Economists will always disagree in which area of economics because it is based on value judgments and opinions:

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Answer 1

Economists may often disagree in the area of macroeconomics because it is based on value judgments and opinions. Macroeconomics deals with the study of the overall economy, including factors such as inflation, unemployment, and economic growth.

These topics are complex and can be influenced by various factors, making it difficult for economists to reach a consensus.

Additionally, macroeconomic policies can have significant impacts on society, and different economists may have different value judgments or opinions on how these policies should be implemented.

As a result, disagreements can arise in this area of economics.

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write a management brief (a 500-1,000 word paper) discussing the importance of corporate responsibility to the organization.

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Corporate responsibility is crucial to organizations as it enhances reputation, attracts stakeholders, and fosters long-term sustainability.

Corporate responsibility encompasses the ethical, social, and environmental responsibilities that organizations have towards their stakeholders and the communities they operate in. By engaging in responsible business practices, organizations can build a positive reputation, which not only attracts customers but also encourages employee loyalty and enhances investor confidence. Furthermore, demonstrating commitment to social and environmental issues helps organizations address global challenges, contribute to sustainable development, and mitigate risks. Ultimately, corporate responsibility is essential for long-term success and the creation of shared value for both the organization and society.

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intellectual capital refers to tangible assets and resources of an enterprise that are captured by conventional accounting reports. true false

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False. Intellectual capital refers to intangible assets and resources of an enterprise that are not captured by conventional accounting reports.

Is it true that intellectual capital refers to tangible assets and resources captured by conventional accounting reports?

It encompasses the knowledge, expertise, skills, patents, trademarks, copyrights, customer relationships, and other intangible assets that contribute to a company's value and competitive advantage.

These assets are not typically reflected in financial statements, as they do not have a physical or monetary form that can be easily quantified.

However, intellectual capital is recognized as a critical driver of long-term success and innovation in today's knowledge-based economy.

While conventional accounting reports primarily focus on tangible assets, intellectual capital plays a significant role in creating and sustaining value for organizations and is increasingly recognized as a strategic resource that should be managed and leveraged effectively.

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which of the following statements about the coefficient of variation (cv) are correct? the cv is a measure of relative dispersion. the cv is useful in comparing the risk of assets with differing average or expected returns. the cv is calculated by dividing the standard deviation by the average or expected return. the higher the cv of an investment, the lower its risk.

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Statements correct:CV is measure of relative dispersion.CV is useful in comparing risk of assets with differing average or expected returns.CV is calculated by dividing standard deviation by average/expected return.

The coefficient of variation (CV) is a statistical measure used to assess the relative dispersion or variability of a dataset. It provides a standardized measure of risk that allows for comparisons between assets or investments with differing average or expected returns. The CV is particularly useful when comparing investments with different units of measurement or scales. To calculate the CV, the standard deviation is divided by the average or expected return. This normalization process allows for a direct comparison of risk levels, as it accounts for the differences in variability relative to the mean or expected value.

It's important to note that the interpretation of the CV in terms of risk depends on the context and the underlying dataset. Generally, a higher CV suggests a greater relative dispersion or variability, indicating a higher level of risk. However, it is incorrect to state that the higher the CV, the lower the risk. Risk assessment should consider multiple factors, such as the specific characteristics of the investment, the investment horizon, and the investor's risk tolerance.

In summary, the CV is a valuable tool for comparing the risk of assets with differing average or expected returns. By normalizing the standard deviation relative to the mean or expected value, it provides a relative measure of dispersion that aids in risk assessment and investment decision-making.

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liquidity is: question 14 options: a measure of the use of debt in a firm's capital structure. equal to the book value of a firm's total assets minus its total liabilities. equal to the market value of a firm's total assets minus its total liabilities. valuable to a firm even though liquid assets tend to be less profitable to own. generally most closely associated with intangible, rather than tangible, assets.

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Liquidity refers to a company's ability to meet short-term financial obligations. It is not tied to debt or book value, but rather to readily available cash or easily convertible assets. Tangible assets are more closely associated with liquidity than intangible assets.



Liquidity refers to the ability of a company to meet its short-term financial obligations. It is not directly related to the use of debt in a firm's capital structure or the book value of assets minus liabilities. Instead, liquidity is typically associated with the availability of cash or easily convertible assets that can be used to cover immediate expenses.

The market value of a firm's total assets minus liabilities does not necessarily represent its liquidity, as market values can fluctuate. While liquid assets may be less profitable to own compared to investments with higher returns, they are still valuable to a firm as they provide financial flexibility and ensure that the company can meet its day-to-day operational needs.

Liquidity is generally more closely associated with tangible assets, such as cash, marketable securities, and inventory, rather than intangible assets. Tangible assets are readily convertible into cash and can be used to fulfill short-term obligations, enhancing a company's liquidity position.

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1) The Farber Company recorded the following costs of quality during the current period:
Downtime $ 1,500 Inspection 1,000 Product design 4,000 Reliability testing upon completion of production 2,500 Restocking and packaging 1,500 Training 3,000 Warranty repairs and replacements 2,500 Total Costs of Quality $ 16,000 Which choice below represents the correct amount of prevention and appraisal costs?
Prevention Appraisal
A) $ 4,000 $ 1,000 B) $ 3,000 $ 1,000 C) $ 7,000 $ 3,500 D) $ 3,000 $ 2,500 Multiple Choice
Choice A
Choice B
Choice C
Choice D

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The correct amount of prevention and appraisal costs is represented by Choice C: $7,000 for prevention costs and $3,500 for appraisal costs. Option C

To determine the correct amount of prevention and appraisal costs based on the given information, we need to understand the nature of these costs.

Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects from occurring in the first place. These costs are associated with activities such as product design, reliability testing, training, and other measures taken to ensure the quality and reliability of the product.

Appraisal costs, on the other hand, are incurred to evaluate and inspect the products or processes to identify any defects or deviations from the desired quality standards. These costs include inspection, testing, and other appraisal activities.

Looking at the costs provided by Farber Company, we can identify the prevention and appraisal costs:

Prevention costs: Product design ($4,000) + Reliability testing upon completion of production ($2,500) + Training ($3,000) = $9,500.

Appraisal costs: Inspection ($1,000).

Therefore, the correct amount of prevention and appraisal costs is represented by Choice C: $7,000 for prevention costs and $3,500 for appraisal costs.

Option C

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Saige invests $400 into an account with a 2.3% interest rate that is compounded semiannually. How much money will she have in this account if she keeps it for 5 years

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Saige will have approximately $448.81 in her account after 5 years if she keeps her $400 investment with a 2.3% interest rate compounded semiannually.



To find out how much money Saige will have in her account after 5 years, we can use the formula for compound interest:

A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)

Where:
A = the final amount (the amount she will have in her account after 5 years)
P = the principal amount (the initial investment of $400)
r = the annual interest rate (2.3%)
n = the number of times interest is compounded per year (semiannually, so n = 2)
t = the number of years (5)

Using this formula, we can plug in the values and calculate the final amount:

A = 400(1 + 0.023/2)^(2 * 5)

Simplifying this equation step by step:

A = 400(1 + 0.0115)^(10)

A = 400(1.0115)^(10)

A = 400 * 1.12201819
A ≈ 448.81

So, Saige will have approximately $448.81 in her account after 5 years if she keeps her $400 investment with a 2.3% interest rate compounded semiannually.
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Middle managers occupy the management level that falls between the operating employees and first-line managers. True or false?.

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True. Middle managers are responsible for managing a group of first-line managers and are positioned between the operating employees and first-line managers in the management hierarchy.

When an organisational structure is laid out in a hierarchical manner, the chain of command or the level of position and ranking resembles a pyramid. This organisational structure consists of many organisations, and every employee—aside from the CEO or president—of the company reports to someone else.When an organisational structure is set up in a hierarchical fashion, the level of position and ranking, or the chain of command, resembles a pyramid. With the exception of the CEO or president, every employee of the firm reports to a different organisation in this organisational structure.

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In the long run a monopoly will tend toward ___________ profits because economic profits would attract resources trying to overcome barrie

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In the long run, a monopoly will tend toward zero economic profits as barriers to entry are eventually overcome, leading to increased competition and lower profits.

In the long run, a monopoly will tend toward zero economic profits because economic profits would attract resources trying to overcome barriers to entry and enter the market.

A monopoly occurs when a single company dominates the market and has exclusive control over the production and sale of a particular product or service. This allows the monopolistic firm to set prices higher than its costs and earn positive economic profits in the short run.

However, in the long run, barriers to entry prevent new firms from entering the market and competing with the monopoly. These barriers could include high start-up costs, patents or copyrights, control over key resources, or economies of scale.

If the monopoly is earning economic profits, it will attract new firms that want to share in those profits. These new firms will invest resources to overcome the barriers to entry and enter the market, which will increase competition.

As more firms enter the market, the monopoly's market share and ability to set high prices will decrease. This increased competition will drive down prices and reduce the monopoly's economic profits. In the long run, the competition will erode the monopoly's ability to earn economic profits, and it will tend toward zero economic profits.

Conclusion in one line: In the long run, a monopoly will tend toward zero economic profits as barriers to entry are eventually overcome, leading to increased competition and lower profits.

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On a statement of cash flows for a manufacturer of digital thermometers, the cash flows from operating activities would include: Group of answer choices increases in the manufacturer's inventory the sale of land adjacent to the manufacturer's administrative office building the money borrowed from the bank to start the company repayment of long-term loan by a wholesaler of weather-related items purchase of new $25,000 copying machine

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On a statement of cash flows for a manufacturer of digital thermometers, the cash flows from operating activities would include increases in the manufacturer's inventory and the repayment of long-term loan by a wholesaler of weather-related items.

On a statement of cash flows for a manufacturer of digital thermometers, the cash flows from operating activities refer to the cash inflows and outflows directly related to the company's core operations. In this context, the following items would be included:

1. Increases in the manufacturer's inventory: This refers to the cash spent by the manufacturer to acquire additional inventory, such as raw materials or finished products, necessary for the production and sale of digital thermometers. It represents a cash outflow.

2. The sale of land adjacent to the manufacturer's administrative office building: If the manufacturer sells land that is not directly related to its core operations (i.e., the production and sale of digital thermometers), the cash received from the sale would be considered a cash inflow from an investing activity rather than an operating activity. Therefore, it would not be included in the cash flows from operating activities.

3. The money borrowed from the bank to start the company: Cash borrowed from a bank to finance the initial setup and operations of the manufacturer would not be considered a cash flow from operating activities. It would be classified as a cash inflow from a financing activity since it represents an external source of funding for the company.

4. Repayment of long-term loan by a wholesaler of weather-related items: The repayment of a long-term loan received by a wholesaler, which is unrelated to the manufacturer's operations, would not be included in the manufacturer's statement of cash flows. It is a cash outflow from the perspective of the wholesaler and represents a financing activity for them.

5. Purchase of a new $25,000 copying machine: The cash spent by the manufacturer to purchase a copying machine would be considered a cash outflow from operating activities if the copying machine is necessary for the day-to-day operations of the business, such as creating product documentation or administrative tasks.

To summarize, the cash flows from operating activities in the statement of cash flows for a manufacturer of digital thermometers would typically include increases in inventory and the purchase of essential operating assets. Other transactions such as land sales or loans obtained to start the company or repayments made by unrelated parties would not be included in this category.

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which of the following is a correct statement? adopting the cloud services does not help with projecting the future capacity needs. adopting iaas, a business may save 10% to 20% of the it budget. adopting the cloud services does not reduce the energy costs. adopting the cloud services does not help with projecting the future capacity needs.

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The correct statement is: "Adopting the cloud services does not help with projecting the future capacity needs."

Adopting cloud services actually helps with projecting future capacity needs. Cloud computing provides scalability and flexibility, allowing businesses to easily adjust their computing resources according to their changing needs. With cloud services, organizations can scale up or down their infrastructure and resources based on demand, ensuring they have the necessary capacity to meet their requirements.

Cloud providers offer various tools and features that enable businesses to monitor and analyze their resource usage, allowing them to make informed decisions and accurately project their future capacity needs.

In contrast, the other statements are incorrect. Adopting Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) can indeed help save costs, typically ranging from 10% to 20% of the IT budget. By leveraging cloud infrastructure, businesses can avoid large upfront investments in hardware and reduce the need for ongoing maintenance and upgrades.

Cloud services can also lead to energy cost reduction as they provide efficient resource utilization and enable businesses to leverage shared infrastructure, reducing the overall energy consumption compared to traditional on-premises setups.

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the cost-benefit analysis of pollution control is just one answer in determining how much energy and money should be spent on reducing SO2 emissions and, thus, its effects on the environment. For example, the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 allowed the EPA to limit the amount of SO2 that could be emitted by coal burning power plants, with incremental decreases to SO2 emissions each year. Facilitated through a market-based system, the EPA allowed a specific amount of SO2 emissions for each power plant; if individual power plants were able to reduce their emissions below their allotted number of allowances, then they could trade or sell their allowances to other power plants in the open market. Which of the following best describes the economic tool used by the EPA in the 1990s to reduce SO2 emissions? O Switching from a material-flow to service-flow economy O Command-and-control solutions O Cap-and-trade approach

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The economic tool used by the EPA in the 1990s to reduce SO2 emissions is the cap-and-trade approach.

This approach involved setting a specific cap or limit on the total amount of SO2 emissions allowed from coal-burning power plants. Each power plant was allocated a certain number of emission allowances, representing the right to emit a specific amount of SO2. Power plants that reduced their emissions below their allotted allowances could sell or trade their excess allowances to other power plants. This market-based system incentivized emission reductions and provided flexibility for power plants to meet their obligations in a cost-effective manner.

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universal containers created a new job posting on the first of the month. it triggered a process scheduled action that will send a chatter post to the department vp in 30 days if the position is still open and the status is not equal to interviewing. on the 10th of the month, an applicant interviews and the job posting status is updated to interviewing. what will happen to the chatter post in this situation?

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In this situation, the scheduled action to send a chatter post to the department VP in 30 days will be canceled because the job posting status has been updated to "interviewing" before the 30-day period.

The scheduled action was triggered to send a chatter post to the department VP after 30 days if the position is still open and the status is not equal to "interviewing." However, on the 10th of the month, an applicant interviews for the position, and the job posting status is updated to "interviewing." Since the status now matches the condition for the scheduled action, the system will recognize this change and cancel the chatter post action. As a result, the chatter post will not be sent to the department VP since the job posting status has been updated to "interviewing" within the 30-day period.

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Final answer:

The chatter post will not be sent because the job posting status was updated to interviewing.

Explanation:

In this situation, the chatter post will not be sent to the department VP. Since the job posting status was updated to interviewing on the 10th of the month, it means that the status is no longer equal to 'not equal to interviewing', which is the condition for sending the chatter post. Therefore, the process scheduled action will not be triggered and the chatter post will not be sent.

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1) For any good (or service), a change in any factor except for ________ would shift the demand curve
Group of answer choices
The weather
​The interest rate
​The good's (own) selling price
​All of the above
2) The upward slope that is typical of virtually all supply curves implies that
Group of answer choices
There is no clear relationship between price and quantity supplied
As its price falls, the quantity supplied of a good will increase
As its price rises, the quantity supplied of a good will increase
We can predict how much of a good will be supplied, but only at the equilibrium price level
3) If, for some reason, the current market price for a good is below its (true) equilibrium price, we would expect that
Group of answer choices
buyers for the good will start to outnumber sellers, which eventually forces the price back down towards equilibrium
buyers for the good will start to outnumber sellers, which eventually forces the price back up towards equilibrium
sellers for the good will start to outnumber buyers, which eventually forces the price back down towards equilibrium
sellers for the good will start to outnumber buyers, which eventually forces the price back up towards equilibrium
4) Which of the following scenarios correctly illustrates the "indifference principle"?
Group of answer choices
If one business opportunity is much riskier than another, then eventually the riskier one will always produce lower returns (or profits)
If two business opportunities are equally attractive in every possible way, then eventually they will produce basically identical returns (or profits)
If one occupation (for example, garbage collection) is more difficult (or unpleasant) than most others, then eventually no one will be willing to perform that kind of work because it necessarily will pay very low wages
In long-run equilibrium, people will decide what occupation to work in based only on the wages that the occupation pays, and not on account of any other factor

Answers

For any good (or service), a change in any factor except for the good's (own) selling price would shift the demand curve. The upward slope that is typical of virtually all supply curves implies that As its price rises, the quantity supplied of a good will increase. If, for some reason, the current market price for a good is below its (true) equilibrium price,.

We would expect that buyers for the good will start to outnumber sellers, which eventually forces the price back up towards equilibrium. If two business opportunities are equally attractive in every possible way, then eventually they will produce basically identical returns (or profits) is the scenario that correctly illustrates the "indifference principle." Therefore, the correct answer is: The weather The good's (own) selling price As its price rises, the quantity supplied of a good will increase buyers for the good will start to outnumber sellers, which eventually forces the price back up towards equilibrium If two business opportunities are equally attractive in every possible way, then eventually they will produce basically identical returns (or profits).

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Annual demand for a product is 16,120 units; weekly demand is 310 units with a standard deviation of 55 units. The cost of placing an order is $145, and the time from ordering to receipt is four weeks. The annual inventory carrying cost is $0.55 per unit. a. What is the economic order quantity

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The economic order quantity (EOQ) for this product is approximately 29,148 units.

The economic order quantity (EOQ) is a concept in inventory management that determines the optimal quantity of inventory to order or produce in order to minimize total inventory costs. It is based on the trade-off between holding costs (costs associated with storing inventory) and ordering costs (costs associated with placing orders and receiving inventory).

To find the economic order quantity (EOQ), we can use the following formula:
EOQ = √((2 * annual demand * cost per order) / annual carrying cost)

-
Annual demand = 16,120 units
- Cost per order = $145
- Annual carrying cost = $0.55 per unit

Substituting the values into the formula:
EOQ = √((2 * 16,120 * 145) / 0.55)

Simplifying the expression:
EOQ = √(467,840,000 / 0.55)
EOQ = √850,618,181.82
EOQ ≈ 29,147.51

Therefore, this product's economic order quantity (EOQ) is roughly 29,148 units.

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In the absence of trade, what would be the relative price of apples (papple/pbanana) at home? why

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In the absence of trade, the relative price of apples (papple/pbanana) at home would be determined by the domestic supply and demand for apples and bananas. The relative price reflects the ratio of the prices at which apples and bananas are exchanged in the domestic market.

If the domestic supply of apples is high relative to the demand, the price of apples may decrease compared to bananas, resulting in a lower relative price (papple/pbanana). Conversely, if the demand for apples exceeds the domestic supply, the price of apples may increase relative to bananas, leading to a higher relative price.
Various factors such as production costs, availability of resources, technological advancements, consumer preferences, and government policies can influence the relative prices of goods in the absence of trade. Therefore, without considering international trade, the relative price of apples at home will depend on the dynamics of the domestic market for apples and bananas.

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the financial statement that summarizes the revenue and expenses and resulting net income (or loss) over a specified time period is called the

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The financial statement that summarizes the revenue and expenses, as well as the resulting net income or loss over a specified time period, is called the income statement.

What is the financial statement that summarizes revenue, expenses, and net income (or loss) over a specified time period called?

The income statement provides a comprehensive overview of a company's financial performance during a specific period, typically a month, quarter, or year.

It showcases the revenue generated from the company's primary operations, the expenses incurred in generating that revenue, and the resulting net income or loss.

By presenting the financial results in a systematic manner, the income statement helps stakeholders assess the profitability and operational efficiency of the company.

It is an essential tool for decision-making, financial analysis, and evaluating the company's overall financial health and performance.

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Determine the equation of the parabola whose graph is given below. Enter your answer in general form. A parabola that opens downward graphed on a coordinate plane.

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The equation of a parabola in general form is given by:y = ax^2 + bx + c


For a parabola that opens downward, the coefficient of the x^2 term (a) will be negative. To determine the equation of the parabola given the graph, we need to find the values of a, b, and c. Locate the vertex of the parabola on the graph. . Determine the x-coordinate of the vertex. This will be the value of x where the parabola reaches its minimum.  Use the x-coordinate of the vertex to find the y-coordinate of the vertex.


Substitute the coordinates of the vertex (x, y) into the equation y = ax^2 + bx + c to obtain one equation.  Choose two other points on the parabola and substitute their coordinates (x, y) into the equation to obtain two additional equations. . Solve the system of equations to find the values of a, b, and c. Write the equation of the parabola in general form, using the determined values of a, b, and c.

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does accounting profit or economic profit determine how entrepreneurs allocate resources between different business ventures

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When entrepreneurs are making decisions about allocating resources between different business ventures, they typically consider both accounting profit and economic profit. Accounting profit refers to the difference between a company's total revenue and explicit costs, such as wages, rent, and materials. On the other hand, economic profit takes into account both explicit costs and implicit costs, which are the opportunity costs of using resources in a particular venture.

Entrepreneurs often use economic profit as a more comprehensive measure when deciding how to allocate resources. This is because economic profit considers not only the financial costs of a venture but also the foregone opportunities that could have been pursued with those resources. By considering both accounting profit and economic profit, entrepreneurs can make more informed decisions about the most efficient and profitable use of their resources.


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a corporation has assets of br . 995,000 liabilities of br . 590,000 and capital of br . 250,000. what is the amount if its retained earning?

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Retained earnings is the amount of profit that a corporation has not distributed to shareholders which is 155,000.

Calculate the total equity: Total equity = Assets - Liabilities

In this case, the total equity is 995,000 - 590,000 = 405,000

Subtract the capital: Retained earnings = Total equity - Capital

In this case, the retained earnings is 405,000 - 250,000 = 155,000

Therefore, the retained earnings of the corporation is 155,000.

Here is the formula for calculating retained earnings:

Retained earnings = Total equity - Capital

Retained earnings is the portion of the corporation's profits that is not distributed to shareholders as dividends. It is used to fund the corporation's operations and growth.

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which of these teams achieve high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability?

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The teams that achieve high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability are the self-managed teams. What are self-managed teams? Self-managed teams are also known as self-directed teams or autonomous workgroups.

They are a group of employees who work together and hold each other responsible for a particular set of tasks or projects. The team members have a degree of autonomy and are accountable to themselves and their colleagues for the work they do and how it is done. Self-managed teams tend to be more flexible, creative, and adaptive than traditional teams. They achieve high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability. They are highly successful because they possess three key qualities:They are motivated and invested in their work. Self-managed teams are self-driven and committed to their work. Because they are invested in their jobs, they take pride in their work and strive to do it well.They are flexible. Self-managed teams can adapt to change and learn from mistakes. They use their knowledge and experience to find creative solutions to problems and innovate when necessary.

They are collaborative. Self-managed teams work together, pooling their knowledge and skills to achieve common goals. They share ideas and insights, and they support each other to reach their objectives.In summary, the self-managed teams achieve high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability.

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The reserve ratio for this bank is 12 percent. If the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, then this bank has excess reserves of _____.

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To calculate the excess reserves for the bank, we need to subtract the required reserves from the total reserves.

Given that the reserve ratio for this bank is 12 percent and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, we can calculate the excess reserves as follows:

Excess reserves = Total reserves - Required reserves

Since the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the bank is required to hold 10 percent of its deposits as reserves.

Therefore, the excess reserves would be equal to 12 percent minus 10 percent.

Excess reserves = 12% - 10% = 2%

So, this bank has excess reserves of 2 percent.


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The goal of a good forecasting technique is to minimize the deviation between actual demand and the forecast. 11 boca Jelen piva od 0. 5 litara;.

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The goal of a good forecasting technique is to minimize the deviation between actual demand and the forecast. One effective technique is the moving average method.

To calculate it, you add up a set number of past demand values and divide by the number of periods. For example, to calculate the 3-period moving average, you add the last 3 demand values and divide by 3. This provides a smoothed forecast.

However, this method gives equal weight to all past demand values, regardless of their recency. Another technique is the weighted moving average, which assigns different weights to different periods.

This allows you to give more importance to recent data. By using these forecasting techniques, you can improve the accuracy of your demand forecasts and minimize deviations between actual and forecasted demand.

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Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about different types of institutional investors?
a) Pension funds are likely to have an allocation to participate in emerging market asset classes, though often have limited capacity and expertise.
b) Insurance companies are likely to have an allocation to participate in emerging market asset classes and tend to have large investment teams with expertise in emerging market investment.
c) Sovereign wealth funds have the most varied allocation and capacity to participate in emerging market asset classes, with great variance in allocations and capacity from fund to fund.
d) Commercial banks and investment banks often have the largest allocation and the strongest capacity to participate in emerging market asset classes.

Answers

False statement: d) Commercial banks and investment banks frequently have the largest allocations and the greatest potential to invest in emerging market asset classes.

The true statement regarding various institutional investor types that is FALSE is: d) Commercial banks and investment banks frequently have the largest allocations and the greatest potential to invest in emerging market asset classes. Although it is true that commercial banks and investment banks have sizable allocations and the ability to participate in emerging market asset classes, it is not realistic to say that they invariably do. Depending on the particular organisation and its investing plan, institutional investors' ability and allocation can differ significantly. Other institutional investors with significant allocations and experience in developing market assets include sovereign wealth funds, pension funds, and insurance firms. Therefore, generalizing that commercial banks and investment firms are the same In this situation, banks always have the most allocation and capacity.

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In a competitive labor market, an increase in the minimum wage results in a(n) __________ in the quantity of labor supplied and a(n) __________ in the quantity of labor demanded.

Answers

In a competitive labor market, an increase in the minimum wage results in a decrease in the quantity of labor supplied and an increase in the quantity of labor demanded.



When the minimum wage is increased, it means that employers are legally required to pay their employees a higher wage. As a result, some workers who were previously willing to work for lower wages may choose not to work at all because the higher minimum wage makes it less attractive for them. This leads to a decrease in the quantity of labor supplied.
On the other hand, the increase in the minimum wage also means that employers are willing to hire more workers at the higher wage rate. This is because the higher wage makes it more attractive for employers to hire additional workers as they can now expect a higher level of productivity from each worker. Therefore, there is an increase in the quantity of labor demanded.

To summarize, an increase in the minimum wage in a competitive labor market leads to a decrease in the quantity of labor supplied as some workers choose not to work, and an increase in the quantity of labor demanded as employers are willing to hire more workers at the higher wage rate. This is because the higher wage rate affects the decisions of both workers and employers in the labor market.

In conclusion, in a competitive labor market, an increase in the minimum wage results in a decrease in the quantity of labor supplied and an increase in the quantity of labor demanded.

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In​ argentina, authorities attempt to stop shipments of pirated​ merchandise, but inadequate resources and slow court procedures hamper enforcement. This example shows that​ ________.

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In Argentina, authorities attempt to stop shipments of pirated merchandise, but inadequate resources and slow court procedures hamper enforcement. This example shows that the efforts to combat piracy are hindered by limited resources and inefficient legal processes.

To begin, inadequate resources refer to a lack of manpower, technology, and funding necessary to effectively combat piracy. Without sufficient resources, authorities may struggle to monitor and intercept illegal shipments, making it difficult to effectively enforce anti-piracy measures.

Additionally, the slow court procedures further impede enforcement. Delays in the legal system can prolong the process of prosecuting piracy cases, allowing criminals to continue their activities. This lack of efficiency undermines the authorities' attempts to stop the distribution of pirated merchandise.

Overall, this example highlights the importance of adequate resources and efficient legal procedures in combating piracy effectively. By addressing these shortcomings, authorities can enhance their enforcement efforts and protect intellectual property rights more effectively.

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experience indicates that the probability of a favorable recommendation for a customer who will eventually not default is 0.80, and the chance of a favorable recommendation for a customer who will eventually default is 0.15. a) if the bank choices to not purchase the additional credit report, what should the bank do assuming they are an emv maximizer? b) will the bank change its decision in part a if the customer had a 2% chance of defaulting?

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a) If the bank chooses not to purchase the additional credit report, they should recommend that the customer does not default.

b) No, the bank will not change its decision in part a if the customer had a 2% chance of defaulting.

a) This is because the probability of a favorable recommendation for a customer who will not default is higher (0.80) compared to a customer who will eventually default (0.15).

b) This is because the probability of a favorable recommendation for a customer who will not default is still higher (0.80) compared to a customer who will eventually default (0.15). The bank should still recommend that the customer does not default.

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Of the following​ accounts, which might appear in the adjusted trial​ balance, but not in the post−closing trial​ balance?
A.Income Summary
B.​Owner's Capital
C.Accounts Payable
D.Salary Expense

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The Income Summary account is used during the closing process to transfer the temporary revenue and expense accounts to the retained earnings or owner's capital account.

After the closing entries are made, the Income Summary account should have a zero balance and will not appear in the post-closing trial balance. The other options, B. Owner's Capital, C. Accounts Payable, and D. Salary Expense, are permanent accounts and will carry forward to the post-closing trial balance since they are not closed at the end of the accounting period.

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accountants who follow ethical practices demonstrate integrity and are respected for their work. what characteristics would be evident in ethical accounting practices?

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Accountants who follow ethical practices are the ones who demonstrate integrity and are respected for their work.

In ethical accounting practices, the following characteristics would be evident:

Professionalism: Accountants who follow ethical practices are very professional in their conduct. They always adhere to high ethical standards and remain competent in their work.Integrity: In ethical accounting practices, accountants always maintain their integrity. They are honest and transparent in their dealings with clients and don't compromise their professional standards for financial gain.Independence: In ethical accounting practices, accountants always maintain their independence. They avoid any personal or financial relationships that could affect their professional judgment and objectivity.Objectivity: In ethical accounting practices, accountants remain objective in their work. They provide an unbiased opinion of financial records and avoid any conflicts of interest.Responsibility: In ethical accounting practices, accountants take responsibility for their work. They ensure that financial records are accurate and complete, and provide timely and accurate reports to clients.Confidentiality: In ethical accounting practices, accountants always maintain the confidentiality of financial records. They protect client information and do not disclose it without the client's permission or as required by law.

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twenty years ago, mateo started an investment account with $2,000. he then invested $100 into the account every month at the end of each month. today, he has $46,528 in the same account. what is the term for the $100 monthly cash flows?

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The term for the $100 monthly cash flows that Mateo invested into the account is commonly referred to as "monthly contributions" or "monthly deposits."

In this scenario, Mateo started with an initial investment of $2,000 and made additional contributions of $100 at the end of each month for a period of twenty years. These regular monthly cash flows contributed to the growth of the investment account over time.

By consistently adding $100 every month, Mateo increased the principal amount in the account and allowed it to benefit from the power of compounding. The combined effect of the initial investment and the regular monthly contributions resulted in the account balance reaching $46,528 after twenty years.

So, to summarize, the $100 monthly cash flows are often referred to as "monthly contributions" or "monthly deposits" in the context of this investment account.

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gain generated from the sale of an equity security may be labeled a peripheral activity by one firm but is considered a core activity by another firm

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The labeling of gain generated from the sale of an equity security as a peripheral or core activity can vary among firms and depends on their specific business models, strategies, and priorities.

There is no universally defined categorization for such gains. However, the distinction between peripheral and core activities can be understood as follows:

1. Peripheral activities: These are typically secondary or incidental activities that are not central to a firm's primary operations or strategic focus. They may include activities such as one-time asset sales, non-recurring gains, or activities that are not directly related to the core business. For a firm that primarily engages in other operations, such as providing services or manufacturing products, gains from the sale of equity securities might be considered peripheral.

2. Core activities: These are the primary operations or functions that define a firm's main business. Core activities are essential to the company's strategic objectives and revenue generation. For a firm whose primary business revolves around investments or securities trading, gains from the sale of equity securities would likely be considered a core activity as it aligns with their core business model and primary source of income.

It's important to note that the categorization of gain from the sale of equity securities as peripheral or core can be subjective and vary based on individual company strategies, industry norms, and accounting practices. The characterization can also be influenced by regulatory requirements, reporting standards, and tax considerations. Ultimately, it is up to each firm to determine how they classify and prioritize various activities within their overall business operations.

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