, we have

p = (1.4 x 10^3)/(3 x 10^8) = 4.67 x 10^-6 Pa

we know that Force = pressure x area

therefore force on the solar panels is

F = 4.67 x 10^-6 x 10 = 4.67 x 10^-5 N

Answer: [tex]4.29\times10^{14}\text{ Hz}[/tex]

Explanation:

Given: Speed of red light = 700 nm

= [tex]700\times10^{-9}[/tex] m

[tex]= 7\times10^{-7}[/tex] m

Frequency of red light = [tex]\dfrac{\text{Speed of light}}{\text{Speed of red light}}[/tex]

Speed of light = [tex]3\times10^8[/tex] m

Then, Frequency of red light = [tex]\dfrac{3\times10^8}{7\times10^{-7}}[/tex]

[tex]=0.429\times10^{8-(-7)}=0.429\times10^{15}\\\\=4.29\times10^{14}\ Hz[/tex]

Hence, Frequency of red light = [tex]4.29\times10^{14}\text{ Hz}[/tex]

The frequency of the light be in the material is [tex]4.29\times10^{14}\text{ Hz}[/tex].

Answer:

257 kN.

Explanation:

So, we are given the following data or parameters or information in the following questions;

=> "A jet transport with a landing speed

= 200 km/h reduces its speed to = 60 km/h with a negative thrust R from its jet thrust reversers"

= > The distance = 425 m along the runway with constant deceleration."

=> "The total mass of the aircraft is 140 Mg with mass center at G. "

We are also give that the "aerodynamic forces on the aircraft are small and may be neglected at lower speed"

Step one: determine the acceleration;

=> Acceleration = 1/ (2 × distance along runway with constant deceleration) × { (landing speed A)^2 - (landing speed B)^2 × 1/(3.6)^2.

=> Acceleration = 1/ (2 × 425) × (200^2 - 60^2) × 1/(3.6)^2 = 3.3 m/s^2.

Thus, "the reaction N under the nose wheel B toward the end of the braking interval and prior to the application of mechanical braking" = The total mass of the aircraft × acceleration × 1.2 = 15N - (9.8 × 2.4 × 140).

= 140 × 3.3× 1.2 = 15N - (9.8 × 2.4 × 140).

= 257 kN.

The reaction N under the nose wheel B towards the end of the braking interval =  257 kN

Given data :

Landing speed of Jet = 200 km/h

Distance = 425 m

Total mass of aircraft = 140 Mg  with mass center at G

  Jet acceleration = 1 / (2 *425) * (200²  - 60² ) *  1 / (3.6)²

                              = 3.3 m/s²

Reaction N = Total mass of aircraft * jet acceleration* 1.2 = 15N - (9.8*2.4* 140).   ----- ( 1 )

∴ Reaction N = 140 * 3.3 * 1.2 = 15 N - ( 9.8*2.4* 140 )  

 Hence Reaction N = 257 KN

We can conclude that the The reaction N under the nose wheel B towards the end of the braking interval =  257 kN

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Answer:

0.306mm

Explanation:

The radius of the conductor is 3mm, or 0.003m

The area of the conductor is:

A = π*r^2 = π*(.003)^2 = 2.8*10^-5 m^2

The current density is:

J = 130/2.8*10^-5 = 4.64*10^6 A/m

According to the listed reference:

Vd = J/(n*e) = 4.64*10^6 / ( 8.46*10^28 * 1.6*10^-19 ) = 0.34*10^-6 m/s = 0.34mm/s

The distance traveled is:

x = v*t = 0.34 * .90 = 0.306 mm

Answer:

0.29D

Explanation:

Given that

F = G M m / r2

F = GM(6m) / (D-r)2

G Mm/r2 = GM(6m) / (D-r)2

1/r2 = 6 / (D-r)2

r = D / (Ö6 + 1)

r = 0.29 D

See diagram in attached file

Answer:

Power = Force × Distance/time

Power = Force × Velocity

Power = 2,300.0 N × 28.0 m/s²

Power = 64400 Nm/s

Explanation:

First show the formula of Power

Re-arrange formula and used to work out Power

Pretty simple stuff!

Hope this Helps!!

Answer:

72J

Explanation:

distance moved is equal to 3m.then just substitute x with 3m.

Fx = (14(3) - 3.0(3)2)) N

Fx =(42-18)N

Fx =24N

W=Fx *S

W=24N*3m

W=72J

The answer is 72J.

Distance moved is equal to 3m.

Then just substitute x with 3m.

Fx = (14(3) - 3.0(3)2)) N

Fx =(42-18)N

Fx =24N

W=Fx *S

W=24N*3m

W=72J

A force is a push or pulls upon an object resulting from the object's interaction with another object. Whenever there is an interaction between two objects, there is a force upon each of the objects.

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Answer:

the frequency of revolution of the second particle is f

Explanation:

centripetal force is balanced by the magnetic force for object under magnetic field is given as

Mv²/r= qvB

But v= omega x r

Omega= 2pi x f

f= qB/2pi x M

So since frequency does not depend on the velocity.therefore the frequency of revolution of the second particle remains the same and its equal to f

Answer:

2.9tons

Explanation:

Note that On an incline of angle a from horizontal, the parallel and perpendicular components of a downward force F are:

parallel ("tangential"): F_t = F sin a

perpendicular ("normal"): F_n = F cos a

At a=3.7 degrees, sin a is about 0.064 and with F = 46tons:

F sin a ~~ (46 tons)*0.064 ~~ 2.9tons

Also see attached file

The required force parallel to the incline to hold the monolith on this​ causeway will be "2.9 tons".

According to the question,

Angle, a = 3.7 degrees or,

Sin a = 0.064

Force, F = 46 tons

We know the relation,

Parallel (tangential), [tex]F_t[/tex] = F Sin a

By substituting the values,

                                       = 46 × 0.064

                                       = 2.9 tons

Thus the response above is appropriate answer.

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Answer:

The de Broglie wavelength of electron βe = 2.443422 × 10⁻⁹ m

The de Broglie wavelength of proton βp = 5.70 × 10⁻¹¹ m

Explanation:

Thermal kinetic energy of electron or proton = KE

∴ KE = 3kbT/2

given that; kb = 1.38 x 10⁻²³ J/K , T = 1950 K

so we substitute

KE = ( 3 × 1.38 x 10⁻²³ × 1950 ) / 2

kE = 4.0365 × 10⁻²⁰ (  is the kinetic energy for both electron and proton at temperature T )

Now we know that

mass of electron M'e = 9.109 ×  10⁻³¹

mass of proton M'p = 1.6726 ×  10⁻²⁷

We also know that

KE = p₂ / 2m

from the equation, p = √ (2mKE)

{ p is momentum, m is mass }

de Broglie wavelength = β

so β = h / p = h / √ (2mKE)

h = Planck's constant = 6.626 ×  10⁻³⁴

∴ βe =  h / √ (2m'e × KE)

βe = 6.626 ×  10⁻³⁴ / √ (2 × 9.109 ×  10⁻³¹ × 4.0365 × 10⁻²⁰ )

βe = 6.626 ×  10⁻³⁴ / √  7.3536957 × 10⁻⁵⁰

βe = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴  / 2.71176984642871 × 10⁻²⁵

βe = 2.443422 × 10⁻⁹ m

βp =  h / √ (2m'p ×KE)

βp = 6.626 ×  10⁻³⁴ / √ (2 × 1.6726 ×  10⁻²⁷ × 4.0365 × 10⁻²⁰ )

βp = 6.626 ×  10⁻³⁴ / √ 1.35028998 × 10⁻⁴⁶

βp =  6.626 ×  10⁻³⁴ / 1.16201978468527 ×  10⁻²³

βp = 5.702140 × 10⁻¹¹ m

Answer:

P = cte / V

therefore pressure and volume are inversely proportional

Explanation:

For this exercise we can join the ideal gases equation

        PV = n R T

they indicate that the amount of matter and the temperature are constant, therefore

         PV = cte

        P = cte / V

therefore pressure and volume are inversely proportional

Answer:

the greatest intensity is obtained from   c

Explanation:

An electromagnetic wave stagnant by the expression

           E = E₀ sin (kx -wt)

when two waves meet their electric fields add up

           E_total = E₁ + E₂

the intensity is

           I = E_total . E_total

           I = E₁² + E₂² + 2E₁ E₂ cos θ

where θ  is the phase angle between the two rays

Let's examine the two waves

in this case E₁ = E₂ = E₀

          I = Eo2 + Eo2 + 2 E₀ E₀ coasts

         I = E₀² (2 + 2 cos θ )

         I = 2 I₀ (1 + cos θ )

     let's apply this expression to different cases

a) In this case the angle is zero therefore the cosine is worth 1 and the intensity is I_total = 4 I₀

b) cos π = -1     this implies that     I_total = 0

c) the cosine is  1,

         I = E₀² + 4E₀² + 2 E₀ (2E₀) cos θ

         I = E₀² (5 +4 cos θ)

         I = E₀² 9

         I = 9 Io

d) in this case the cos pi = -1

          I = E₀² (5 -4)

          I = I₀

e) we rewrite the equation

         I = E₀² + 9 E₀² + 2 E₀ (3E₀) cos θ

         I = Eo2 (10 + 6 cos θ)

         cos π = -1

         I = E₀² (10-6)

         I = 4 I₀

the greatest intensity is obtained from   c

The combination that has the greatest intensity is C. Wave C has an amplitude of 2E0 and a phase constant of zero.

An amplitude simply means the variable that meaures the change that occur in a single variable. It's the maximum diatance moved.

In this case, the combination that has the greatest intensity is Wave C since it has an amplitude of 2E0 and a phase constant of zero.

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Answer:

The  amount by which the second filter reduces the intensity of light emerging from the first filter is

     z =  0.60

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The angle between the axes is  [tex]\theta = 41^o[/tex]

The intensity of polarized light that emerges from the second filter is  mathematically represented as

         [tex]I= I_o cos^2 \theta[/tex]

 Where [tex]I_o[/tex] is the intensity of light emerging  from the first filter

        [tex]I = I_o [cos(41.0)]^2[/tex]

      [tex]I =0.60 I_o[/tex]

This means that the second filter reduced the intensity by z =  0.60

Answer:

   R = r_protón / 2

Explanation:

The alpha particle when entering the magnetic field experiences a force and with Newton's second law we can describe its movement

      F = m a

Since the magnetic force is perpendicular, the acceleration is centripetal.

       a = v² / R

the magnetic force is

       F = q v x B = q v B sin θ

the field and the speed are perpendicular so the sin 90 = 1

we substitute

          qv B = m v² / R

          R = q v B / m v²

in the exercise they indicate

the charge  q = 2 e

the mass     m = 4 m_protón

        R = 2e v B / 4m_protón v²

we refer the result to the movement of the proton

         R = (e v B / m_proton) 1/2

the data in parentheses correspond to the radius of the proton's orbit

         R = r_protón / 2

Answer:

a. The primary turns is 60 turns

b. The secondary voltage will be 360 volts.

Explanation:

Given data

secondary turns N2= 40 turns

primary turns N1= ?

primary voltage V1= 120 volts

secondary voltage V2= 8 volts

Applying the transformer formula which is

[tex]\frac{N1}{N2} =\frac{V1}{V2}[/tex]

we can solve for N1 by substituting into the equation above

[tex]\frac{N1}{40} =\frac{120}{8} \\\ N1= \frac{40*120}{8} \\\ N1= \frac{4800}{8} \\\ N1= 60[/tex]

the primary turns is 60 turns

If the primary voltage is V1 240 volts hence the secondary voltage V2 will be (to get the voltage of the secondary coil using emf substitute the values of the previously gotten N1 and N2 using V1 as 240 volts)

[tex]\frac{40}{60} =\frac{240}{V2}\\\\V2= \frac{60*240}{40} \\\\V2=\frac{ 14400}{40} \\\\V2= 360[/tex]

the secondary voltage will be 360 volts.

(a) In the primary coil, you have "60 turns".

(b) The emf across the secondary coil would be "360 volts".

According to the question,

Primary voltage, V₁ = 120 volts

Secondary voltage, V₂ = 8 volts

Secondary turns, N₂ = 40 turns

(a) By applying transformer formula,

→ [tex]\frac{N_1}{N_2} = \frac{V_1}{V_2}[/tex]

or,

   N₁ = [tex]\frac{N_2\times V_1}{V_2}[/tex]

By substituting the values,

        = [tex]\frac{40\times 120}{8}[/tex]

        = [tex]\frac{4800}{8}[/tex]

        = 60

(2) Again by using the above formula,

→ V₂ = [tex]\frac{60\times 240}{40}[/tex]

       = [tex]\frac{14400}{40}[/tex]

       = 360 volts.

Thus the above approach is correct.  

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Answer:

1.3515x10^5pa

Explanation:

Plss see attached file

Answer:

A. plot an H-R diagram for the stars in the cluster.

Explanation:

A star cluster can be defined as a constellation of stars, due to gravitational force, which has the same origin.

The astronomy student would have to plot an H-R diagram for the stars in the cluster and determine the age of the cluster by observing the turn-off point. The turn-off is majorly as a result of gradual depletion of the source of energy of the star. Thus, it projects off the constellation.

Answer:

The frequency increases by 4 because it is inversely proportional to the wavelength.

Explanation:

It is given that,

The separation between two parallel wires, r = 11 cm = 0.11 m

Current in wire 1, [tex]q_1=54\ A[/tex]

Current in wire 2, [tex]q_2=45\ A[/tex]

Length of wires, l = 4.3 m

We need to find the magnitude of the magnetic force on a 4.3 m length of the wire carrying the greater current. The magnetic force per unit length is given by :

[tex]\dfrac{F}{l}=\dfrac{\mu_o I_1I_2}{2\pi r}\\\\F=\dfrac{\mu_o I_1I_2l}{2\pi r}\\\\F=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 54\times 45\times 4.3}{2\pi \times 0.11}\\\\F=0.0189\ N[/tex]

So, the magnetic force on a 4.3 m length of the wire  on both of currents is F=0.0189 N.

Answer:

Explanation:

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Answer:

Heat transfer is the transmission of heat energy from a body at higher temperature to lower temperature. The three mechanisms of heat transfer are

Example of Conduction:

Heating a metal

Example of Convection:

Sea Breeze

Example of Radiation:

Sun

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

Answer:

Transmission of heat is the movement of thermal energy from one thing to another thing of different temperature.

There are three(3) different ways heat can transfer and they are:

a) Conduction (through direct contact).

b) Convection (through fluid movement).

c) Radiation (through electromagnetic waves).

Examples: 1.Heating a saucepan of water using a coalpot.(conduction&convection).

2. Baking a pie in an oven(radiation).

Thanks!!!!❤❤❤

Answer:

Explanation:

The set up is a compound microscope. The converging lens is the objective lens while the diverging lens is the eyepiece lens.

In compound microscopes, the distance between the two lenses is expressed as L = v0+ue

v0 is the image distance of the objective lens and ue is the object distance of the eye piece lens.

Befre we can get the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens (ve), we need to get ue first.

Given L = 18.0cm

Using the lens formula to get v0 where u0 = 12.0cm and f0 = 7.40cm

1/f0 = 1/u0+1/v0

f0 and u0 are the focal length and object distance of the converging lens (objective lens)respectively.

1/v0 = 1/7.4-1/12

1/v0 = 0.1351-0.0833

1/v0 = 0.0518

v0 = 1/0.2184

v0 = 19.31cm

Note that v0 = ue = 19.31cm

To get ve, we will use the lens formula 1/fe = 1/ue+1/ve

1/ve = 1/fe-1/ue

Given ue = 19.31cm and fe = -7.00cm

1/ve = -1/7.0-1/19.31

1/ve = -0.1429-0.0518

1/ve = -0.1947

ve = 1/-0.1947

ve = -5.14cm

Hence, the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens is 5.14cm to the lens

b) Magnification of the final image M = ve/ue

M = 5.14/19.31

M = 0.27

Magnification of the final image is 0.27