easy 5th grade math please look at photo and show work. Giving brainliest!!

Answer:

235

Step-by-step explanation:

first, separate the floor into 3 different rectangles to calculate the area and then add them together.

area of rec=L*B

rec 1: 9*12.5=112.5

rec 2: (13.5-5.5)*(19.5-9-7)=28

rec 3:7*13.5=94.5

Then:

112.5+28+94.5=235

Answer:

26°

Step-by-step explanation:

∠a and the 154° angle are both supplementary, so their sum is equal to 180°.

[tex]a+154=180[/tex]

[tex]a=26[/tex]

So, m∠a=26°.

Answer:

If i'm not wrong it should be 26

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm so sorry if I am wrong.

Answer:

68% of the individuals in the population have an IQ between 85 and 115.  95% of the population has IQ scores between 70 and 130. 99.7% of the population has IQ scores between 55 and 145.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

for A plug in those numbers on the right and on the left start with 1 and move up(for example 1,2,3,4,5...)

For b  the answer is 2.5x²−4.5x+1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

are you realy a tutor?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

When you divide two fractions, such as 1/2 ÷ 2/3, you have to flip the second fraction and then you simply multiply the numerators with each other and the denominator with each other.

Answer:

507 cubic m

Step-by-step explanation:

V = l · w · h

V = 13 × 13 × 3

V = 507

Answer:

83 is still the mode

Step-by-step explanation:

The maximum possible value for the new mode is 83.

The data value that is repeated the most in the data set is called the mode of the given data set.

Given is that Mrs. Joyce calculated the class mode on her latest test. 18 students took it and the mode was 83. Three days later the four absent kids made it up and scored 77, 83, 68, and 80.

Initially, the mode of the class of 18 students is 83. This means that most of the students scored the 83 marks in the test. After four students took the test, the maximum probability that the mode will remain 83 is the highest. Also, one of the four numbers scored 83 itself.

Therefore, the maximum possible value for the new mode is 83.

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Answer:

d = 14/5

Step-by-step explanation:

The point (-4,2) means that;

At x = -4, y = 2

Now general form of a linear equation is;

Ax + By + C = 0

We are given;

4y = 3x + 6​

Rearranging to the form of a linear equation gives;

3x - 4y + 6 = 0

Thus, A = 3, B = -4 and C = 6

Thus, at point (-4,2), distance between them is;

d = (3(-4) - 4(2) + 6)/√(3² + (-4)²)

d = -14/5

We will take the absolute value.

Thus; d = 14/5

Answer:

First Blank: 4*2 = 8

Second Blank: 6*2 = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

The common ratio for the right row is the number thats given on the opposite side of it's left row times 2

Hope this helps!

Answer:

I have no clue my guess tbh 4 to 8 and 6 to 12

Answer:

The answer is number 7

Step-by-step explanation:

56÷8=7

n= 7

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]  times [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5 | 9

6 | 0 0 3 4 8

7 | 0 1 2

Step-by-step explanation:

The stems (to the left of the vertical line) are the first digits of the data, the leaves (to the right of the line) are the second digits)

7 | 0 1 2  represents the data 70, 71, 72

Answer:

The corresponding p - value will be  is < 0.00001 which is less than 0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose p= 0.12 and n= 540 then the standard deviation can be taken out as √p(1-p)/n= √0.12(1-0.12)/540= 0.014

For the probability that the survey will provide a sample proportion within 6.03 of the population proportion

we will find the z statistic

z= p^-p/√p(1-p)/n

But √p(1-p)/n= 0.014 and p^-p= 6.03

Putting the values

z= 6.03/0.014= 430.71

The corresponding p - value will be  is < 0.00001 which is less than 0.05

Answer:

12/35

Step-by-step explanation:

i don’t know the decimal but you can figure that out quickly

Answer:

zach ran 31680 feet over the weekend.

Step-by-step explanation:

1 mile = 5280, so 6 x 5280 = 31680

Answer:

I help you if you help me with this |a+5| if a<-5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

∠1 & ∠3 = 68°

∠2 & ∠4 = 112°

Step-by-step explanation:

180 degrees is the total sum of the angles in a triangle.

180 - 68 = 112

Answer:

336 3-letter-arrangements

Given:

[tex]y=f(x)[/tex]

[tex]f(x)=\dfrac{1}{2}x-3[/tex]

To find:

The input when the output is – 3.

Solution:

We have,

[tex]f(x)=\dfrac{1}{2}x-3[/tex]

Substituting [tex]f(x)=y[/tex], we get

[tex]y=\dfrac{1}{2}x-3[/tex]               ...(i)

We need to find the input when the output is – 3. It means, we have to find the value of x when [tex]y=-3[/tex].

Putting [tex]y=-3[/tex] in (i), we get

[tex]-3=\dfrac{1}{2}x-3[/tex]

[tex]-3+3=\dfrac{1}{2}x[/tex]

[tex]0=\dfrac{1}{2}x[/tex]

Multiply both sides by 2.

[tex]0=x[/tex]

Therefore, the input is 0 when the output is -3.

Answer:the answer is 60

Step-by-step explanation:

The question is “what is the length” so what I think we are supposed to do is to add since the height is 4 and the area is 64 so the length has to be 6

Hope I helped

Answer:

m<1 = 118

Step-by-step explanation:

The remote angles theorem states that when one extends one of the sides of a triangle, the sum of the two non-adjacent angles is equal to the measure of the angle between the extension of the side and a side of a triangle. One can apply this theorem here by stating that

(28) + (90) = m<1

Remember, a box around an angle signifies that its measure is (90) degrees.

Solve this problem by performing the operation,

118 = m<1

Answer:

cos(37°)

Step-by-step explanation:

sin(53°) = cos(90° - 53°)

sin(53°) = cos(37°)

Answer:

24%

Step-by-step explanation:

trust me and get blessed

The probability of drawing a card that could win the hand and actually winning the hand is 12%.

Option B is the correct answer.

It is the chance of an event to occur from a total number of outcomes.

The formula for probability is given as:

Probability = Number of required events / Total number of outcomes.

Example:

The probability of getting a head in tossing a coin.

P(H) = 1/2

We have,

There are 50 cards left in the deck after the 5 of spades and 10 of clubs are drawn since there are 4 suits with 13 cards each, and 2 of those cards have already been drawn.

Out of the remaining 50 cards, there are 16 cards that could win the hand: the 9 remaining cards higher than the 10 of clubs in any suit, and the 6 remaining cards in the spade suit (since the 5 of spades is already on the table).

Therefore, the probability of drawing a card that could win the hand is 16/50, which simplifies to 8/25. This is approximately 0.32 or 32%.

However, we need to subtract the probability of drawing the 5 of clubs, 10 of spades, or any of the 8 remaining cards that would not win the hand.

The probability of drawing one of these cards is 10/50, which simplifies to 1/5 or 20%.

The probability of drawing a card that could win the hand and actually winning the hand is:

(16/50) x (1/5)

= 0.32 - 0.2

= 0.12 or 12%.

Thus,

The probability of drawing a card that could win the hand and actually winning the hand is 12%.

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Answer:

B: Gabriel's

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it dropped 9% from last year

Answer:

n = 2.6

Step-by-step explanation:

6.5 : 5

n : 2

6.5/5 = 1.3

2 x 1.3 = 2.6

n = 2.6

i hope this helps