Pre -Darwinian Views on Evolution The idea of evolution has been around for a long time. Even before Charles Darwin presented his theory.
some people were already developing ideas about evolution. Three pre -Darwinian views on evolution are: Lamarckism : Jean-Baptiste Lamarck, a French naturalist, suggested that traits that were used frequently would become more developed and that traits that were not used would disappear over time.
Lamarck was one of the first people to suggest that organisms could change over time and evolve towards a more complex and better-adapted state. Lamarck's theory of evolution became popular during his lifetime, but it was later disproved by experiments that showed that traits are not passed down from parents to offspring based on their usage.
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Question: A new species of organism has 8 chromosomes that are different in shape and size. Find the number(s) of bivalent, chromosomes found in ascospore, and chromosomes found in the zygote.
In a new organism species with 8 chromosomes, there are 4 bivalent chromosomes formed during meiosis. The ascospore contains 8 chromosomes, while the zygote carries the full set of 8 chromosomes from both parents.
In this new species of organism with 8 chromosomes, there will be 4 bivalent chromosomes. Bivalent chromosomes are formed when homologous chromosomes pair up during meiosis. Since there are a total of 8 chromosomes, they will align and form 4 pairs, resulting in 4 bivalents.
During meiosis, bivalent chromosomes undergo genetic recombination, which leads to the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes. This process plays a crucial role in creating genetic diversity.
In terms of ascospores, the number of chromosomes found in them would be the same as the number of chromosomes in the parent organism, which is 8 in this case. Ascospores are produced during the sexual reproduction of fungi and contain the genetic material necessary for the formation of new individuals.
As for the zygote, it would contain the full set of chromosomes from both parent organisms, resulting in 8 chromosomes.
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She also exhibits these remaining symptoms: 1) Her blood clots excessively 2) She has lost all ability to secrete cortisol Please choose all of the hypothesis below that could be valid. You can click on more than one answer a. Her zona fasiculata region of her adrenal cortex is damaged b. Her anterior pituitary gland is no longer secreting ACTH
c. Her basophils are no longer secreting heparin d. Her eosinophils are no longer secreting heparin e. Her zona reticularis region of her adrenal medulla is damaged
f. Her posterior pituitary gland is no longer secreting ACTH
g. Her eosinophils are no longer secreting histamine
The valid hypothesis based on the given symptoms are a) Her zona fasciculata region of her adrenal cortex is damaged, and b) Her anterior pituitary gland is no longer secreting ACTH.
Based on the symptoms described, there are two valid hypotheses that could explain the patient's condition:
The zona fasiculata region of the adrenal cortex is responsible for producing cortisol. If this region is damaged, it can lead to a loss of cortisol secretion. Cortisol is essential for regulating various bodily functions, including immune response and blood clotting. Therefore, the excessive blood clotting and loss of cortisol secretion could be attributed to adrenal cortex damage.
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland and promotes the adrenal cortex's synthesis and release of cortisol. A lack of cortisol secretion can occur if the anterior pituitary gland fails to secrete ACTH correctly. Cortisol shortage might contribute to the symptoms indicated.Her basophils are no longer secreting heparin.
The other hypothesis (c, d, e, f, g) do not directly explain the symptoms mentioned. Heparin is not directly related to excessive blood clotting, and histamine is not involved in cortisol secretion. The zona reticularis region of the adrenal medulla is responsible for producing sex hormones, not cortisol. The posterior pituitary gland does not secrete ACTH; it releases oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.
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Longer intestines relative to size are typical of rabbits, horses, and other herbivorous animals O carnivorous animals O lions and pythons O humans and other primates
Longer intestines relative to size are typical of herbivorous animals such as rabbits, horses, and other herbivores. This is because plant materials, which are rich in cellulose and other complex carbohydrates, require longer digestive processes to be broken down and metabolized.
Herbivores have evolved longer digestive tracts to allow for the prolonged digestion of plant materials. This is in contrast to carnivorous animals such as lions and pythons, which have shorter intestines relative to their size. This is because animal tissues are easier to digest and absorb, and require less time to break down. Finally, humans and other primates have relatively shorter intestines compared to herbivorous animals but longer compared to carnivorous animals. This is because humans are omnivorous and require a digestive system that can process both plant and animal materials. In summary, herbivorous animals have longer intestines compared to their body size to allow for the digestion of complex plant materials, while carnivorous animals have shorter intestines because they require less time to break down animal tissues.
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plrase hurry 36
Which heart valve is also referred to as the mitral valve because it resembles the shape of the priest's miter? Tricuspid valve Pulmonic valve Semilunar valve Bicuspid valve None Which of the follow
The heart valve that is also referred to as the mitral valve because it resembles the shape of the priest's miter is known as the Bicuspid valve. The correct option is (D) Bicuspid valve.
Bicuspid valve, also known as the mitral valve, is the heart valve that is found between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
It has two flaps and it gets its name from its resemblance to the miter cap worn by bishops and some other clergy.
The other heart valves are: Tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle Pulmonic valve is located between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery Semilunar valve is a type of valve located in the blood vessels rather than in the heart.
They are present in the aorta and the pulmonary artery.
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1)the gizzard:
A) second stomach for better digestion
b) is part of all digestive tracts
c) is found only in birds
d) contains rocks for grinding food
2) why are cnetnophores so difficult to classify(select all that are correct)
A) bioluminese
b) polyp stage
c) triploblastic
d) close to radially symmetric
The gizzard contains rocks for grinding food. The correct option is D.
The gizzard is an organ present in the digestive tract of many animals. The gizzard acts as a muscular pouch and helps to grind up the ingested food into smaller particles. In some animals, it contains rocks or gravel, which are swallowed and stored there to help grind up the food. It is present in birds and some other animals.
The ctenophores are difficult to classify because they are bioluminescent, triploblastic, and close to radially symmetric. The correct options are A, C, and D.
Ctenophores are marine invertebrates commonly known as comb jellies. They are characterized by the presence of rows of cilia (combs) that they use to swim.
They are also known for their bioluminescent properties. These animals are triploblastic, which means that their bodies are composed of three germ layers: the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. They are also close to radially symmetric, which makes them difficult to classify.
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Would you expect a cat that is homozygous for a particular coat color allele, XOXO for example, to display a calico phenotype? Why or why not? Would X-inactivation still be expected to occur in this case? Briefly explain.
No, a cat that is homozygous for a particular coat color allele, such as XOXO, would not display a calico phenotype.
The calico phenotype in cats is the result of X-inactivation and random expression of different alleles on the X chromosome. In female cats, one of the X chromosomes is randomly inactivated in each cell during early development, leading to a mosaic pattern of gene expression.
In calico cats, the coat color allele for black (X^B) and orange (X^O) are located on the X chromosome. Females inherit two X chromosomes, one from each parent, so they can potentially inherit different combinations of X^B and X^O alleles. If a female cat is heterozygous for the coat color alleles (X^BX^O), X-inactivation leads to patches of cells expressing one allele and patches expressing the other, resulting in the calico pattern.
However, if a cat is homozygous for a particular coat color allele, such as XOXO, there is no variation in the coat color alleles to be randomly expressed. As a result, the cat would not display a calico phenotype.In this case, X-inactivation would still occur, but it would not result in a visible calico pattern because there is only one allele present. The inactivated X chromosome would remain inactive in all cells, and the active X chromosome would express the single coat color allele consistently throughout the cat's body.
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: Calculate the estimated original phage concentration based on each row of the table, using the data presented below. Be sure to show your work, and report your final result for each row in scientific notation with the unit "PFU/mL". Dilution factor Volume of phage plated Plaque count 104 0.1 mL TNTC 105 0.1 mL TNTC 106 0.1 mL 303 107 0.1 mL 172 108 0.1 mL 94 109 0.1 mL 9
The estimated original phage concentration was calculated for each row using the dilution factor, volume plated, and plaque count. The results ranged from 10^9 to 10^13 PFU/mL, with "TNTC" values assumed to be at least one order of magnitude higher than the maximum countable value.
To calculate the estimated original phage concentration, we need to consider the dilution factor, the volume of phage plated, and the plaque count.
The dilution factor represents how much the original phage solution was diluted before plating.
In this case, the dilution factor is the same for each row and is equal to 10^4, 10^5, 10^6, 10^7, 10^8, and 10^9 for the respective rows.
The volume of phage plated is given as 0.1 mL for each row.
The plaque count represents the number of plaques (viable phage) observed on the plates after incubation.
However, for rows where the plaque count is reported as "TNTC" (too numerous to count), we cannot use the exact count. Instead, we assume that the actual plaque count is at least one order of magnitude higher than the maximum countable value.
Let's calculate the estimated original phage concentration for each row:
Row 1: Dilution factor = 10^4, Volume plated = 0.1 mL, Plaque count = TNTC
Assuming the plaque count is at least 10^5, the estimated original phage concentration is 10^5 x 10^4 / 0.1 = 10^9 PFU/mL.
Row 2: Dilution factor = 10^5, Volume plated = 0.1 mL, Plaque count = TNTC
Assuming the plaque count is at least 10^6, the estimated original phage concentration is 10^6 x 10^5 / 0.1 = 10^12 PFU/mL.
Rows 3-6 can be calculated in a similar manner:
Row 3: Estimated concentration = 10^13 PFU/mL
Row 4: Estimated concentration = 10^12 PFU/mL
Row 5: Estimated concentration = 10^11 PFU/mL
Row 6: Estimated concentration = 10^10 PFU/mL
In summary, the estimated original phage concentrations for each row are:
Row 1: 1 x 10^9 PFU/mL
Row 2: 1 x 10^12 PFU/mL
Row 3: 1 x 10^13 PFU/mL
Row 4: 1 x 10^12 PFU/mL
Row 5: 1 x 10^11 PFU/mL
Row 6: 1 x 10^10 PFU/mL
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1. Was the immunoblot successful from a technical perspective? Bands should be easily seen at the
expected molecular weight, there should only be 1 band in each lane, blot should be free of
obvious defects and easy to interpret. Attach a photo of your blot with labeled lanes and
molecular weights.
2. Determine the molecular weight of the band detected by the antibody.
3. Did the amount of protein fractionate as expected? Obtain a photograph from another lab group
that used the other antibody?
4. Can you compare the amount of Rubisco to LHCII using the data generated in this lab? Why or
why not?
1. The success of the immunoblot from a technical perspective can be determined by assessing the visibility of bands at the expected molecular weight, the presence of only one band in each lane, absence of obvious defects, and ease of interpretation. 2. The molecular weight of the band detected by the antibody needs to be determined. 3. To assess whether the amount of protein fractionated as expected, a photograph from another lab group that used a different antibody should be obtained and compared. 4. It is necessary to determine if the data generated in this lab can be used to compare the amount of Rubisco to LHCII.
1. The success of an immunoblot depends on the technical aspects mentioned, such as clear visibility of bands at the expected molecular weight, the presence of only one band in each lane, and absence of defects like smearing or background noise. A labeled photo of the blot helps in assessing these criteria.
2. To determine the molecular weight of the band detected by the antibody, molecular weight markers or standards should be run alongside the samples. By comparing the migration position of the band with the marker bands, the approximate molecular weight can be estimated.
3. Comparing the protein fractionation between different antibodies or experiments can help assess consistency and reproducibility. Obtaining a photograph from another lab group that used a different antibody allows for comparison and evaluation of the protein pattern obtained.
4. The comparison of the amount of Rubisco (a protein involved in photosynthesis) to LHCII (Light Harvesting Complex II) can be done if the immunoblot data provides quantitative information on the protein levels. By analyzing the band intensities and using appropriate quantification techniques, a comparison can be made between the two proteins in terms of their abundance or relative expression levels.
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Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. The mucosa of the pyloric area of the stomach secretes the hormone gastrin, which stimulates the production of gastric acid for digestion b. The mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum secretes a hormone called secretin which stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice and bile. c. The hormone leptin is secreted by adipocytes and acts on hypothalamus to stimulate appetite and promote food intake d. Erythropoietin is released into the bloodstream when blood oxygen levels are low. e. Erythropoetin stimulates stem cells in the bone marrow to become red blood cells,
The INCORRECT statement from the given options is: The hormone leptin is secreted by adipocytes and acts on hypothalamus to stimulate appetite and promote food intake.Leptin is not a hormone that stimulates appetite but instead suppresses it.
It is a hormone secreted by adipocytes (fat cells) and acts on the hypothalamus of the brain. When fat cells in the body have an excess of energy storage, they secrete leptin into the bloodstream to signal to the brain to reduce food intake and increase energy expenditure. In contrast, when fat stores are low, leptin secretion decreases, leading to an increase in appetite and food intake.Gastrin, secretin, and erythropoietin are all hormones that play important roles in various physiological processes in the human body. Gastrin is secreted by the mucosa of the pyloric area of the stomach and stimulates the production of gastric acid for digestion. Secretin is secreted by the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice and bile to aid in digestion.
Erythropoietin is released into the bloodstream when blood oxygen levels are low and stimulates stem cells in the bone marrow to become red blood cells.
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1. Categorize the following mutations as either:
a) Likely to be greatly deleterious to an organism,
b) Likely to be slightly deleterious (rarely) slightly beneficial to an organism,
c) Likely to be selectively neutral
A synonymous substitution of a nucleotide in a noncoding region A, B C
An insertion of four extra nucleotides to a coding region A B ,C
A non-synonymous substitution of a nucleotide (missense) in a coding region A, B, C
A duplication that causes an organism to be triploid (Contain 3 complete genomes) A, B, C
The following mutations can be categorized as either greatly deleterious, slightly deleterious/slightly beneficial or selectively neutral.
Synonymous substitution of a nucleotide in a noncoding region (C- Selectively Neutral)This mutation will not lead to a change in the amino acid that is formed. Additionally, it is located in a non-coding region. As a result, it is very likely to be selectively neutral.Insertion of four extra nucleotides to a coding region (B- Likely to be slightly deleterious)This mutation will cause a frame shift mutation in the resulting amino acid sequence.
An amino acid sequence that is significantly different from the original sequence will be produced.Non-synonymous substitution of a nucleotide (missense) in a coding region )This mutation will result in a single amino acid substitution in the resulting protein sequence. It is possible that the substitution could lead to the production of a non-functional protein, but it is also possible that it may have little to no effect on the protein’s function.
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Effects of Temperature, UV, and pH on Growth, Bacteriophage Assay, Normal Human Bacterial Flora, Antibiotic Sensitivity, Environmental Testing, and making Yogurt. Briefly describe the most salient points for each section. Why do them, how do these tests work, how do you interpret them.
Section 2-9: Effect of Temperature on Growth
Section 2-13: Effect of UV on Growth
Section 6-5: Bacteriophage Plaque Assay
Section 5-24, and 5-25: Bacitracin, Novabiocin, Optochin Sensitivity Tests, and Blood Agar
Section 8-12: Membrane Filter Technique
Section 9-2: Making Yogurt
These tests identify bacteria growth characteristics, susceptibility to certain stimuli or drugs, bacteriophage presence, and yogurt quality.
Section 2-9: Temperature and Growth
Temperature affects bacterial growth. A bacterium's optimal growth temperature is tested. Bacterial cultures are inoculated at different temperatures and observed for growth. The organism's ideal temperature, growth rate, and colony form are interpreted.
UV and Growth
UV radiation affects bacterial development. Bacterial survival and growth are measured after UV light exposure. UV radiation causes bacteria DNA mutations and cell death. To measure bacteria susceptibility to UV light, compare the growth of exposed and unexposed cultures.
Section 6-5: Bacteriophage Plaque Assay
This section measures bacteriophages in a sample. Bacterial cultures and bacteriophages infect them for the experiment. Clear zones or plaques on a bacterial lawn indicate bacteriophages. Plaque count determines phage titer. Bacteriophage concentration is used for interpretation.
Bacitracin, Novobiocin, Optochin Sensitivity Tests, and Blood Agar: 5-24 and 5-25
These sections determine bacterial antibiotic sensitivity. Antibiotics suppress bacterial colonies. Bacteria's susceptibility to bacitracin, novobiocin, and optochin is tested. Bacteria hemolysis is measured with blood agar. Growth inhibition zones are compared to determine bacterial antibiotic susceptibility.
Membrane Filter Method
This section tests ambient samples for bacteria. A membrane filter traps liquid sample microorganisms. The filter is placed in a growth medium, where bacteria form colonies.
Section 9-2: Making Yoghurt
Yogurt is made from milk using a starter culture of bacteria, usually Lactobacillus spp. The starter culture ferments lactose in milk to produce lactic acid, curdling milk proteins and giving yogurt its texture and flavor.
These tests identify bacteria growth characteristics, susceptibility to certain stimuli or drugs, bacteriophage presence, and yogurt quality. Interpretation entails comparing results to standards to determine bacterial growth, sensitivity, or product quality.
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Lisa took a prescription medication that blocked her nicotinic receptors. i. Name the neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding. ii. Which ANS subdivision has been impacted? iii. Based on your an
i. The neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding is acetylcholine.
ii. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) subdivision that has been impacted is the parasympathetic nervous system.
iii. Based on the information provided, the blocking of nicotinic receptors by the medication is likely to result in decreased parasympathetic activity, leading to effects such as decreased salivation, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate.
i. The neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding is acetylcholine. Nicotinic receptors are a type of receptor in the nervous system that specifically bind to acetylcholine.
ii. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is responsible for regulating involuntary bodily functions. It is divided into two subdivisions: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. In this case, since the medication blocked nicotinic receptors, which are predominantly found in the parasympathetic division, the parasympathetic subdivision of the ANS has been impacted.
iii. Blocking nicotinic receptors in the parasympathetic division of the ANS would result in decreased parasympathetic activity. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for promoting rest and digestion. Its effects include increased salivation, increased gastrointestinal motility, and decreased heart rate. By blocking the nicotinic receptors, the medication would interfere with the binding of acetylcholine and subsequently decrease the parasympathetic response, leading to the opposite effects mentioned above, such as decreased salivation, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate.
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Different kinds of fatty acids could be metabolized by human cell, by using similar metabolic pathways. (a) (i) Upon complete oxidation of m vistic acid (14:0) , saturated fatty acid, calculate the number of ATP equivalents being generated in aerobic conditions. ( ∗∗∗ Show calculation step(s) clearly) [Assumption: the citric acid cycle is functioning and the mole ratio of ATPs produced by reoxidation of each NADH and FADH2 in the electron transport system are 3 and 2 respectively.] (6%)
Upon complete oxidation of myristic acid (14:0) in aerobic conditions, approximately 114 ATP equivalents would be generated.
To calculate the number of ATP equivalents generated upon complete oxidation of myristic acid (14:0), a saturated fatty acid, we need to consider the different metabolic pathways involved in its oxidation.
First, myristic acid undergoes beta-oxidation, a process that breaks down the fatty acid molecule into acetyl-CoA units. Since myristic acid has 14 carbons, it will undergo 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, producing 7 acetyl-CoA molecules.
Each round of beta-oxidation generates the following:
1 FADH2
1 NADH
1 acetyl-CoA
Now let's calculate the ATP equivalents generated from these products:
FADH2: According to the assumption given, each FADH2 can generate 2 ATP equivalents in the electron transport system (ETS). Since there are 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, we have 6 FADH2, resulting in 12 ATP equivalents (6 x 2).
NADH: Each NADH can generate 3 ATP equivalents in the ETS. With 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, we have 6 NADH, resulting in 18 ATP equivalents (6 x 3).
Acetyl-CoA: Each acetyl-CoA molecule enters the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle or TCA cycle) and goes through a series of reactions, generating energy intermediates that can be used to produce ATP. One round of the citric acid cycle generates 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP (which can be converted to ATP). Since we have 7 acetyl-CoA molecules, we will have 21 NADH, 7 FADH2, and 7 GTP (which is equivalent to ATP).
Calculating the ATP equivalents from acetyl-CoA:
NADH: 21 NADH x 3 ATP equivalents = 63 ATP equivalents
FADH2: 7 FADH2 x 2 ATP equivalents = 14 ATP equivalents
GTP (ATP): 7 ATP equivalents
Now we can sum up the ATP equivalents generated from FADH2, NADH, and acetyl-CoA:
FADH2: 12 ATP equivalents
NADH: 18 ATP equivalents
Acetyl-CoA: 63 ATP equivalents + 14 ATP equivalents + 7 ATP equivalents = 84 ATP equivalents
Finally, we add up the ATP equivalents from all sources:
12 ATP equivalents (FADH2) + 18 ATP equivalents (NADH) + 84 ATP equivalents (acetyl-CoA) = 114 ATP equivalents
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If you completely burn your dinner to ashes, what would be the
nutritional composition of those ashes
The remains would be primarily inorganic substances like carbonates, oxides, and trace minerals.
If you completely burn your dinner to ashes, the nutritional composition of those ashes would be minimal or non-existent. Burning food to ashes typically results in the complete combustion of organic matter, leaving behind mostly inorganic compounds and minerals.The term "organic matter," "organic material," or "natural organic matter" describes the significant source of carbon-based substances present in both naturally occurring and artificially created terrestrial and aquatic settings. It is material made up of organic components that were once part of plants, animals, and other living things.
The nutritional components of food, such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and most minerals, would be destroyed during the combustion process. What remains would be primarily inorganic substances like carbonates, oxides, and trace minerals. These ashes would not provide any significant nutritional value or sustenance.
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Studies have been done to evaluate the changes in metabolic pathways in skeletal muscle which occur in response to anaerobic training, and these studies have shown increases in creatine kinase activity, myokinase activity and in key enzymes of the glycolytic pathway.
However, these changes have not been related to changes in anaerobic exercise performance. What are the key factor(s) thought to be mediating changes in anaerobic exercise performance in response to anaerobic exercise training?
Select one:
a.
All of these answers are correct.
b.
Increases in maximal oxygen uptake.
c.
Increases in enzymes of the respiratory chain.
d.
Increases in muscle strength.
The key factor(s) thought to be mediating changes in anaerobic exercise performance in response to anaerobic exercise training is Increases in muscle strength.
The key factor(s) thought to be mediating changes in anaerobic exercise performance in response to anaerobic exercise training is Increases in muscle strength.
Studies have been done to evaluate the changes in metabolic pathways in skeletal muscle which occur in response to anaerobic training, and these studies have shown increases in creatine kinase activity, myokinase activity and in key enzymes of the glycolytic pathway. These changes have not been related to changes in anaerobic exercise performance.
However, the key factor(s) thought to be mediating changes in anaerobic exercise performance in response to anaerobic exercise training is Increases in muscle strength.
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Anatomy and Physiology I MJBO1 (Summer 2022) Cells that secrete osteoid are called and the cells that break down bone are called Select one: a. osteoblasts; osteoclasts b. osteoblasts; osteocytes c. o
The correct answer is: a. osteoblasts; osteoclasts.
Older bone resorption is caused by osteoclasts, and new bone creation is caused by osteoblasts.
The cells that secrete osteoid, which is the organic component of bone matrix, are called osteoblasts. Osteoblasts play a crucial role in bone formation and are responsible for synthesizing and depositing new bone tissue.
On the other hand, the cells that break down bone tissue are called osteoclasts. Osteoclasts are large, multinucleated cells derived from monocytes/macrophages. They are responsible for bone resorption, which is the process of breaking down and removing old or damaged bone tissue. Osteoclasts secrete enzymes and acids that dissolve the mineralized matrix of bone, allowing for the remodeling and reshaping of bone tissue.
Osteoblasts build and secrete new bone tissue, while osteoclasts break down and remove existing bone tissue. These two cell types work together in a dynamic process called bone remodeling, which maintains the balance between bone formation and resorption in the body.
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Review Questions 1. ______ is the net movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration. 2. a. _______ Did the color change in the beaker, the dialysis bag, or both in Procedure 6.17 b. Explain why 3. a. ______ For which dialysis bags in Procedure 6.2 did water move across the membrane? b. Explain how you determined this based on your results.
4. a. ______ What salt solution (0%, 9%, or 5%) is closest to an isotonic solution to the potato cells in Procedure 6.5? b. Explain how you determined this based on your results. 5. _______ Would you expect a red blood cell to swell, shrink, or remain the same if placed into distilled water? 6. Explain why hypotonic solutions affect plant and animal cells differently. 7. Explain how active transport is different than passive transport. 8. Phenolphthalein is a pH indicator that turns red in basic solutions. You set up an experiment where you place water and phenolphthalein into a dialysis bag. After closing the bag and rinsing it in distilled water, you place the dialysis bag into a beaker filled with sodium hydroxide (a basic/alkaline solution). You observe at the beginning of the experiment both the dialysis bag and the solution in the beaker are clear. After 30 minutes you observe that the contents of the dialysis bag have turned pink but the solution in the beaker has remained clear. What can you conclude in regards to the movements of phenolphthalein and sodium hydroxide?
Osmosis is the net movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration.
In Procedure 6.17, where did the color change occur and why?In Procedure 6.17, the color change can occur in the beaker, the dialysis bag, or both. The color change indicates the movement of solute particles across the membrane.
If the color changes in the beaker, it suggests that the solute molecules have diffused out of the dialysis bag into the surrounding solution.
If the color changes in the dialysis bag, it indicates that the solute molecules have passed through the membrane and entered the bag.
The occurrence of color change in both the beaker and the dialysis bag suggests that there is movement of solute in both directions.
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2. Discuss the genomic contexts where eukaryotic topolsomerase 1 prevents or promotes genome stability
Eukaryotic topoisomerase 1 is a type of enzyme that plays an important role in DNA replication and transcription. It is responsible for unwinding DNA during these processes, allowing for the DNA to be read and replicated accurately.
However, eukaryotic topoisomerase 1 can also cause problems if it is not regulated properly. In some cases, it can promote genome instability by causing DNA breaks and mutations. In other cases.
One of the most important genomic contexts where eukaryotic topoisomerase 1 promotes genome instability is in the context of replication. During replication, topoisomerase 1 can become trapped on DNA, leading to the formation of single-strand breaks.
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Short answer: Why Is it difficult treat HIV after it has turned into a prophage?
Explain what is a major characteristic of autoimmune diseases? What is the mortality of antra so much higher when. It is inhaled opposed to when exposure is through the skin? Briefly discuss why HIV_as sn detrimental to the patients Why can normal flora be responsible for diseases?
HIV is difficult to treat after it becomes a provirus because it integrates into the host cell's genome, becoming a permanent part of the infected cell.
1) When HIV turns into a provirus and integrates into the host cell's genome, it becomes difficult to treat because the viral genetic material becomes a permanent part of the infected cell. This makes it challenging to eliminate the virus completely, as it remains dormant and can reactivate at a later stage.
Additionally, the integration of HIV into the host cell's genome provides a reservoir for the virus, allowing it to persist even in the absence of active replication.
2) A major characteristic of autoimmune diseases is the immune system mistakenly attacking and damaging the body's own tissues and cells. In these conditions, the immune system fails to recognize self from non-self, leading to inflammation, tissue destruction, and organ dysfunction.
Autoimmune diseases can affect various organs and systems in the body, and the specific targets and mechanisms can vary depending on the disease.
3) The mortality of anthrax is higher when inhaled compared to skin exposure due to the route of entry and subsequent dissemination of the bacteria.
When inhaled, anthrax spores can reach the lungs, where they are phagocytosed by immune cells and transported to the lymph nodes. From there, the bacteria can enter the bloodstream and cause systemic infection, leading to severe illness and potentially fatal complications. In contrast, skin exposure typically results in a localized infection and is associated with a lower mortality rate.
4) HIV is detrimental to patients primarily due to its ability to target and destroy CD4+ T cells, a key component of the immune system. By depleting these immune cells, HIV weakens the body's ability to defend against infections and diseases.
This leads to a progressive decline in the immune function, making individuals more susceptible to opportunistic infections and cancers. Additionally, chronic inflammation caused by HIV infection can contribute to various complications and organ damage over time.
5) Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that colonize and reside in various parts of the human body, such as the skin, respiratory tract, and gastrointestinal tract. While normal flora generally exists in a symbiotic relationship with the host, under certain circumstances, they can become opportunistic pathogens and cause diseases.
Factors such as a weakened immune system, disruption of the normal microbial balance, or entry into sterile areas of the body can contribute to the overgrowth or invasion of normal flora, leading to infections and diseases.
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4.2 Failure to regulate apoptosis is a hallmark of cancer. Use
illustrations to describe the series of events that leads to
apoptosis. (10)
Apoptosis is a well-regulated process that is critical for development, homeostasis, and the clearance of unwanted or damaged cells from the body.
When there is a failure to regulate apoptosis, this is referred to as a hallmark of cancer. This can result in uncontrolled cell proliferation and the formation of tumors. Below is an illustration of the series of events that leads to apoptosis Initial Signal: There are several signals that can trigger apoptosis, including DNA damage, stress, and activation of specific cell surface receptors.
Once a cell is triggered to undergo apoptosis, it will begin to activate a series of proteases called caspases. These caspases will cleave specific substrates in the cell that are essential for its survival. This will result in the activation of downstream pathways, which will lead to the fragmentation of DNA, the breakdown of the cytoskeleton, and the exposure of phosphatidylserine on the cell surface.
Phagocytosis: Following the execution of apoptosis, the cell will undergo a series of changes that will signal to nearby immune cells to clear away the remnants of the dead cell.
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which of thee following systems is there only one to have direct
interactions with the other four
a) digestive
b) urinary
c) cardiovascular
d) respiratory
e) reproductive
Among the given options A. the digestive system is the only system that has direct interactions with the other four systems, i.e., urinary, cardiovascular, respiratory, and reproductive.
What is the digestive system?
The digestive system is an intricate network of organs and glands that are responsible for breaking down food into nutrients for absorption and eliminating waste from the body. It includes the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, pancreas, and gallbladder.How is the digestive system related to the other four systems?The urinary system and the digestive system are interconnected because both are responsible for eliminating waste from the body.
The digestive system eliminates solid waste while the urinary system eliminates liquid waste from the body. The cardiovascular system and the digestive system are interconnected because the digestive system provides nutrients to the cardiovascular system. The cardiovascular system circulates the nutrients to the rest of the body, enabling them to function effectively. The respiratory system and the digestive system are interconnected because the respiratory system provides oxygen to the digestive system, which is required for the proper digestion of food.
The reproductive system and the digestive system are interconnected because the digestive system provides nutrients required for the growth and development of the reproductive system. Overall, the digestive system has direct interactions with all of the other systems, making it the only one to do so. Therefore the correct option is A
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2. (20pts) The health officials on campus are close to solving the outbreak source and have narrowed down the two suspects: Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum. As a consultant you quickly identify the pathogen that is causing the problems as ? Explain your choice by explaining WHY the symptoms in the students match your answer AND why the other choice is incorrect. (Hint: you may want to draw pictures (& label) of the virulence factors and its mode of action.) An epidemic has spread through the undergraduate student body that is currently living on campus. Many of the cases of students (sick) do NOT seem to be living off campus and eat regularly at the cafeteria. Symptoms are muscle weakness, loss of facial expression and trouble eating and drinking. It seems as if the cafeteria is the source (foed-horn) of the illness, but the campus administrators are not sure what to do next! However, since you have just about completed you understand the immune system and epidemiology quite well. (Questions 1-5)
The pathogen causing the outbreak is Clostridium botulinum. The symptoms of muscle weakness, loss of facial expression, and trouble eating and drinking align with botulism,
which is caused by the neurotoxin produced by C. botulinum. This toxin inhibits acetylcholine release, leading to muscle paralysis. The other choice, Clostridium tetani, causes tetanus, which presents with different symptoms such as muscle stiffness and spasms due to the action of tetanospasmin toxin, making it an incorrect choice for the current scenario.
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Chef Stone's heart and respiratory rate indicates his body is experiencing a "fight or flight" autonomic reaction called a ✓ reaction. Both organ systems are receiving electrical impulses from a certain part of the brain stem called the ✓. The respiratory centre in the ✓nerves to the brain stem sends impulses along the muscles between the ribs and along the nerve to the diaphragm. In a fight or flight reaction, these signals are sent more frequently and still follow Boyle's Law which is, during inhalation volume ✓ and pressure ry rate indicates his body is experiencing a on called a ✓ reaction. gelectrical the ong the eaction, the s Law whic 3 Parasympathetic Medulla Oblongata Sympathetic Hypothalamus Decreases Intercostal Phrenic Increases Vagus Accelerator rtain part of centre in the s to the rve to the more ion volume
Chef Stone's heart & respiratory rate indicates his body is experiencing a "fight or flight" autonomic reaction called sympathetic reaction. Both organ system are receive electrical impulse brain stem called medulla oblongata.
Respiratory rate refers to the number of breaths a person takes per minute. It is an essential physiological parameter that indicates the efficiency of the respiratory system. The normal respiratory rate for adults at rest is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute. An increased respiratory rate may be indicative of various conditions such as anxiety, fever, respiratory infections, or metabolic disorders. Conversely, a decreased respiratory rate can be a sign of respiratory depression, certain medications, or certain medical conditions affecting the respiratory system or central nervous system. Monitoring respiratory rate is important in assessing overall health and detecting respiratory abnormalities.
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16.The following technique allowed us to decipher that the lines of expression of the "pair-rule" genes are controlled by individual "enhancers":
Select one:
a.
immunofluorescence
b.
gene loss-of-function study
c.
gene gain-of-function study
d.
in situ hybridization
and.
use of reporter genes
17.Signals secreted by certain cells, which act on tissues relatively close to the source of the signal, are of the type:
Select one:
a.
paracrine
b.
endocrine
c.
juxtacrine
d.
None of the above
and.
all of the above
18.Implanting a third optic vesicle in a developing organism will induce additional lens tissue no matter where the implant is made in the organism.
Select one:
a.
TRUE
b.
false
The following technique allowed us to decipher that the lines of expression of the "pair-rule" genes are controlled by individual "enhancers":
Select one:
d. use of reporter genes
The use of reporter genes, such as the lacZ gene encoding β-galactosidase, allows researchers to visualize and study the expression patterns of genes. By linking specific enhancers to the reporter gene, scientists can determine which enhancers control the expression of the "pair-rule" genes in different regions of the embryo.
Signals secreted by certain cells, which act on tissues relatively close to the source of the signal, are of the type:
Select one:
a. paracrine
Paracrine signaling refers to the release of signaling molecules by one cell to act on nearby cells, affecting their behavior or gene expression. These signals act on tissues in close proximity to the source of the signal.
Implanting a third optic vesicle in a developing organism will induce additional lens tissue no matter where the implant is made in the organism.
Select one:
b. false
The induction of additional lens tissue depends on the specific location and context of the implant. The development of lens tissue is regulated by various signaling factors and interactions with surrounding tissues. Implanting a third optic vesicle in different locations may or may not lead to the induction of additional lens tissue, depending on the signaling environment and developmental cues at that particular site.
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please provide information on how Staphylococcus
aureus was identified as an unknown.
thank you.
Staphylococcus aureus was identified as an unknown by performing various laboratory tests. This process is called bacterial identification.
There are numerous methods for bacterial identification, but all of them aim to distinguish between different species of bacteria. These methods may be based on phenotypic, genotypic, or proteomic characteristics. In the case of Staphylococcus aureus, the tests were focused on its phenotypic characteristics.
Phenotypic characterization includes the use of microscopy, culture characteristics, and biochemical tests to identify the bacterial species. Gram staining is the first step in identifying an unknown bacterial species, which is used to categorize bacteria into Gram-positive or Gram-negative. Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive cocci that appear in clusters. It is differentiated from other cocci by performing additional biochemical tests such as catalase, coagulase, mannitol fermentation, and DNA se tests.
Catalase test is done to differentiate between staphylococci and streptococci, which are both Gram-positive cocci but have different catalase activity.
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If a DNA sample was found to have 40% adenine, how much thymine
would you expect to find in the
sample?
-40
-20
-10
If a DNA sample was found to have 40% adenine, it would have 10% thymine. Therefore, the correct answer is option C) 10.
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule that carries genetic information.
The DNA molecule comprises four nucleotide subunits: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T).
The adenine-thymine and guanine-cytosine pairs are complementary to one another.
This means that if we know the quantity of adenine, we can quickly determine the quantity of thymine in a DNA molecule.
A DNA sample was found to have 40% adenine.
As a result, the amount of thymine present in the DNA sample should be equal to 10%
(Rule: adenine + thymine = 100).
Thus, in the given sample of DNA, 40% adenine implies 10% thymine.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C) 10.
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BIOCHEM
Which of these peptide hormones signals satiety?
A.
adiponectin
B.
ghrelin
C.
.PYY3-36
D.
NPY
Peptide hormones are the substances that act as signaling molecules and are secreted by endocrine cells. They act on the target organs and tissues to bring out a specific response. They are involved in the regulation of various processes such as growth, metabolism, stress response, and satiety.
Satiety is the feeling of fullness that follows a meal. It is regulated by the complex interactions between various hormones and neurotransmitters. One of the peptide hormones that signals satiety is PYY3-36.PYY3-36 (Peptide YY 3-36) is a peptide hormone secreted by the intestinal L-cells in response to food intake.
It acts on the hypothalamus to decrease appetite and increase satiety. It is known to inhibit the secretion of ghrelin, a hormone that stimulates appetite. PYY3-36 is also involved in the regulation of glucose metabolism, insulin secretion, and gut motility. Other peptide hormones involved in the regulation of appetite and satiety are adiponectin, ghrelin, and NPY (Neuropeptide Y).
Adiponectin is produced by adipose tissue and has anti-inflammatory and insulin-sensitizing effects. Ghrelin is produced by the stomach and stimulates appetite. NPY is produced by the hypothalamus and stimulates appetite.
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For
an animal behavior course. questions are about general animal
behavior
1. Please answer the following a. Define cost-benefit analysis in terms of animal behavior b. Give an example of a proximate explanation for behavior c. Discuss the difference between an observational
a. Cost-benefit analysis regarding animal behavior refers to the process by which animals weigh the benefits of engaging in a particular behavior against the costs incurred. It is a way by which animals make decisions that affect their survival and reproduction. In general, animals engage in behaviors that yield a net benefit and avoid those that are likely to lead to a net loss.
b. A proximate explanation for behavior is one that focuses on the mechanisms underlying behavior. Proximate causes seek to answer how behavior occurs. They can be broken down into two categories: physiological and developmental mechanisms. A physiological mechanism explains behavior in terms of the underlying biological processes that drive it.
For example, imprinting is a developmental mechanism by which an animal forms an attachment to its parent or other objects it sees soon after hatching or birth.
c. The difference between an observational study and an experiment is that an observational study involves merely observing a phenomenon. In contrast, an experiment involves manipulating one or more variables to determine their effect on the phenomenon being studied.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney? A. Excretion of metabolic wastes. B. Secretion of hormones. C. Maintenance of acid-base balance. D. Excretion of solid and liquid wastes. E. Maintenance of water-salt balance. 2. Which of the following substances causes nitrogen to be released as ammonia? A. alpha ketoglutarate D. uric acid B. amino acids E. glucose C. urea 3. Which one of the following is a part of the circulatory system? A. distal tubules D. proximal tubules E. glomerulus B. Bowman's capsule C. collecting duct 4. Glomerular filtrate is identical to plasma, except in respect to the concentration of: A. water. D. glucose B. proteins. E. urea. C. sodium.
Excretion of solid and liquid wastes is not a function of the kidney. The kidney is responsible for filtering the blood, removing metabolic wastes and excess water, salts, and minerals to form urine, which is excreted from the body.
Additionally, the kidney also helps maintain acid-base balance and secretes hormones.2. B. Amino acids are the substances that cause nitrogen to be released as ammonia.
Amino acids contain nitrogen, and when they are broken down in the liver, the nitrogen is removed and converted into ammonia, which is then excreted by the body.
Urea, another nitrogenous waste product, is formed in the liver from ammonia.3. The heart is a part of the circulatory system, responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.
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et 3-Complex traits and... 1/1 | - BIOL 205 Problem set 3 Complex traits and Southern Blot lab Submit one copy of the answers to these questions as a Word file on the due date given in Moodle. Each part of each question is worth 10 points. 1. Give two possible explanations for the different restriction patterns you observe in this experiment. What types of mutations (point mutations, deletions, inversions, etc.) could result in an RFLP? 2. In this experiment, you only looked at one piece of DNA. Why is there more than one locus probe used in an actual paternity DNA test? 3. You did not get to see the gel after transfer, but what changes would you expect to see in the gel after transfer as compared to before transfer? 4. Why did we use a Southern blot and not just stain the gel with ethidium bromide? 5. In this lab, we used Southern blot for identification purposes. Describe a disease you could diagnose using a Southern blot. How would you do the diagnosis, and what would you look for in the blot? 6. Assume that PTC-tasting is a complex trait. A. How do you think the environment would affect PTC-tasting? B. What kinds of other genes might influence PTC-tasting? C. If a strong taster and a weak taster have a child together, what would you expect for the child's PTC-tasting phenotype? D. Describe one way you could look for other genes involved in PTC-tasting. 7. Diabetes is a complex trait. If you wanted to do a genetic test to determine a child's predisposition to diabetes, how would it differ from what we did in this lab? 100% + B
1.Mutation: Point mutations, deletions, insertions, duplications, inversions, translocations, or other DNA sequence alterations might all result in an RFLP.
2.Multiple probes are employed to increase the reliability of the results, as well as to provide more data to compare against other potential parents.
3.The DNA must be detected using a probe and appropriate hybridization and detection techniques.
4.Southern blotting, in combination with DNA probes, can identify a specific gene or sequence, even if it is present in a tiny amount.
5.Huntington's disease, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and hemophilia are among the diseases that can be diagnosed using Southern blotting.
6.The child's PTC-tasting phenotype will be determined by the specific genes that they inherit from their parents.
1. Two possible explanations for the different restriction patterns in the experiment:There are two possible explanations for the different restriction patterns in the experiment, which are as follows:Mutation: Point mutations, deletions, insertions, duplications, inversions, translocations, or other DNA sequence alterations might all result in an RFLP. These alterations might impact the binding of a restriction enzyme to its site in the DNA, resulting in a different size fragment being produced.
2. More than one locus probe used in an actual paternity DNA test:In an actual paternity DNA test, more than one locus probe is used because a single locus is insufficient to establish parentage. Multiple probes are employed to increase the reliability of the results, as well as to provide more data to compare against other potential parents.
3. Changes in the gel after transfer:After transfer, the gel will undergo some changes, which are as follows:• The DNA should be partially dried and firmly adhered to the membrane after transfer.• Because the DNA is now attached to the membrane, ethidium bromide staining cannot be used to visualize the DNA. The DNA must be detected using a probe and appropriate hybridization and detection techniques.
4. Why use a Southern blot instead of staining the gel with ethidium bromide:Southern blotting is used to detect a specific sequence in a complex DNA sample, whereas ethidium bromide staining is used to identify all the DNA present in a gel. Southern blotting, in combination with DNA probes, can identify a specific gene or sequence, even if it is present in a tiny amount.
5. Disease that could be diagnosed using Southern blot:In Southern blotting, one could diagnose genetic diseases. Huntington's disease, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and hemophilia are among the diseases that can be diagnosed using Southern blotting.
6. Assume that PTC-tasting is a complex trait:A. How the environment affects PTC-tasting: The PTC-tasting trait is believed to be affected by both genetic and environmental factors. Temperature, hydration status, and bacterial composition in the mouth might all impact the perception of bitterness. B. Other genes that may influence PTC-tasting: The TAS2R38 gene, which codes for a bitter taste receptor, has been related to PTC-tasting. A bitter taste receptor's variants and the olfactory receptor genes associated with them are thought to influence PTC-tasting. C. Child's PTC-tasting phenotype: The child's PTC-tasting phenotype will be determined by the specific genes that they inherit from their parents.
D. Searching for other genes involved in PTC-tasting: A genome-wide association study (GWAS) could be performed to find other genes linked to PTC-tasting.
7. Difference between a genetic test for diabetes predisposition and Southern blot: Southern blotting is a laboratory technique that uses a probe to identify specific sequences of DNA in a sample, while genetic testing for diabetes predisposition might involve sequencing or genotyping specific genes that have been linked to the disease.
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