Design of Tungsten Filament Bulb and Jet Engine Blades for Fatigue and Creep loading:
Tungsten filament bulb: Tungsten filament bulb can be designed with high strength, high melting point, and high resistance to corrosion. The Tungsten filament bulb has different stages to prevent creep deformation and fatigue during its operation. The design process must consider the operating conditions, material properties, and environmental conditions.
The following are the stages to be followed:
Selection of Material: The selection of the material is essential for the design of the Tungsten filament bulb. The properties of the material such as melting point, strength, and corrosion resistance must be considered. Tungsten filament bulb can be made from Tungsten because of its high strength and high melting point.
Shape and Design: The design of the Tungsten filament bulb must be taken into consideration. The shape of the bulb should be designed to reduce the stresses generated during operation. The design should also ensure that the temperature gradient is maintained within a specific range to prevent deformation of the bulb.
Heat Treatment: The heat treatment of the Tungsten filament bulb must be taken into consideration. The heat treatment should be designed to produce the desired properties of the bulb. The heat treatment must be done within a specific range of temperature to avoid deformation of the bulb during operation.
Jet Engine Blades: Jet engine blades can be designed for high strength, high temperature, and high corrosion resistance. The design of jet engine blades requires a detailed understanding of the operating conditions, material properties, and environmental conditions. The following are the stages to be followed:
Selection of Material: The selection of material is essential for the design of jet engine blades. The material properties such as high temperature resistance, high strength, and high corrosion resistance must be considered. Jet engine blades can be made of nickel-based alloys.
Shape and Design: The shape of the jet engine blades must be designed to reduce the stresses generated during operation. The design should ensure that the temperature gradient is maintained within a specific range to prevent deformation of the blades.
Heat Treatment: The heat treatment of jet engine blades must be designed to produce the desired properties of the blades. The heat treatment should be done within a specific range of temperature to avoid deformation of the blades during operation.
Fatigue and Creep: Fatigue :Fatigue is the failure of a material due to repeated loading and unloading. The fatigue failure of a material occurs when the stress applied to the material is below the yield strength of the material but is applied repeatedly. Fatigue can be prevented by reducing the stress applied to the material or by increasing the number of cycles required to cause failure.
Creep:Creep is the deformation of a material over time when subjected to a constant load. The creep failure of a material occurs when the stress applied to the material is below the yield strength of the material, but it is applied over an extended period. Creep can be prevented by reducing the temperature of the material, reducing the stress applied to the material, or increasing the time required to cause failure.
Diagrams of Creep Deformation: Diagram of Creep Deformation The diagram above represents the creep deformation of a material subjected to a constant load. The deformation of the material is gradual and continuous over time. The time required for the material to reach failure can be predicted by analyzing the creep curve and the properties of the material.
To know more about Engine Blades visit:
https://brainly.com/question/26490400
#SPJ11
Calculate the peak solar hours in the area with
illumination of 5300 (PSH). Watts / day
The peak solar hours in the area with illumination of 5300 watts/day would be 5.3 PSH.
Peak solar hours refer to the amount of solar energy that an area receives per day. It is calculated based on the intensity of sunlight and the length of time that the sun is shining.
In this case, the peak solar hours in an area with an illumination of 5300 watts/day can be calculated as follows:
1. Convert watts to kilowatts by dividing by 1000: 5300/1000 = 5.3 kW2. Divide the total energy generated by the solar panels in a day (5.3 kWh) by the average power generated by the solar panels during the peak solar hours:
5.3 kWh ÷ PSH = Peak Solar Hours (PSH)For example,
if the average power generated by the solar panels during peak solar hours is 1 kW, then the PSH would be:5.3 kWh ÷ 1 kW = 5.3 PSH
To know more about illumination visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29156148
#SPJ11
(a) American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) Code is use to transfer information between computers, between computers and printers, including for internal storage. Write the word of VictorY! using ASCII code in Decimal form and Hexadecimal form. Refer to Appendix 1 for the ASCII code table. Build a suitable table for each alphabets.
Therefore, the word “Victor Y” can be represented in decimal and hexadecimal forms using the ASCII code table, and a suitable table can be built for each alphabet.
The American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) Code is used to transfer information between computers, printers, and for internal storage. The ASCII code table is used for this purpose.
The word “Victor Y” can be written in decimal and hexadecimal forms using the ASCII code table. In decimal form, the word “Victor Y” can be written as:
86, 105, 99, 116, 111, 114, 89, 33. In hexadecimal form, it can be written as:
56, 69, 63, 74, 6F, 72, 59, 21.
To know more about Information visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30350623
#SPJ11
During a test on a boiler the following data were recorded:
Pressure = 1.7 MPa
Steam temperature at exit = 240ºC
Steam flow rate = 5.4 tonnes/hour
Fuel consumption = 400 kg/hour
Lower calorific value of fuel = 40 MJ/kg
Temperature of feedwater = 38ºC
Specific heat capacity of superheated steam = 2100 J/kg.K
Specific heat capacity of liquid water = 4200 J/kg.K.
Calculate:
Efficiency of the boiler.
Equivalent evaporation (EE) of the boiler
Given data,Presure P = 1.7 MPaSteam temperature at exit = t2 = 240°CSteam flow rate = m2 = 5.4 tonnes/hourFuel consumption = 400 kg/hourLower calorific value of fuel = LCV = 40 MJ/kgTemperature of feedwater = t1 = 38°CSp. heat capacity of superheated steam = Cp2 = 2100 J/kg.KSp.
Heat capacity of liquid water = Cp1 = 4200 J/kg.K.Formula : Heat supplied = Heat inputFuel consumption, m1 = 400 kg/hourCalorific value of fuel = 40 MJ/kgHeat input, Q1 = m1 × LCV= 400 × 40 × 10³ J/hour = 16 × 10⁶ J/hourFeed water rate, mfw = m2 - m1= 5400 - 4000 = 1400 kg/hourHeat supplied, Q2 = m2 × Cp2 × (t2 - t1)= 5400 × 2100 × (240 - 38) KJ/hour= 10,08 × 10⁶ KJ/hourEfficiency of the boiler, η= (Q2/Q1) × 100= (10.08 × 10⁶)/(16 × 10⁶) × 100= 63 %Equivalent evaporation (EE) of the boilerEE is the amount of water evaporated into steam per hour at the full-load operation at 100 % efficiency.(m2 - m1) × Hvfg= 1400 × 2260= 3.164 × 10⁶ Kg/hour
Therefore, the Efficiency of the boiler is 63 % and Equivalent evaporation (EE) of the boiler is 3.164 × 10⁶ Kg/hour.
To know more about evaporated visit :
https://brainly.com/question/28319650
#SPJ11
Calculate the volumetric efficiency of the compressor from Q2 if the unswept volume is 6% of the swept volume. Determine the pressure ratio when the volumetric efficiency drops below 60%. Take T1=T, and P1=Pa. [71%, 14.1]
The answer is 14.1. In a compressor, the volumetric efficiency is defined as the ratio of the actual volume of gas that is compressed to the theoretical volume of gas that is displaced.
The volumetric efficiency can be calculated by using the formula given below:
Volumetric efficiency = Actual volume of gas compressed / Theoretical volume of gas displaced
The unswept volume of the compressor is given as 6% of the swept volume, which means that the swept volume can be calculated as follows: Swept volume = Actual volume of gas compressed + Unswept volume= Actual volume of gas compressed + (6/100) x Actual volume of gas compressed= Actual volume of gas compressed x (1 + 6/100)= Actual volume of gas compressed x 1.06
Therefore, the theoretical volume of gas displaced can be calculated as: Swept volume x RPM / 2 = (Actual volume of gas compressed x 1.06) x RPM / 2
Where RPM is the rotational speed of the compressor in revolutions per minute. Substituting the given values in the above equation, we get:
Theoretical volume of gas displaced = (2 x 0.8 x 22/7 x 0.052 x 700) / 2= 1.499 m3/min
The actual volume of gas compressed is given as Q2 = 0.71 m3/min. Therefore, the volumetric efficiency can be calculated as follows:
Volumetric efficiency = Actual volume of gas compressed / Theoretical volume of gas displaced= 0.71 / 1.499= 0.474 or 47.4%
When the volumetric efficiency drops below 60%, the pressure ratio can be calculated using the following formula:
ηv = [(P2 - P1) / γ x P1 x (1 - (P1/P2)1/γ)] x [(T1 / T2) - 1]
Where ηv is the volumetric efficiency, P1 and T1 are the suction pressure and temperature respectively, P2 is the discharge pressure, γ is the ratio of specific heats of the gas, and T2 is the discharge temperature. Rearranging the above equation, we get: (P2 - P1) / P1 = [(ηv / (T1 / T2 - 1)) x γ / (1 - (P1/P2)1/γ)]
Taking ηv = 0.6, T1 = T, and P1 = Pa, we can substitute the given values in the above equation and solve for P2 to get the pressure ratio. The answer is 14.1.
To know more about volumetric efficiency refer to:
https://brainly.com/question/29250379
#SPJ11
A connecting rod of length /= 11.67in has a mass m3 = 0.0234blob. Its mass moment of inertia is 0.614 blob-in². Its CG is located 0.35/ from the crank pin, point A. A crank of length r= 4.132in has a mass m₂ = 0.0564blob. Its mass moment of inertia about its pivot is 0.78 blob-in². Its CG is at 0.25r from the main pin, O₂. The piston mass= 1.012 blob. The thickness of the cylinder wall is 0.33in, and the Bore (B) is 4in. The gas pressure is 500psi. The linkage is running at a constant speed 1732rpm and crank position is 37.5°. If the crank has been exact static balanced with a mass equal to me and balance radius of r, what is the inertia force on the Y-direction?
The connecting rod's mass moment of inertia is 0.614 blob-in², and its mass m3 is 0.0234blob.
Its CG is located 0.35r from the crank pin, point A.
The crank's length is r = 4.132in, and its mass is m₂ = 0.0564blob, and its CG is at 0.25r from the main pin, O₂.
The thickness of the cylinder wall is 0.33in, and the Bore (B) is 4in.
The piston mass is 1.012 blob.
The gas pressure is 500psi.
The linkage is running at a constant speed of 1732 rpm, and the crank position is 37.5°.
If the crank is precisely static balanced with a mass equal to me and a balanced radius of r, the inertia force on the Y-direction will be given as;
I = Moment of inertia of the system × Angular acceleration of the system
I = [m3L3²/3 + m2r2²/2 + m1r1²/2 + Ic] × α
where,
Ic = Mass moment of inertia of the crank about its pivot
= 0.78 blob-in²m1
= Mass of the piston
= 1.012 blob
L = Length of the connecting rod
= 11.67 inr
1 = Radius of the crank pin
= r
= 4.132 inm
2 = Mass of the crank
= 0.0564 blob
α = Angular acceleration of the system
= (2πn/60)²(θ2 - θ1)
where, n = Engine speed
= 1732 rpm
θ2 = Final position of the crank
= 37.5° in radians
θ1 = Initial position of the crank
= 0° in radians
Substitute all the given values into the above equation,
I = [(0.0234 x 11.67²)/3 + (0.0564 x 4.132²)/2 + (1.012 x 4.132²)/2 + 0.614 + 0.0564 x r²] x (2π x 1732/60)²(37.5/180π - 0)
I = [0.693 + 1.089 + 8.464 + 0.614 + 0.0564r²] x 41.42 x 10⁶
I = 3.714 + 5.451r² × 10⁶ lb-in²-sec²
Now, inertia force along the y-axis is;
Fy = Iω²/r
Where,
ω = Angular velocity of the system
= (2πn/60)
where,
n = Engine speed
= 1732 rpm
Substitute all the values into the above equation;
Fy = [3.714 + 5.451r² × 10⁶] x (2π x 1732/60)²/r
Fy = (7.609 x 10⁹ + 1.119r²) lb
To know more about velocity visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30559316
#SPJ11
Air flows through a thin circular pipe with a mass flow rate of 0.1 kg/s and an average inlet and outlet temperature of 10°C and 40°C, respectively. The pipe has an internal diameter of 40 cm and measures 6000 m in length. The pipe has a constant surface temperature of 150°C. What is the heat transfer rate through the pipe due to fully developed flow? Use the following properties for air: p = 1.2 kg/m', Cp = 1025 J/(kg:K), u = 2.6* 10-5 kg/(m·s), Pr = 0.7, k = 0.04 W/(mK)
The heat transfer rate through the pipe due to fully developed flow is: 3075 watts.
How to find the heat transfer rate?To calculate the heat transfer rate through the pipe due to fully developed flow, we can use the equation for heat transfer rate:
Q = m_dot * Cp * (T_outlet - T_inlet)
Where:
Q is the heat transfer rate
m_dot is the mass flow rate
Cp is the specific heat capacity of air
T_outlet is the outlet temperature
T_inlet is the inlet temperature
Given:
m_dot = 0.1 kg/s
Cp = 1025 J/(kg·K)
T_inlet = 10°C = 10 + 273.15 K = 283.15 K
T_outlet = 40°C = 40 + 273.15 K = 313.15 K
Using these values, we can calculate the heat transfer rate:
Q = 0.1 kg/s * 1025 J/(kg·K) * (313.15 K - 283.15 K)
Q = 0.1 kg/s * 1025 J/(kg·K) * 30 K
Q = 3075 J/s = 3075 W
Read more about heat transfer rate at: https://brainly.com/question/14148915
#SPJ4
Question 3 20 Points (20) After inspection, it is found that there is an internal crack inside of an alloy with a full width of 0.4 mm and a curvature radius of 5x10-3 mm, and there is also a surface crack on this alloy with a full width of 0.1 mm and a curvature radius of 1x10-3 mm. Under an applied tensile stress of 50 MPa, • (a) What is the maximum stress around the internal crack and the surface crack? (8 points) • (b) For the surface crack, if the critical stress for its propagation is 900 MPa, will this surface crack propagate? (6 points) • (c) Through a different processing technique, the width of both the internal and surface cracks is decreased. With decreased crack width, how will the fracture toughness and critical stress for crack growth change? (6 points) Use the editor to format your answer
The maximum stress around the internal crack can be determined using the formula for stress concentration factor.
The stress concentration factor for an internal crack can be approximated as Kt = 3(1 + a/w)^(1/2), where a is the crack depth and w is the full width of the crack. Substituting the values, we get Kt = 3(1 + 0.4/5)^(1/2) ≈ 3.33. Therefore, the maximum stress around the internal crack is 3.33 times the applied stress, which is 50 MPa, resulting in approximately 166.5 MPa. Similarly, for the surface crack, the stress concentration factor can be approximated as Kt = 2(1 + a/w)^(1/2). Substituting the values, we get Kt = 2(1 + 0.1/1)^(1/2) = 2.1. Therefore, the maximum stress around the surface crack is 2.1 times the applied stress, which is 50 MPa, resulting in approximately 105 MPa. For the surface crack to propagate, the applied stress must exceed the critical stress for crack propagation. In this case, the critical stress for the surface crack is given as 900 MPa. Since the applied stress is only 50 MPa, which is lower than the critical stress, the surface crack will not propagate under the given conditions. When the width of both the internal and surface cracks is decreased through a different processing technique, the fracture toughness increases. A smaller crack width reduces the stress concentration and allows the material to distribute the applied stress more evenly. As a result, the material becomes more resistant to crack propagation, and the critical stress for crack growth increases. Therefore, by decreasing the crack width, the fracture toughness improves, making the material more resistant to cracking.
Learn more about crack propagation here:
https://brainly.com/question/31393555
#SPJ11
Write a function M-file that implements (8) in the interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 55. Note that the initial condition must now be in the form [yo, v0, w0] and the matrix Y, output of ode45, has now three columns (from which y, v and w must be extracted). On the same figure, plot the three time series and, on a separate window, plot the phase plot using figure (2); plot3 (y,v,w); hold on; view ([-40,60]) xlabel('y'); ylabel('vay); zlabel('way''); Do not forget to modify the function defining the ODE. The output is shown in Figure 9. The limits in the vertical axis of the plot on the left were delib- erately set to the same ones as in Figure 8 for comparison purposes, using the MATLAB command ylim ([-2.1,2.1]). You can play around with the 3D phase plot, rotating it by clicking on the circular arrow button in the figure toolbar, but submit the plot with the view value view ([-40, 60]) (that is, azimuth = -40°, elevation = 60°).
The task at hand is to write a function M-file that implements (8) in the interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 55. The initial condition must now be in the form [yo, v0, w0]. The matrix Y, which is the output of ode45, now has three columns. Y(:,1) represents y, Y(:,2) represents v and Y(:,3) represents w. We need to extract these columns.
We also need to plot the three time series on the same figure and, on a separate window, plot the phase plot using figure (2); plot3 (y,v,w); hold on; view ([-40,60]) xlabel('y'); ylabel('vay); zlabel('way'').Here is a function M-file that does what we need:
function [tex]yp = fun(t,y)yp = zeros(3,1);yp(1) = y(2);yp(2) = y(3);yp(3) = -sin(y(1))-0.1*y(3)-0.1*y(2);[/tex]
endWe can now use ode45 to solve the ODE.
The limits in the vertical axis of the plot on the left were deliberately set to the same ones as in Figure 8 for comparison purposes, using the MATLAB command ylim ([-2.1,2.1]). You can play around with the 3D phase plot, rotating it by clicking on the circular arrow button in the figure toolbar, but submit the plot with the view value view ([-40, 60]) (that is, azimuth = -40°, elevation = 60°).
To know more about matrix visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29000721
#SPJ11
A rectangular slit is 200 mm wide and has a height of 1000 mm. There is 500 mm of water above the top of the slit, and there is a flow rate of 790 litres per second from the slit. Calculate the discharge coefficient of the slit.
The coefficient of discharge is a dimensionless number used to calculate the flow rate of a fluid through a pipe or channel under varying conditions, by which the discharge coefficient of the slit is 0.65
How to find?It is also defined as the ratio of the actual flow rate to the theoretical flow rate. A rectangular slit is 200 mm wide and has a height of 1000 mm. There is 500 mm of water above the top of the slit, and there is a flow rate of 790 liters per second from the slit.
We need to determine the discharge coefficient of the slit.
Given:
Width of slit = 200 mm
Height of slit = 1000 mm
Depth of water above the slit = 500 mm
Flow rate = 790 liters/sec
Formula Used:
Coefficient of Discharge = Q / A√2gH
Where, Q = Flow rate
A = Cross-sectional area of the opening
g = Acceleration due to gravity
H = Depth of liquid above the opening√2 = Constant
Substitute the given values, then,
Discharge (Q) = 790 liters/sec
= 0.79 m³/s
Width (b) = 200 mm
= 0.2 m
Height (h) = 1000 mm
= 1 m
Depth of liquid (H) = 500 mm
= 0.5 mA
= bh
= 0.2 × 1
= 0.2 m²g
= 9.81 m/s².
Substituting these values in the above equation, we have;
C = Q/A√2g
HC = (0.79 / 0.2 √2 × 9.81 × 0.5)
C = 0.65:
The discharge coefficient of the slit is 0.65.
To know more on coefficient visit:
https://brainly.com/question/1594145
#SPJ11
Two -in-thick steel plates with a modulus of elasticity of 30(106) psi are clamped by washer-faced -in-diameter UNC SAE grade 5 bolts with a 0.095-in-thick washer under the nut. Find the member spring rate km using the method of conical frusta, and compare the result with the finite element analysis (FEA) curve-fit method of Wileman et al.
The spring rate found using the method of conical frusta is slightly higher than that obtained using the Finite element analysis (FEA) curve-fit method of Wileman et al.
The spring rate using this method is found to be 1.1 x 10⁶ psi.
Given Information:
Thickness of steel plates, t = 2 in
Diameter of UNC SAE grade 5 bolts, d = 0.75 in
Thickness of washer, e = 0.095 in
Modulus of Elasticity, E = 30 × 10⁶ psi
Formula:
Member spring rate km = 2.1 x 10⁶ (d/t)²
Where, Member spring rate km
Method of conical frusta:
=2.1 x 10⁶ (d/t)²
Comparison method
Finite element analysis (FEA) curve-fit method of Wileman et al.
Calculation:
The member spring rate is given by
km = 2.1 x 10⁶ (d/t)²
For given steel plates,t = 2 in
d = 0.75 in
Therefore,
km = 2.1 x 10⁶ (d/t)²
(0.75/2)²= 1.11375 x 10⁶ psi
As per the given formula, the spring rate using the method of conical frusta is 1.11375 x 10⁶ psi.
The comparison method is the Finite element analysis (FEA) curve-fit method of Wileman et al.
The spring rate using this method is found to be 1.1 x 10⁶ psi.
To know more about Modulus of Elasticity, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30756002
#SPJ11
Q5. The stream function for a certain flow field is Y = 2y2 – 2x2 + 5 = - a) Determine the corresponding velocity potential
The velocity potential is given by ϕ = 2y² - 5.
The stream function for a flow field is given by Y = 2y² - 2x² + 5 = -
Now let's differentiate the equation in terms of x to obtain the velocity potential given by the following relation:
∂Ψ/∂x = - ∂ϕ/∂y
where Ψ = stream function
ϕ = velocity potential
∂Ψ/∂x = -4x and ∂ϕ/∂y = 4y
Hence we can integrate ∂ϕ/∂y with respect to y to get the velocity potential.
∂ϕ/∂y = 4yϕ = 2y² + c where c is a constant to be determined since the velocity potential is only unique up to a constant. c can be obtained from the stream function Y = 2y² - 2x² + 5 = -ϕ = 2y² - 5 and the velocity potential
Therefore the velocity potential is given by ϕ = 2y² - 5.
The velocity potential of the given stream function has been obtained.
To know more about velocity visit
brainly.com/question/30559316
#SPJ11
Design a three stepped distance protection for the protection of an EHV transmission line. Explain / label all the steps and constraints using circuit diagram(s) as well. Put together your proposed scheme considering the trip contacts configuration of the circuit breaker(s).
Distance protection is a type of protection scheme used in power system transmission line protection. It provides good selectivity and sensitivity in identifying the faulted section of the line.
The main concept of distance protection is to compare the voltage and current of the protected line and calculate the distance to the fault. This protection is widely used in Extra High Voltage (EHV) transmission lines. Design of three-stepped distance protection: Three-stepped distance protection for the EHV transmission line can be designed using the following steps:
Step 1: Zone 1 protection For the first step, we use the distance relay to provide Zone 1 protection. This relay is located at the beginning of the transmission line, and its reach is set to cover the full length of the line plus the length of the adjacent feeder. The relay uses the phase-to-phase voltage (Vab, Vbc, Vca) and the three-phase current (Ia, Ib, Ic) to measure the impedance of the line. If the calculated impedance falls below a set threshold, the relay trips the circuit breaker. The circuit diagram of Zone 1 protection is as follows:
Step 2: Zone 2 protection For the second step, we use the distance relay to provide Zone 2 protection. This relay is located at a distance from the substation, and its reach is set to cover the full length of the transmission line plus a margin. The relay uses the phase-to-phase voltage (Vab, Vbc, Vca) and the three-phase current (Ia, Ib, Ic) to measure the impedance of the line. If the calculated impedance falls below a set threshold, the relay trips the circuit breaker. The circuit diagram of Zone 2 protection is as follows:
Step 3: Backup protection For the third step, we use the overcurrent relay to provide backup protection. This relay is located at the substation and uses the current of the transmission line to measure the fault current. If the fault current exceeds a set threshold, the relay trips the circuit breaker. The circuit diagram of the backup protection is as follows:
Constraints: There are some constraints that we need to consider while designing three-stepped distance protection for the EHV transmission line. These are as follows:• The reach of each zone should be set appropriately to avoid false tripping and ensure proper selectivity.• The time delay of each zone should be coordinated to avoid overreach.• The CT ratio and PT ratio should be chosen such that the relay operates correctly.• The trip contact configuration of the circuit breaker should be considered while designing the protection scheme.
To know more about Distance protection visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31914334
#SPJ11
11kg of R-134a at 320kPa fills a rigid tank whose volume is 0.011m³. Find the quality, the temperature, the total internal energy and enthalpy of the system. If the container heats up and the pressure reaches to 600kPa, find the temperature, total energy and total enthalpy at the end of the process.
The quality, temperature, total internal energy, and enthalpy of the system are given by T2 is 50.82°C (final state) and U1 is 252.91 kJ/kg (initial state) and U2 is 442.88 kJ/kg (final state) and H1 277.6 kJ/kg (initial state) and H2 is 484.33 kJ/kg (final state).
Given data:
Mass of R-134a (m) = 11kg
The pressure of R-134 at an initial state
(P1) = 320 kPa Volume of the container (V) = 0.011 m³
The formula used: Internal energy per unit mass (u) = h - Pv
Enthalpy per unit mass (h) = u + Pv Specific volume (v)
= V/m Quality (x) = (h_fg - h)/(h_g - h_f)
1. To find the quality of R-134a at the initial state: From the steam table, At 320 kPa, h_g = 277.6 kJ/kg, h_f = 70.87 kJ/kgh_fg = h_g - h_f= 206.73 kJ/kg Enthalpy of the system at initial state (H1) can be calculated as H1 = h_g = 277.6 kJ/kg Internal energy of the system at initial state (U1) can be calculated as:
U1 = h_g - Pv1= 277.6 - 320*10³*0.011 / 11
= 252.91 kJ/kg
The quality of R-134a at the initial state (x1) can be calculated as:
x1 = (h_fg - h1)/(h_g - h_f)
= (206.73 - 277.6)/(277.6 - 70.87)
= 0.5
The volume of the container is rigid, so it will not change throughout the process.
2. To find the temperature, total internal energy, and total enthalpy at the final state:
Using the values from an initial state, enthalpy at the final state (h2) can be calculated as:
h2 = h1 + h_fg
= 277.6 + 206.73
= 484.33 kJ/kg So the temperature of R-134a at the final state is approximately 50.82°C. The total enthalpy of the system at the final state (H2) can be calculated as,
= H2
= 484.33 kJ/kg
Thus, the quality, temperature, total internal energy, and enthalpy of the system are given by:
x1 = 0.5 (initial state)T2 = 50.82°C (final state) U1 = 252.91 kJ/kg (initial state) U2 = 442.88 kJ/kg (final state) H1 = 277.6 kJ/kg (initial state)H2 = 484.33 kJ/kg (final state)
To know more about enthalpy please refer:
https://brainly.com/question/826577
#SPJ11
Consider a Y-connected AC generator with a number of turns per phase of 600 turns. Find the flux per pole needed to produce the RMS generated line voltage of 4500 Volts at a frequency f-60 Hz. Select one: O a. Flux per pole = 28.2 mWebers O b. Flux per pole = 16.2 mWebers O c. None O d. Flux per pole = 19.85 mWebers O e. Flux per pole = 22.9 mWebers
Given, number of turns per phase, N = 600, RMS generated line voltage, V = 4500 V and frequency, f = 60 Hz. The relationship between RMS generated line voltage, V, frequency, f, and flux per pole, φ is given by the formula,V = 4.44fNφSo, the expression for flux per pole, φ is given by,φ = V / 4.44fNPlugging the given values, we get,φ = 4500 / (4.44 × 60 × 600)φ = 19.85 mWebers Therefore,
the flux per pole needed to produce the RMS generated line voltage of 4500 Volts at a frequency f-60 Hz is 19.85 mWebers.Option (D) is correct.Note: In AC generators, the voltage generated is proportional to the flux per pole, number of turns per phase, and frequency. The above formula is known as the EMF equation of an alternator.
To know more about ac visit:
brainly.com/question/33277960
#SPJ11
9) Show that a positive logic NAND gate is a negative logic NOR gate and vice versa.
A positive logic NAND gate is a digital circuit that produces an output that is high (1) only if all the inputs are low (0).
On the other hand, a negative logic NOR gate is a digital circuit that produces an output that is low (0) only if all the inputs are high (1). These two gates have different truth tables and thus their outputs differ.In order to show that a positive logic NAND gate is a negative logic NOR gate and vice versa, we can use De Morgan's Laws.
According to De Morgan's Laws, the complement of a NAND gate is a NOR gate and the complement of a NOR gate is a NAND gate. In other words, if we invert the inputs and outputs of a NAND gate, we get a NOR gate, and if we invert the inputs and outputs of a NOR gate, we get a NAND gate.
Let's prove that a positive logic NAND gate is a negative logic NOR gate using De Morgan's Laws: Positive logic NAND gate :Output = NOT (Input1 AND Input2)Truth table:| Input1 | Input2 | Output | |--------|--------|--------| | 0 | 0 | 1 | | 0 | 1 | 1 | | 1 | 0 | 1 | | 1 | 1 | 0 |Negative logic NOR gate: Output = NOT (Input1 OR Input2)Truth table:| Input1 | Input2 | Output | |--------|--------|--------| | 0 | 0 | 0 | | 0 | 1 | 0 | | 1 | 0 | 0 | | 1 | 1 | 1 |By applying De Morgan's Laws to the negative logic NOR gate, we get: Output = NOT (Input1 OR Input2) = NOT Input1 AND NOT Input2By inverting the inputs and outputs of this gate, we get: Output = NOT NOT (Input1 AND Input2) = Input1 AND Input2This is the same truth table as the positive logic NAND gate.
Therefore, a positive logic NAND gate is a negative logic NOR gate. The vice versa is also true.
To know more about positive visit :
https://brainly.com/question/23709550
#SPJ11
Which collectors have the highest efficiencies under practical operating conditions?
- Single-glazing
- Double-glazing
- No-glazing
- What is main the idea of using PVT systems?
- What is the maximum temperature obtained in a solar furnace
Double-glazing collectors generally have the highest efficiencies under practical operating conditions.
The main idea of using PVT systems is to harness the combined energy of photovoltaic (PV) and thermal (T) technologies to maximize the overall efficiency and energy output.
The maximum temperature obtained in a solar furnace can reach around 3,000 to 5,000 degrees Celsius.
Double-glazing collectors are known for their superior performance and higher efficiencies compared to single-glazing and no-glazing collectors. This is primarily due to the additional layer of glazing that helps improve thermal insulation and reduce heat losses. The presence of two layers of glass in double-glazing collectors creates an insulating air gap between them, which acts as a barrier to heat transfer. This insulation minimizes thermal losses, allowing the collector to maintain higher temperatures and increase overall efficiency.
The air gap between the glazing layers serves as a buffer, reducing convective heat loss and providing better insulation against external environmental conditions. This feature is especially beneficial in colder climates, where it helps retain the absorbed solar energy within the collector for longer periods. Additionally, the reduced heat loss enhances the collector's ability to generate higher temperatures, making it more effective in various applications, such as space heating, water heating, or power generation.
Compared to single-glazing collectors, the double-glazing design also reduces the direct exposure of the absorber to external elements, such as wind or dust, minimizing the risk of degradation and improving long-term reliability. This design advantage contributes to the overall efficiency and durability of double-glazing collectors.
A solar furnace is a specialized type of furnace that uses concentrated solar power to generate extremely high temperatures. The main idea behind a solar furnace is to harness the power of sunlight and focus it onto a small area to achieve intense heat.
In a solar furnace, sunlight is concentrated using mirrors or lenses to create a highly concentrated beam of light. This concentrated light is then directed onto a target area, typically a small focal point. The intense concentration of sunlight at this focal point results in a significant increase in temperature.
The maximum temperature obtained in a solar furnace can vary depending on several factors, including the size of the furnace, the efficiency of the concentrators, and the materials used in the target area. However, temperatures in a solar furnace can reach several thousand degrees Celsius.
These extremely high temperatures make solar furnaces useful for various applications. They can be used for materials testing, scientific research, and industrial processes that require high heat, such as metallurgy or the production of advanced materials.
A solar furnace is designed to utilize concentrated solar power to generate intense heat. By focusing sunlight onto a small area, solar furnaces can achieve extremely high temperatures. While the exact temperature can vary depending on the specific design and configuration of the furnace, typical solar furnaces can reach temperatures ranging from approximately 3,000 to 5,000 degrees Celsius.
The concentrated sunlight is achieved through the use of mirrors or lenses, which focus the incoming sunlight onto a focal point. This concentrated beam of light creates a highly localized area of intense heat. The temperature at this focal point is determined by the amount of sunlight being concentrated, the efficiency of the concentrators, and the specific materials used in the focal area.
Solar furnaces are employed in various applications that require extreme heat. They are used for materials testing, scientific research, and industrial processes such as the production of advanced materials, chemical reactions, or the study of high-temperature phenomena. The ability of solar furnaces to generate such high temperatures makes them invaluable tools for these purposes.
Learn more about Double-glazing collectors
brainly.com/question/29334038
#SPJ11
The pressure and temperature at the beginning of the compression of a dual cycle are 101 kPa and 15 ºC.
The compression ratio is 12. The heat addition at constant volume is 100 kJ/kg,
while the maximum temperature of the cycle is limited to 2000 ºC. air mass
contained in the cylinder is 0.01 kg. Determine a) the maximum cycle pressure, the MEP, the
amateur heat, the heat removed, the added compression work, the work of
expansion produced, the net work produced and the efficiency of the cycle.
The maximum temperature is 662.14 K.
The maximum cycle pressure is 189.69 kPa.
The Mean Effective Pressure (MEP) is 0.242 kJ and the net heat addition (Qin) is 1 kJ.
1. Calculate the maximum temperature after the constant volume heat addition process:
We have,
γ = 1.4 (specific heat ratio)
[tex]T_1[/tex] = 15 ºC + 273.15 = 288.15 K (initial temperature)
[tex]T_3[/tex]= 2000 ºC + 273.15 = 2273.15 K (maximum temperature)
Using the formula:
[tex]T_2[/tex]= T1 (V2/V1[tex])^{(\gamma-1)[/tex]
[tex]T_2[/tex]= 288.15 K [tex]12^{(1.4-1)[/tex]
So, T2 = 288.15 K x [tex]12^{0.4[/tex]
[tex]T_2[/tex] ≈ 288.15 K * 2.2974
[tex]T_2[/tex]≈ 662.14 K
2. Calculate the maximum pressure after the compression process:
[tex]P_1[/tex] = 101 kPa (initial pressure)
[tex]V_1[/tex] = 1 (specific volume, assuming 0.01 kg of air)
Using the ideal gas law equation:
P = 101 kPa * (662.14 K / 288.15 K) * (1 / 12)
P ≈ 189.69 kPa
Therefore, the maximum cycle pressure is 189.69 kPa.
3. [tex]T_2[/tex]≈ 662.14 K
and, Qin = Qv * m
Qin = 100 kJ/kg * 0.01 kg
Qin = 1 kJ
So, Wc = m * Cv * (T2 - T1)
Wc ≈ 0.01 kg * 0.718 kJ/kg·K * 373.99 K
Wc ≈ 2.66 kJ
and, MEP = Wc / (r - 1)
MEP = 2.66 kJ / (12 - 1)
MEP ≈ 2.66 kJ / 11
MEP ≈ 0.242 kJ
Therefore, the Mean Effective Pressure (MEP) is 0.242 kJ and the net heat addition (Qin) is 1 kJ.
Learn more about Mean Effective Pressure here:
https://brainly.com/question/32661939
#SPJ4
An inductor L, resistor R, of value 52 and resistor R. of value 102 are connected in series with a voltage source of value V(t) = 50 cos cot. If the power consumed by the R, resistor is 10 W. calculate the power factor of the circuit. [5 Marks]
Resistance of R1, R = 52 Ω
Resistance of R2, R = 102 Ω
Voltage source, V(t) = 50 cos (ωt)
Power consumed by R1, P = 10 W
We know that the total power consumed by the circuit is given as, PT = PR1 + PR2 + PL Where, PL is the power consumed by the inductor. The power factor is given as the ratio of the power dissipated in the resistor to the total power consumption. Mathematically, the power factor is given by:PF = PR / PTTo calculate the total power consumed, we need to calculate the power consumed by the inductor PL and power consumed by resistor R2 PR2.
First, let us calculate the impedance of the circuit. Impedance, Z = R + jωL
Here, j = √(-1)ω
= 2πf = 2π × 50
= 100πR
= 52 Ω
Inductive reactance, XL = ωL
= 100πL
Therefore, Z = 52 + j100πL
The real part of the impedance represents the resistance R, while the imaginary part represents the inductive reactance XL. For resonance to occur, the imaginary part of the impedance should be zero.
Hence, 50πL = 102L
= 102 / 50π
Now, we can calculate the power consumed by the inductor, PL = I²XL Where I is the current through the inductor.
Therefore, the power factor of the circuit is 0.6585.
To know more about Resistance visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29427458
#SPJ11
Which statement is not correct about heat convection for external flow?
A. The flow pattern over the tube bundle is different from the single tube.
B. The same correlation for the Nusselt number can be used for cylinders and spheres.
C. The flow pattern over the tube bundle with aligned (in-line) configuration is different from that with staggered configuration.
D. The fluid thermophysical properties are usually evaluated at the film temperature, which is the average of the surface and the mainstream temperatures.
A statement which not correct about heat convection for external flow is The same correlation for the Nusselt number can be used for cylinders and spheres.
The correct option is B)
What is heat convection?Heat convection is a mechanism in which thermal energy is transferred from one place to another by moving fluids, including gases and liquids. Heat transfer occurs in fluids through advection or forced flow, natural convection, or radiation.
Convection in external flow is caused by forced flow over an object. The fluid moves over the object, absorbing heat and carrying it away. The rate at which heat is transferred in forced flow depends on the velocity of the fluid, the thermodynamic and transport properties of the fluid, and the size and shape of the object
.The Nusselt number can be calculated to understand the relationship between heat transfer, fluid properties, and object characteristics. However, the same Nusselt number correlation cannot be used for both cylinders and spheres since the flow pattern varies significantly. This is why option B is not correct.
As a result, option B, "The same correlation for the Nusselt number can be used for cylinders and spheres," is not correct about heat convection for external flow.
Learn more about convection at
https://brainly.com/question/9535726
#SPJ11
A certain company contains three balanced three-phase loads. Each of the loads is connected in delta and the loads are:
Load 1: 20kVA at 0.85 pf lagging
Load 2: 12kW at 0.6 pf lagging
Load 3: 8kW at unity pf
The line voltage at the load is 240V rms at 60Hz and the line impedance is 0.5 + j0.8 ohms. Determine the line currents and the complex power delivered to the loads.
The loads are balanced three-phase loads that are connected in delta. Each of the loads is given and is connected in delta.
The loads are as follows :Load 1: 20kVA at 0.85 pf 2: 12kW at 0.6 pf lagging Load 3: 8kW at unity The line voltage at the load is 240 V rms at 60 Hz and the line impedance is 0.5 + j0.8 ohms. The line currents can be calculated as follows.
Phase voltage = line voltage / √3= 240/√3= 138.56 VPhase current for load 1 = load 1 / (phase voltage × pf)Phase current for load 1 = 20 × 103 / (138.56 × 0.85)Phase current for load 1 = 182.1 AThe phase current for load 2 can be calculated.
To know more about voltage visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32002804
#SPJ11
A ship, travelling at 12 knots, has an autopilot system with a time and gain constants of 107 s and 0.185 s⁻¹, respectively. The autopilot moves the rudder heading linearly from 0 to 15 degrees over 1 minute. Determine the ships heading, in degrees, after 1 minute.
The ship's heading, in degrees, after 1 minute can be determined by considering the autopilot system's time and gain constants, as well as the rudder heading range. Using the given information and the rate of change in heading, we can calculate the ship's heading after 1 minute.
The autopilot system's time constant of 107 s represents the time it takes for the system's response to reach 63.2% of its final value. The gain constant of 0.185 s⁻¹ determines the rate at which the system responds to changes. Since the autopilot moves the rudder heading linearly from 0 to 15 degrees over 1 minute, we can calculate the ship's heading at the end of 1 minute. Given that the rudder heading changes linearly, we can divide the total change in heading (15 degrees) by the time taken (1 minute) to determine the rate of change in heading.
Learn more about rudder here:
https://brainly.com/question/27274213
#SPJ11
A resistance arrangement of 50 Ω is desired. Two resistances of 100.0 ± 0.1 Ω and two resistances of 25.0 ± 0.02 Ω are available. Which should be used, a series arrangement with the 25-Ω resistors or a parallel arrangement with the 100-Ω resistors? Calculate the uncertainty for each arrangement.
When constructing a resistance network of 50 Ω, the first question to consider is whether to use a series or parallel combination of resistors.
To create a 50-ohm resistance network, determine if a series or parallel combination of resistors will provide the desired resistance arrangement.Two resistors of 100.0 ± 0.1 Ω and two resistors of 25.0 ± 0.02 Ω are available. Series and parallel combination of these resistors should be used. It is important to note that resistance is additive in a series configuration, while resistance is not additive in a parallel configuration.
When two resistors are in series, their resistance is combined using the following formula:
Rseries= R1+ R2When two resistors are in parallel, their resistance is combined using the following formula:1/Rparallel= 1/R1+ 1/R2The formulas above will be used to determine the resistance of both configurations and their associated uncertainty.
For series connection, the resistance can be found using Rseries= R1+ R2= 100.0 + 100.0 + 25.0 + 25.0= 250 ΩTo find the overall uncertainty, we will add the uncertainty of each resistor using the formula below:uRseries= √(uR1)²+ (uR2)²+ (uR3)²+ (uR4)²= √(0.1)²+ (0.1)²+ (0.02)²+ (0.02)²= 0.114 Ω
When resistors are connected in parallel, their resistance can be calculated using the formula:1/Rparallel= 1/R1+ 1/R2+ 1/R3+ 1/R4= 1/100.0 + 1/100.0 + 1/25.0 + 1/25.0= 0.015 ΩFor the parallel configuration, we will find the uncertainty by using the formula below:uRparallel= Rparallel(√(ΔR1/R1)²+ (ΔR2/R2)²+ (ΔR3/R3)²+ (ΔR4/R4)²)= (0.015)(√(0.1/100.0)²+ (0.1/100.0)²+ (0.02/25.0)²+ (0.02/25.0)²)= 0.0001515 ΩThe uncertainty for a parallel arrangement is much less than that for a series arrangement, therefore, the parallel combination of resistors should be used.
To know more about resistance visit:
brainly.com/question/31140236
#SPJ11
List the general process sequence of ceramic
processing. Discuss why ceramic material is become more competitive
than any other material such as metal
The general process sequence of ceramic processing involves steps like raw material preparation, forming, drying, firing, and glazing.
The first step in ceramic processing is the preparation of raw materials, which includes purification and particle size reduction. The next step, forming, shapes the ceramic particles into a desired form. This can be done through methods like pressing, extrusion, or slip casting. Once shaped, the ceramic is dried to remove any remaining moisture. Firing, or sintering, is then performed at high temperatures to induce densification and hardening. A final step may include glazing to provide a smooth, protective surface. Ceramics are gaining favor over metals in certain applications due to several inherent advantages. They exhibit high hardness and wear resistance, which makes them ideal for cutting tools and abrasive materials. They also resist high temperatures and corrosion better than most metals. Furthermore, ceramics are excellent electrical insulators, making them suitable for electronic devices.
Learn more about ceramic processing here:
https://brainly.com/question/32080114
#SPJ11
Draw a hydraulic circuit, that may provide linear displacement heavy-duty machine tool table by the use of hydraulic single rod cylinder. The diameter of cylinder piston D is 100 mm, the diameter rod d is 63 mm.
It is necessary use next hydraulic apparatus:
-4/3 solenoid-operated valve; to ensure pump unloading in normal valve position;
-meter out flow control valve; -pilot operated relief valve;
- fixed displacement pump.
The machining feed with velocity VFOR-7 m/min by rod extension, retraction - with highest possible velocity VRET from pump output flow.
The design load F on the machining feed is 12000 H.
It is necessary to determine:
1. The permissible minimum working pressure P;
2. The permissible minimum pump output QP by rod extension;
3. The highest possible retraction velocity VRET with pump output QP.
Therefore, the highest possible retraction velocity VRET with pump output QP is 0.104 m/s.
1. To determine the minimum permissible working pressure P:
Given, Design load = F = 12000 H
Area of the cylinder piston = A = π(D² - d²)/4 = π(100² - 63²)/4 = 2053.98 mm²Working pressure = P
Load supported by the cylinder = F = P × A
Therefore, P = F/A = 12000/2053.98 = 5.84 N/mm²2. To determine the minimum permissible pump output QP by rod extension:
Given, Velocity of rod extension = VFOR = 7 m/min
Area of the cylinder piston = A = π(D² - d²)/4 = π(100² - 63²)/4 = 2053.98 mm²
Flow rate of oil required for extension = Q = A × V = 2053.98 × (7/60) = 239.04 mm³/s
Volume of oil discharged by the pump in one revolution = Vp = πD²/4 × L = π × 100²/4 × 60 = 785398 mm³/s
Discharge per minute = QP = Vp × n = 785398 × 60 = 47123.88 mm³/min
Where n = speed of rotation of the pump
The permissible minimum pump output QP by rod extension is 47123.88 mm³/min.3. To determine the highest possible retraction velocity VRET with pump output QP:
Given, The highest possible retraction velocity = VRET
Discharge per minute = QP = 47123.88 mm³/min
Volume of oil required for retraction = Q = A × VRET
Volume of oil discharged by the pump in one revolution = Vp = πD²/4 × L = π × 100²/4 × 60 = 785398 mm³/s
Flow control valve:
It will maintain the desired speed of cylinder actuation by controlling the flow of oil passing to the cylinder. It is placed in the port of the cylinder outlet.
The flow rate is adjusted by changing the opening size of the valve. Therefore, Velocity of the cylinder = VRET = Q/ABut, Q = QP - Qm
Where Qm is the oil flow rate from the meter-out flow control valve. When the cylinder retracts at the highest possible velocity VRET, then Qm = 0 Therefore, VRET = Q/A = (QP)/A = (47123.88 × 10⁻⁶)/(π/4 (100² - 63²) × 10⁻⁶) = 0.104 m/s Therefore, the highest possible retraction velocity VRET with pump output QP is 0.104 m/s.
To know more about Velocity visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30559316
#SPJ11
Equilibrium cooling of a hyper-eutectoid steel to room temperature will form: A. Pro-eutectoid ferrite and pearlite B. Pro-eutectoid ferrite and cementite C. Pro-eutectoid cementite and pearlite Pro-eutectoid cementite and austenite D.
Answer : Option C
Solution : Equilibrium cooling of a hyper-eutectoid steel to room temperature will form pro-eutectoid cementite and pearlite. Hence, the correct option is C.
A steel that contains more than 0.8% of carbon by weight is known as hyper-eutectoid steel. Carbon content in such steel is above the eutectoid point (0.8% by weight) and less than 2.11% by weight.
The pearlite is a form of iron-carbon material. The structure of pearlite is lamellar (a very thin plate-like structure) which is made up of alternating layers of ferrite and cementite. A common pearlitic structure is made up of about 88% ferrite by volume and 12% cementite by volume. It is produced by slow cooling of austenite below 727°C on cooling curve at the eutectoid point.
Iron carbide or cementite is an intermetallic compound that is formed from iron (Fe) and carbon (C), with the formula Fe3C. Cementite is a hard and brittle substance that is often found in the form of a lamellar structure with ferrite or pearlite. Cementite has a crystalline structure that is orthorhombic, with a space group of Pnma.
Know more about cooling here:
https://brainly.com/question/32239921
#SPJ11
Compute the Fourier Series decomposition of a square waveform with 90% duty cycle
The Fourier series decomposition of the square waveform with a 90% duty cycle is given by: f(t) = (a0/2) + ∑[(an * cos((2πnt)/T)) + (bn * sin((2πnt)/T))]
The Fourier series decomposition for a square waveform with a 90% duty cycle:
Definition of the Square Waveform:
The square waveform with a 90% duty cycle is defined as follows:
For 0 ≤ t < T0.9 (90% of the period), the waveform is equal to +1.
For T0.9 ≤ t < T (10% of the period), the waveform is equal to -1.
Here, T represents the period of the waveform.
Fourier Series Coefficients:
The Fourier series coefficients for this waveform can be computed using the following formulas:
a0 = (1/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) dt
an = (2/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) cos((2πnt)/T) dt
bn = (2/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) sin((2πnt)/T) dt
where a0, an, and bn are the Fourier coefficients.
Computation of Fourier Coefficients:
For the given square waveform with a 90% duty cycle, we have:
a0 = (1/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) dt = 0 (since the waveform is symmetric around 0)
an = 0 for all n ≠ 0 (since the waveform is symmetric and does not have cosine terms)
bn = (2/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) sin((2πnt)/T) dt
Computation of bn for n = 1:
We need to compute bn for n = 1 using the formula:
bn = (2/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) sin((2πt)/T) dt
Breaking the integral into two parts (corresponding to the two regions of the waveform), we have:
bn = (2/T) [∫[0 to T0.9] sin((2πt)/T) dt - ∫[T0.9 to T] sin((2πt)/T) dt]
Evaluating the integrals, we get:
bn = (2/T) [(-T0.9/2π) cos((2πt)/T)] from 0 to T0.9 - (-T0.1/2π) cos((2πt)/T)] from T0.9 to T
bn = (2/T) [(T - T0.9)/2π - (-T0.9)/2π]
bn = (T - T0.9)/π
Fourier Series Decomposition:
The Fourier series decomposition of the square waveform with a 90% duty cycle is given by:
f(t) = (a0/2) + ∑[(an * cos((2πnt)/T)) + (bn * sin((2πnt)/T))]
However, since a0 and an are 0 for this waveform, the decomposition simplifies to:
f(t) = ∑[(bn * sin((2πnt)/T))]
For n = 1, the decomposition becomes:
f(t) = (T - T0.9)/π * sin((2πt)/T)
This represents the Fourier series decomposition of the square waveform with a 90% duty cycle, including the computation of the Fourier coefficients and the final decomposition expression for the waveform.
To know more about waveform, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/26058582
#SPJ11
Suppose an infinitely large plane which is flat. It is positively charged with a uniform surface density ps C/m²
1. Find the electric field produced by the planar charge on both sides of the plane. If you use symmetry argument you may picture the field lines. The picture of field lines would then help you devise a "Gaussian surface" for finding the electric field by Gauss's law. 2. Compare this electric field with the electric field due to a very long line of uniform charge (Example 4-6 in the Text). 3. Now imagine there are two planar sheets with charges. One is charged with a uniform surface density p. and the other -P. The two planes are placed in parallel with a distance d apart. Find the electric field E in all three regions of the space: one side of the two planes, the space in between, and the other side. Superposition principle would be useful for finding the field.
Suppose an infinitely large plane which is flat. It is positively charged with a uniform surface density ps C/m²
As the plane is infinitely large and flat, the electric field produced by it on both sides of the plane will be uniform.
1. Electric field due to the planar charge on both sides of the plane:
The electric field due to an infinite plane of charge is given by the following equation:
E = σ/2ε₀, where E is the electric field, σ is the surface charge density, and ε₀ is the permittivity of free space.
Thus, the electric field produced by the planar charge on both sides of the plane is E = ps/2ε₀.
We can use the symmetry argument to picture the field lines. The electric field lines due to an infinite plane of charge are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the plane.
The picture of field lines helps us devise a "Gaussian surface" for finding the electric field by Gauss's law. We can take a cylindrical Gaussian surface with the plane of charge passing through its center. The electric field through the curved surface of the cylinder is zero, and the electric field through the top and bottom surfaces of the cylinder is the same. Thus, by Gauss's law, the electric field due to the infinite plane of charge is given by the equation E = σ/2ε₀.
2. Comparison between electric fields due to the plane and the long line of uniform charge:
The electric field due to a long line of uniform charge with linear charge density λ is given by the following equation:
E = λ/2πε₀r, where r is the distance from the line of charge.
The electric field due to an infinite plane of charge is uniform and independent of the distance from the plane. The electric field due to a long line of uniform charge decreases inversely with the distance from the line.
Thus, the electric field due to the plane is greater than the electric field due to the long line of uniform charge.
3. Electric field due to two planar sheets with charges:
Let's assume that the positive charge is spread on the plane with a surface density p, and the negative charge is spread on the other plane with a surface density -P.
a. One side of the two planes:
The electric field due to the positive plane is E1 = p/2ε₀, and the electric field due to the negative plane is E2 = -P/2ε₀. Thus, the net electric field on one side of the two planes is E = E1 + E2 = (p - P)/2ε₀.
b. The space in between:
Inside the space in between the two planes, the electric field is zero because there is no charge.
c. The other side of the two planes:
The electric field due to the positive plane is E1 = -p/2ε₀, and the electric field due to the negative plane is E2 = P/2ε₀. Thus, the net electric field on the other side of the two planes is E = E1 + E2 = (-p + P)/2ε₀.
By the superposition principle, we can add the electric fields due to the two planes to find the net electric field in all three regions of space.
Learn more about electric fields: https://brainly.com/question/19878202
#SPJ11
Determine the range of K for stability of a unity feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function is K G(s) = K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2)
The range of K for stability of the given control system is $0 < K < 6$. Therefore, the answer is : Range of K for stability of a unity feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function is K G(s) = K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2) is 0 < K < 6.
Given Open loop transfer function: [tex]$$K G(s) = \frac{K}{s(s+ 1)(s + 2)}$$[/tex]
The closed-loop transfer function is given by: [tex]$$\frac{C(s)}{R(s)} = \frac{KG(s)}{1 + KG(s)}$$$$= \frac{K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2)}{1 + K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2)}$$[/tex]
On simplifying, we get: [tex]$$\frac{C(s)}{R(s)} = \frac{K}{s^3 + 3s^2 + 2s + K}$$[/tex]
The characteristic equation of the closed-loop system is: [tex]$$s^3 + 3s^2 + 2s + K = 0$$[/tex]
To obtain a range of values of K for stability, we will apply Routh-Hurwitz criterion. For that we need to form Routh array using the coefficients of s³, s², s and constant in the characteristic equation: $$\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline s^3 & 1\quad 2 \\ s^2 & 3\quad K \\ s^1 & \frac{6-K}{3} \\ s^0 & K \\ \hline \end{array}$$
For stability, all the coefficients in the first column of the Routh array must be positive: [tex]$$1 > 0$$$$3 > 0$$$$\frac{6-K}{3} > 0$$[/tex]
Hence, [tex]$\frac{6-K}{3} > 0$[/tex] which implies $K < 6$.
So, the range of K for stability of the given control system is $0 < K < 6$.Therefore, the answer is : Range of K for stability of a unity feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function is K G(s) = K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2) is 0 < K < 6.
To know more about closed-loop system, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/11995211
#SPJ11
Stability (3 marks) Explain why the moment of stability (righting moment) is the absolute measure for the intact stability of a vessel and not GZ.
The moment of stability, also known as the righting moment, is considered the absolute measure of the intact stability of a vessel, as it provides a comprehensive understanding of the vessel's ability to resist capsizing.
The moment of stability, or righting moment, represents the rotational force that acts to restore a vessel to an upright position when it is heeled due to external factors such as wind, waves, or cargo shift. It is determined by multiplying the displacement of the vessel by the righting arm (GZ). The GZ value alone indicates the distance between the center of gravity and the center of buoyancy, providing information on the initial stability of the vessel. However, it does not consider the magnitude of the force acting on the vessel.
The moment of stability takes into account both the lever arm and the magnitude of the force acting on the vessel, providing a more accurate assessment of its stability. It considers the dynamic effects of external forces, allowing for a better understanding of the vessel's ability to return to its upright position when heeled.
Learn more about vessel stability here:
https://brainly.com/question/13485166
#SPJ11
It is required to transmit torque 537 N.m of from shaft 6 cm in diameter to a gear by a sunk key of length 70 mm. permissible shear stress is 60 MN/m. and the crushing stress is 120MN/m². Find the dimension of the key.
It is required to transmit torque 537 N.m of from shaft 6 cm in diameter to a gear by a sunk key of length 70 mm. The permissible shear stress is 60 MN/m. and the crushing stress is 120MN/m². Find the dimension of the key.
The dimension of the key can be calculated using the following formulae.
Torque, T = 537 N-m diameter of shaft, D = 6 cm Shear stress, τ = 60 MN/m Crushing stress, σc = 120 MN/m²Length of the key, L = 70 mm Key width, b = ?.
Radius of shaft, r = D/2 = 6/2 = 3 cm.
Let the length of the key be 'L' and the width of the key be 'b'.
Also, let 'x' be the distance of the centre of gravity of the key from the top of the shaft. Let 'P' be the axial force due to the key on the shaft.
Now, we can write the equation for the torque transmission by key,T = P×x = (τ/2)×L×b×x/L+ (σc/2)×b×L×(D-x)/LAlso, the area of the key, A = b×L.
Therefore, the shear force acting on the key is,Fs = T/r = (2T/D) = (2×537)/(3×10⁻²) = 3.58×10⁵ N.
From the formula for shear stress,τ = Fs/A.
Therefore, A = Fs/τ= 3.58×10⁵/60 × 10⁶= 0.00597 m².
Hence, A = b×L= 5.97×10⁻³ m²L/b = A/b² = 0.00597/b².
From the formula for crushing stress,σc = P/A= P/(L×b).
Therefore, P = σc×L×b= 120×10⁶×L×b.
Therefore, T = P×x = σc×L×b×x/L+ τ/2×b×(D-x).
Therefore, 537 = 120×10⁶×L×b×x/L+ 30×10⁶×b×(3-x).
Therefore, 179 = 40×10⁶×L×x/b² + 10×10⁶×(3-x).
Therefore, 179b² + 10×10⁶b(3-x) - 40×10⁶Lx = 0.
Since the key dimensions should be small, we can take Lx = 0 and solve for b.
Therefore, 179b² + 30×10⁶b - 0 = 0.
Solving the quadratic equation, we get the key width, b = 46.9 mm (approx).
Therefore, the dimension of the key is 70 mm × 46.9 mm (length × width).
Hence, the dimension of the key is 70 mm × 46.9 mm.
To know more about diameter visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32968193
#SPJ11