Answer:
Integumentary system
Explanation:
This system is responsible for development of skin, hair, nails, glands, and nerves and it serves as a protector. There are many organs in this system too.
when the community climax in an ecosystem has only a single type of climax, the development of the climax community is controlled by ___ of that region.
a) the climate
b) the life forms
c) the soil texture
d) the pioneer community
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
because the climax community is composed of species beat adopted to average conditions in that area
When the community climax in an ecosystem has only a single type of climax, the development of the climax community is controlled by the climate of that region. Option A is correct.
The climate of a region is the most important factor that controls the development of a climax community. The climate determines the temperature, precipitation, and other abiotic factors that influence the growth and survival of plants and animals.
In a region with a single type of climax community, the climate is relatively uniform and there is little variation in the abiotic factors. This means that the same species of plants and animals will be able to survive and thrive in the region, regardless of the specific location. The life forms, soil texture, and pioneer community can all influence the development of a climax community, but they are not as important as the climate. Option A is correct.
To know more about the Ecosystem, here
https://brainly.com/question/11014883
#SPJ2
The largest taxon and consists of all the other taxis called
Answer:
Domain
Explanation:
The function of the plasma membrane is....
Answer:
to protect the cell from it's surroundings
Explanation:
the plasma membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and regulates the movement of substances in and out of cells
Explanation:
The primary function of the plasma membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings.
Sorry if the ans is wrong
Rutherford tracked the motion of tiny, positively charged particles shot through a thin sheet of gold foil. Some particles traveled in a straight line and some were deflected at different angles. Which statement best describes what Rutherford concluded from the motion of the particles? Some particles traveled through empty spaces between atoms and some particles were deflected by electrons. Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by electrons. Some particles traveled through empty spaces between atoms and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms. Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.
Answer:
Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.
Explanation:
Rutherford concluded from his experiment that there are empty spaces present in most parts of the atom while a heavy positive charge is present in the nucleus of an atom due to which the tiny positively charged particles deflects because of positive-positive charge repulsion. Most of positively charged particles passes undeflected which indicated the presence of empty spaces in the atoms. The electrons revolve around the nucleus have no effect on the deflection of positively charged particles.
Rutherford conducted a legendary experiment to determine atomic structure in which he bombarded a thin gold foil with alpha particles. In the aftermath of the experiment he concluded that; Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.
The gold foil experiment showed that the atom is composed of a massive core which contains positively charged particles.
This massive core is at the center of the atom surrounded by electrons that move in orbits. Hence, the resulting model of the atom was called the planetary model.
The deflected positively charged particles were deflected by this small area of high-density positive charge in atoms.
Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/730256
If it is accepted that the information for how a protein is intended to fold lies within its primary sequence, explain why a purified protein denatured in vitro might not be able to renature accurately.
Answer:
Denaturation and renaturation are properties of protein but in some cases denaturation is irreversible and protein is unable to renature.
The primary sequence of a protein determines which portion of protein fold closely together in order to form three-dimensional conformation and the conformations are held by hydrogen bonds.
Denaturation of protein in-vitro is generally obtained by increasing temperature. Heat or high temperature disrupts hydrogen bonds that held between protein folds because high temperature increases the kinetic energy and the bonds are disrupted due to rapid heating. Disruption of hydrogen bonds will change the 3D structure of the protein and denatured proteins lose its function.
Chemicals are also used to disrupt hydrogen bonds such as alcohol.
So, high temperature and chemicals denature protein by affecting the hydrogen bonds holding 3D shape of primary sequence in protein and the change in protein becomes irreversible.
Colistin is an antibiotic used to treat infections in the bloodstream. Some bacteria are resistant to Colistin. Explain how these bacteria have become resistant to Colistin.
Answer:
They have adapted to it
Explanation:
Why would damage to the nervous tissue in the spinal cord lead to paralysis?
Damage results in the loss of signals to muscles to produce movement.
Damage results in the inability of the body to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movement.
Damage results in the inability of the body to produce connective tissue to support movement.
Damage results in the decreased production of actin and myosin for contraction
Answer:
B. Damage results in the inability of the body to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movement
Explanation:
Answer:
b
Explanation:
what is a animal and what types of animals are there
Answer:
Animals are multicellular eukaryotic organisms that form the biological kingdom of Animalia. With few exceptions, animals consume organic material, breathe oxygen, are able to move, can reproduce sexually, and grow from a hollow sphere of cells, the blastula, during embryonic development.
Explanation:
Scientists have recently estimated that there are approximately 8.7 million species on Earth. They believe that 1-2 million of those species are animals.
At the neuromuscular junction, _______ must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of ____________, which binds to ligand gates so ________ can enter the muscle fiber.
Answer:
At the neuromuscular junction, calcium must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of acetylcholine, which binds to ligand gates so sodium ions can enter the muscle fiber.
Explanation:
Skeletal fiber contractions are based on different physiological and biochemical phenomena that happen in every cell. These phenomena are due to stimulation produced by somatic motor neurons, which axons get in contact with muscle fibers through a neuromuscular synapse. In rest, attraction strengths between myosin and actin filaments are inhibited by the tropomyosin. When an action potential is originated in the central nervous system, it travels to the somatic motor neuron membrane: the muscle fiber, and activates the calcium channels releasing it in the neuron. Calcium makes vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter named acetylcholine (Ach) into the synaptic space in the juncture. Then, Ach binds to its receptors on the skeletal muscle fiber. This causes the ion channels to open, and positively charged sodium ions cross the membrane to get into the muscle fiber (sarcoplasm) and potassium get out. The difference in charges caused by the migration of sodium and potassium makes the muscle fiber membrane to become more positively charged (depolarized). The action potential caused by this depolarization enters the t-tubules depolarizing the inner portion of the muscle fiber. This activates calcium channels in the T tubules membrane, that make the calcium be released into the sarcolemma. At this point, tropomyosin is obstructing binding sites for myosin on the thin filament. When calcium binds to the troponin C, the troponin T alters the tropomyosin by moving it and then unblocks the binding sites. Myosin binds to the uncovered actin-binding sites, and while doing it ATP is transformed into ADP and inorganic phosphate. Z-bands are then pulled toward each other, thus shortening the sarcomere and the I-band, and producing muscle fiber contraction.
Suppose a plant breeder wants to isolate mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair. However, this breeder does not have the expertise or equipment to study enzymes in DNA repair systems.
Which methods would best allow the breeder to identify tomato plants that are deficient in DNA repair?
A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.
B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants. Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
C) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.
D) Measure the germ line spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
The provided question has marked options incorrectely the correct order as follows:
A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.
B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
C) Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
D) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.
E) Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Answer:
The correct answer is: A), C) and E)
Explanation:
The breeder wants to isolate the mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair, to identify such plants breeder should follow these methods as they will allow best to identifying the defective tomatoes-
Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants. This will allow the breeder to see and analyze the ability of DNA repair in tomatoes
-Lab-
"Why are cells so small"
Answer:
Explanation:
Because we need a lot of cells and if they were big only a small about would fit.
Which gas is a major contributor to ocean acidification? A. oxygen B. sulfur dioxide C. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen
Answer:C, carbon dioxide.
Explanation:Carbon Dioxide reacts with water forming Carbonic acid. This acid increases the acidity of the ocean.
Answer:
Explanation: got it correct
The process of succession is necessary to maintain and establish stable communities. T or F
Answer: True it is necessary
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Please describe the regulation of the blood glucose 6 hours after a meal?
Please include all relevant organs, hormones, and actions.
Answer:
Find the description below in the explanation section
Explanation:
The body system regulates the blood sugar level via the hand-in-hand working of insulin and glucagon hormones, both produced by the Pancreas. After a meal, the food undergoes digestion and is broken down into glucose, which is absorbed into the bloodstream. Insulin hormone is released by the pancreas (stimulated by a negative feedback) when the sugar level of the blood increases. This secretion of insulin causes cells to absorb glucose as source of energy, while liver and muscle cells store some of the excess blood glucose as GLYCOGEN.
However, after about 6 hours of taking the meal, the blood sugar (glucose) level must have decreased. This triggers the secretion of Glucagon hormone by the Pancreas. Glucagon hormone, acts in an opposite manner as Insulin hormone, by causing the stored GLYCOGEN in the liver and muscle cells to be converted back to Glucose in order for cells to make use of it.
This continuous process occurs and it is how the body regulates the blood glucose levels.
During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear membrane, nucleoli, nucleus dissolve
Answer:
Prophase stage
Hope this helps
3. Mutations that occur in the BPG binding cavity on deoxyhemoglobin can at times result in the substitution of lysine and histidine residues present with aspartic acid and phenylalanine residues. Explain how these changes would impact BPG binding to deoxyhemoglobin along with the impact it would have on oxygen transport with hemoglobin
Answer:
It affects the oxygenation of the tissues in a negative way, that is, causing tissue hypoxias.
Explanation:
What will happen is that BPG, having a different relationship with deoxyhemoglobin, hemoglobin will not give oxygen to organs or tissues during glycolysis at times when the sympathetic nervous system is activated or even in the maintenance of physiological tissue vitality, therefore it will trigger a drop in the partial pressure of the gas both in the blood and in the tissues since they will be retained in the hemoglobin structure without being able to release it.
Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition
Answer:
seems you forgot the "followings" but here are some known limiting factors
Explanation:
Exercise,Physiology, Mindset, Nutrition and Genetics.
maggots feed on dead and decaying organisms for energy. what are maggots
Answer:
Decomposers, or as they're alternatively known, detritovores.
Explanation:
Their job is to break down decaying/dead organic matter to recycle it into the soil for plants (mainly). Fungi and bacteria make up the vast majority of decomposers.
Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?
The women has had two miscarriages. What is the chance that she could have a normal child? a. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.b. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.c. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers.d. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers
The ___ cycle is not a nutrient cycle.
Answer:
water cycle
Explanation:
a strand of mRNA has the bases adenine- cytosine- uracil which amino acid corresponds to these bases?
Answer:
Threonine
Explanation:
Using the amino acid chart, the mRNA strand ACU corresponds to the amino acid Threonine.
Answer:
thr
Explanation:
i did test
What brings greater concentrations of dissolved nutrients to the ocean surface?
Answer: Upwelling
Explanation:
Upwelling is a process of movement of dense, cold and nutrient rich water from the bottom of the ocean to the surface layers due to wind currents. This process replaces the warm and nutrient deficient water from the surface.
This process is useful for the growth of phytoplanktons and other sea plants growing in the surface layer of oceanic water.
How are lysosomes pro-nuclear dense bodies?
Answer:i hope this answers ur question
Explanation:
Some present-day bacteria use a system of anaerobic respiration characterized by an electron transport chain analogous to that found in aerobic organisms. Which of the following correctly characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain?
a. It uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
b. It is embedded in the outer mitochondrial membrane rather than the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It establishes a proton gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid.
d. It establishes a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the cytoplasm.
e. None of these answer options accurately characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Answer:
The correct answer would be:
Neither of these response options accurately features the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Explanation:
The anaerobic respiration system vibrated by an electron transport chain is a mechanism that anaerobic bacteria have to maintain their respiration.
This mechanism does not require oxygen in the atmosphere, that is why it is said to be an anaerobic mechanism.
Bacteria do not all need oxygen in the environment to live, some need that oxygen is not exactly present (strict anaerobes) or that it is at low partial pressures (facultative anaerobes).
This mechanism is very characteristic in its location since it is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, that is why it will decide to indicate that option as the correct one.
who is Charles darwin
Answer:
Charles Darwin came up with the theory of evolution.
Charles Darwin is a writer who wrote the book Orgin of species . He is the one that gave the idea of evolution . his proposition that all species of life have decended over time from common ancestors. He is a english naturalist, geologist and biologist
A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation?
A. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGATGCTTAGGCATCT-3
B. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATAT-3
C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
D. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCCAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Answer:
C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Explanation:
In the wild type, the DNA sequence encodes the following aminoacidic segment: SRSLGI; while the mutant form has a stop codon in the second codon (TGA). A stop codon is a trinucleotide sequence in the messenger RNA (mRNA) that indicates a stop signal in protein synthesis. There are three types of stop codons: UGA, UAG and UAA, where U represents Uracile in the mRNA instead of Thymine in the DNA sequence.
Representation:
C. WT 5-T AGT CGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = SRSLGI
Mutant 5-T AGT TGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = S-, where - represents a stop codon (TGA) and therefore it is the end of the protein.
In 1668 Francesco Redi did a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze will exclude the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, fies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The experiment was inconclusive because it did not nun long enough
B. The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
C. The expertment supports the hwpothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flhes
D. The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat
Answer:
The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies; that is only from reproduction and development.
Explanation:
The objective of this experimental set up by Francesco Radi was to demonstrate the concept of spontaneous generation. He concluded that, Maggots are not spontaneous generated from rotten meats, rather they are products of eggs laid by houseflies who visited the rotten meat to lay eggs. The maggots (larva) are products of complete metamorphosis, from egg to larva to pupa and adult. This is an indication that, new organisms are not formed form spontaneously, but are products of well-defined process of reproduction and development which in this case is a complete metamorphosis.
Based on this premise he concluded that, if maggots were products of laid eggs, then they should appear only when rotten meat is exposed to open air.However,if they are f products of spontaneous generation they should appear irrespective of the meat exposure to air or not.
Explain why detritivores, decomposers and omnivores are not assigned trophic level
Answer:
They can be found in several trophic levels, as they are related with several trophic level, hence, they cannot be placed on a specific trophic level.
Explanation:
A trophic level is a specific position occupied by a group of organisms on a good chain in relation to their nutrition.
Dentrivores feed on the waste of other organisms and cannot be really placed on a specific trophic level, likewise decomposers, of which they feed and decompose the body of organisms.
Omnivores feed on both plants and animals, which includes producers and consumers. Placing omnivores on a specific trophic level would not be really straightforward also.
5 Points
Great Britain would have a much colder climate than it does if not for the
O A. polar easterlies
B. gulf stream
C. trade winds
D. jet stream
SUBMIT
Hello There!
Answer:
B. Gulf stream
Explanation:
Great Britain would have a much colder climate than it does if not for the gulf stream.