The correct answer is:
(d) contain a statement that indicates medicare generally covers all routine screening tests.
The above stated is not a purpose of the requisition slip.
What is a lab requisition?
A lab requisition form is a written request for a medical test or procedure made to a laboratory. It is drafted by a physician or healthcare facility and then completed in the lab.
A screening test is carried out to look for potential diseases or health issues when a person shows no symptoms of a sickness. To reduce the risk of disease or to discover it early enough to obtain the best care, the goal is early identification, lifestyle changes, or surveillance. Before any symptoms or signs arise, doctors use screens, which are physical examinations, to check for illnesses and other problems.
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the nurse is monitoring a patient who sustained an open fracture of the left hip. what type of shock should the nurse be aware can occur with this type of injury?
According to its kind and extent, a fracture is characterized as a complete or incomplete break in the continuity of the bone structure.
What evaluation results of the leg are consistent with a femoral neck fracture?Over the femoral neck, there is noticeable tenderness to palpation. There could be swelling here as well. A femoral neck stress fracture may be indicated by increased discomfort at the extremes of hip rotation, an abduction lurch, and the inability to stand on the affected leg.
When treating an open fracture, where should pressure be applied?If the fracture is open, clean, non-fluffy fabric or a sterile dressing should be applied to the wound. To stop any bleeding, apply pressure around the wound rather than directly over the sticking-out bone.
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the nurse is designing a bioterrorism plan for a community. which agents are transmitted person to person via respiratory or inhalation exposure? (select all that apply.)
Answer:
b. Pneumonic plague
e. Smallpox
Explanation:
the nurse is administering phenytoin to a client who is also receiving a continuous nasogastric enteral feeding and is aware of what possible effect?
The nurse is aware that it will decrease the absorption of the AED
What is AED ?
When a person is having a sudden cardiac arrest, an AED, or automated external defibrillator, is used to assist them.
The heart rhythm of individuals who are experiencing cardiac arrest is automatically analyzed by an AED, a sort of computerized defibrillator. When necessary, it shocks the heart with electricity to get it back into rhythm.
This shock totally stops the heart, depolarizing the cardiac muscle and eradicating the deadly arrhythmia.
The heart has the astonishing capacity to restart its internal pacemaker after stopping, allowing it to resume beating regularly.
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an infant with the diagnosis of exstrophy of the bladder undergoes surgery to close the defect. what must the nurse include in the discharge teaching for the parents?
Complete primary repair of bladder exstrophy is the name of the procedure, and the nurse is helping the RN with discharge instructions.
How is bladder exstrophy treated?The bladder, abdomen, and outer sex organs are all closed during a single surgery that also reconstructs the urethra. This can be carried out as soon as the infant is born or about two to three months old. The majority of infant surgeries include pelvic bone replacement.
What is the bladder's surgical repair?Neobladder reconstruction is a surgical procedure that results in the creation of a new bladder. If the bladder is malfunctioning or was removed to treat another condition, a surgeon can create an alternative pathway for pee to exit the body.
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the dispensing of controlled substances has divided patients, doctors, pharmacists and law enforcement agencies as they strive to create a balance between treating legitimate chronic pain and keeping powerful pain meds out of the hands of abusers. a recent convention discussed the development of a viable strategy for pain medications.
The dispensing of controlled substances has divided patients, doctors, pharmacists, and law enforcement agencies as they strive to create a balance between treating legitimate chronic pain and keeping powerful pain medications out of the hands of abusers. A recent convention discussed the development of a viable promotion strategy for pain medications. The correct answer is B.
What is a viable promotion strategy?A viable promotion strategy focuses on key benefits based on the audience's point of view and interests. This marketing strategy is delivered at an appropriate time when the target audience is most likely to be attentive and interested in the message being delivered. Due to the fact that this method is targeted at a specific audience, a viable promotion strategy is effective for keeping powerful pain relievers out of the hands of abusers.
The questions above are improperly formatted, making it challenging for some people to comprehend. The question is 'fill in the blank' type and should be stated as follows:
The dispensing of controlled substances has divided patients, doctors, pharmacists and law enforcement agencies as they strive to create a balance between treating legitimate chronic pain and keeping powerful pain meds out of the hands of abusers. A recent convention discussed the development of a viable ______ strategy for pain medications.This question also should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. ProductionB. PromotionC. PossessionD. PlaceThe correct answer is B, promotion.
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the nurse has completed an educational program on normal growth and development in children. which statement by a participant would indicate a need for further education?
The nurse gives parents of children entering the preschool age group proactive advice and instruction.
Why is it crucial to promote children's growth and learning?The success of children as learners rests on solid foundations laid from infancy on. Critical abilities, comprehension, and dispositions are fostered through play-based learning, which are crucial for your child's wellness and lifetime learning.
What role do learning, development, and growth play?Resilience, flexibility, and sustainability all depend on individuals, teams, and organizations learning, growing, and developing. There are several significant differences among the three. The process of gaining or modifying knowledge, understanding, behaviors, skills, and competencies is known as learning.
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a nurse educator is preparing to discuss immunodeficiency disorders with a group of fellow nurses. what would the nurse identify as the most common secondary immunodeficiency disorder?
Perhaps the most well-known secondary immunodeficiency disorder is AIDS, which is also the most prevalent secondary disorder. Human immunodeficiency virus infection is the cause (HIV).
What test will the nurse evaluate to find out whether the patient is responding to antiretroviral therapy?The CD4 cell count is used to evaluate the immunologic response to ART in patients on ART and to determine whether prophylaxis for opportunistic infections has to be started or stopped.
What types of diseases cause immunodeficiency?Common variable immunodeficiency and other primary immunodeficiency disorders are examples (CVID) Alymphocytosis, commonly known as severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). A persistent granulomatous condition (CGD).
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a nurse is performing client health education with a 68-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. which statement demonstrates an accurate understanding of his new diagnosis?
The statement that demonstrates an accurate understanding of his new diagnosis is "I'm trying to think of ways that I can cut down the amount of salt that I usually eat."
What is Heart failure?
Heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to properly pump blood throughout the body. It usually occurs as a result of the heart becoming too weak or stiff.
It is also known as congestive heart failure, though this term is no longer widely used.
Heart failure does not imply that your heart has stopped functioning. It means it requires assistance to function properly.
It can occur at any age, but it is most common in the elderly.
Heart failure is a chronic condition that worsens gradually over time.
It is not usually curable, but the symptoms can often be managed for many years.
Consult your doctor if you have persistent or gradually worsening heart failure symptoms.
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a client with an h. pylori infection asks why bismuth subsalicylate is prescribed. which response will the nurse make?
When H. pylori bacteria infect your stomach, H. pylori infection results. The most common way for H. By coming into close touch with saliva, vomit, or stool, pylori germs can be transferred from one person to another.
What is the severity of pylori infection?In addition to ulcers, the H pylori bacteria can also lead to chronic inflammation in the upper small intestine or the stomach (gastritis) (duodenitis). Additionally, H pylori can occasionally result in stomach lymphoma or a rare form of stomach cancer.
Where are H. pylori infections most frequent?The spiral-shaped bacterium Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) resides in or on the stomach's lining. More than 90% of ulcers, which are lesions on the stomach or duodenal lining, are brought on by it.
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the nurse needs to obtain an admission weight for a client diagnosed with end-stage lung cancer. to obtain the client’s weight, what should the nurse do first?
The nurse should assess the client's ability to stand or sit.
Lung cancer is a type of cancer that begins in the lungs. Your lungs are two spongy organs in your chest that take in oxygen when you inhale and release carbon dioxide when you exhale.
Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths worldwide.
People who smoke have the greatest risk of lung cancer, though lung cancer can also occur in people who have never smoked. The risk of lung cancer increases with the length of time and number of cigarettes you've smoked. If you quit smoking, even after smoking for many years, you can significantly reduce your chances of developing lung cancer
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a hospital client is immunocompromised because of stage 3 hiv infection and the physician has ordered a chest radiograph. how should the nurse most safely facilitate the test?
The safest way to facilitate the procedure is using a portable x-ray machine in the patient's room.
Is HIV a harmful condition?
If HIV is not treated appropriately, it can lead to AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). There is no HIV treatment that works, and the human body cannot get rid of HIV.
What does a typical chest radiograph entail?When taking a normal chest radiograph, the subject must be upright and the X-ray beam must travel through them from posterior to anterior (PA). The chest X-ray image created is viewed as though facing the patient directly in the front.
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the nurse is caring for a client with advanced liver disease who has ascites. which treatment will the nurse anticipate being used for the daily management of ascites?
The treatment will the nurse anticipate being used for the daily management of ascites is diuretics.
The correct option is A.
How do diuretics work?Any medication that encourages diuresis—the increased output of urine—is referred to as a diuretic. This includes compelled urination. A water pill is a common nickname for a diuretic tablet. Diuretics can be divided into numerous groups. The elimination of water by the body through the kidneys is increased by all diuretics.
BriefingThe injection of diuretics to reduce fluid retention and sodium restriction are often the main daily care strategies for ascites. Diuretics that spare potassium or loop are employed. Large-volume paracentesis is only performed on patients with severe ascites that is uncomfortable for the patient. By managing the ascites on a regular basis, it should be feasible to avoid this intrusive treatment and its hazards.
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The complete question you are looking for is :
The nurse is caring for a client with advanced liver disease who has ascites. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate being used for the daily management of ascites?
A. diuretics
B. desmopressin
C. thoracentesis
D. paracentesis
what is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?
For peripheral venous access, upper-extremity superficial veins are preferred over those in the lower extremities because they interfere with patient mobility less and carry a lower risk of phlebitis.
When donning sterile gloves, what procedure is most crucial for the nurse to follow?The nurse should put on sterile gloves first, maneuver is most crucial to keep your gloved hands above your elbows. Unsterile practices prohibit holding gloved hands below the waist.
What should the nurse do initially, and which action?The assessment stage is the first and most important in the nursing process. Before you begin implementing nursing activities, it is imperative that you finish the assessment phase of the nursing process.
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the parents of a child with diarrhea report to the nurse that they have treated the child with home remedies, including herbal medicine. what is the most important information for the nurse to communicate to the parents regarding the use of home remedies?
Inform medical experts about home remedies. Making sure that parents share this information with medical specialists is the most crucial piece of advice regarding herbal treatments used at home. This is done to make sure the youngster doesn't receive the same medication in two different forms or medications that could conflict with the natural therapy.
What is fluid and electrolyte review in nursing?
A thorough review of fluids and electrolytes for nurses is the fluid and electrolyte review. The primary causes, signs, and symptoms of the electrolytes potassium, sodium, chloride, phosphate, magnesium, and calcium will be covered. By regulating a variety of internal functions, including cardiac, neurological, oxygen supply, acid-base balance, and much more, fluids and electrolytes play a critical role in maintaining homeostasis inside the body. Electrolytes keep voltages across cellular membranes constant and are the driving force behind the cellular activity.
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because the principal active ingredient in tobacco is nicotine, you might expect smoking to enhance the effects of:
The central nervous system is both stimulated and depressed by nicotine.
What results does nicotine in tobacco products have?Nicotine is a toxic and very addicting substance. It may result in an increase in heart rate, blood flow to the heart, blood pressure, and the constriction of arteries, among other things (vessels that carry blood). Nicotine may also aid in the hardening of artery walls, which could result in a heart attack.
Nicotine's ability to promote addictionCompared to the "high" associated with other medicines, this spike lasts far less time. However, nicotine, like other addictive substances, elevates dopamine levels in these reward circuits,20,21,27 reinforcing drug-taking behavior.
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. a pregnant woman has come to the emergency department with complaints of nasal congestion and epistaxis. what action by the nurse is best?
Teach that the increased blood supply to the mucous membranes and can result in congestion and nosebleeds,The upper respiratory tract was impacted by the edema and hyperemia that follow capillary engorgement, which are symptoms that are frequently observed during pregnancy.A referral is not required.The patient does not require lab work or to be connected to a heart monitor.The patient needs to be made aware that estrogen, not progesterone, is what causes these alterations.
Why folate during and before pregnancy?Before becoming pregnant and up until you are 12 weeks along, it is crucial to take a 400 microgram folic acid tablet every day.Spina bifida and other neural tube problems, such as birth defects, can be prevented with folic acid.
What fruit is beneficial during pregnancy?This includes berries like raspberries, strawberries, blueberries, and just about any other berry you can think of! Berries are a great source of antioxidants, which can protect both mother and fetus from dangerous ailments.
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the nurse is admitting a client from the post-anethsia care unit who just received a permanent atrioventuricular pacemaker for a complete heart block. which action should the nurse implement first?
Start continuous cardiac monitoring. The nurse should also evaluate the client's vital signs to determine stability after the procedure and check for pacemaker capture by feeling the client's pulse rate and comparing it to the electrical rate seen on the cardiac monitor.
The nurse should attach the continuous cardiac monitoring when the patient enters the post-anesthesia care unit following pacemaker implantation in order to evaluate the pacemaker's performance. Pacer spikes should be discernible before the P waves and QRS complexes if the atrioventricular (dual-chambered) pacemaker is functioning appropriately (electrical capture). The continuous cardiac monitoring medical professional should be informed right away if the pacemaker is not functioning properly for example, failing to capture or detect.
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a nurse prepares a client with a recently created ileal conduit to be discharged from the hospital. which is an expected assessment finding?
Urine mucus is a common finding. As part of its typical operation, the isolated small intestinal segment continues to produce mucus, which is visible in the urine.
Why does mucus develop?As a lubricant, it prevents tissue from drying out. And it's a line of protection. According to Johns Hopkins University ear, nose, and throat specialist, mucus is crucial for filtering out substances that we breathe in through your nose, such as dust, allergies, and germs.
Mucus infection: what is its cause?Overproduction of mucus can occasionally result from a cold, allergies, or germs. The accumulation of bacteria or other germs in your sinus canal can be aided by this thickening of the mucus, which can ultimately result in a sinus infection.
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question 9 of 10a nurse cares for a client who is post op open cholecystectomy and has a t-tube in place. which clinical situation will the nurse notify the health care provider about as a possible complication of the surgery?
A T-tube is a silicone stent for the trachea with an external limb. Thus correct answer (c)Significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube.
A T-tube is placed after open cholecystectomy to drain excess bile. The T-tube should remain below the level of the incision in order to ensure proper drainage. The nurse should report an output of greater than 500 mL in 24 hours or a significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube. There should not be bloody or serous output from the T-tube.
Do T tubes fall out of ears?
An ear tube often remains in the eardrum for four to 18 months before falling out on its own. A tube may not always fall out and must be surgically removed. In certain circumstances, the ear tube falls out too quickly, and a new one must be inserted into the eardrum..
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Full Question: A nurse cares for a client who is post op open cholecystectomy and has a T-tube in place. Which clinical situation will the nurse notify the health care provider about as a possible complication of the surgery?
Absence of blood or serous fluid in the T-tube.
Greater than 250 mL bile output from the T-tube in 24 hours.
Significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube.
Finding the T-tube placed below the level of the incision
when a client who has been taking opioids becomes less sensitive to the drug's analgesic properties, that client is said to have developed a(n)
Young adults with inflammatory bowel disease would be at the greatest risk for problems while taking an opioid analgesic.
What are some analgesics examples?
Aspirin and ibuprofen are two of the medications in this class that are most commonly used. NSAIDs are included in the broader category of non-opioid analgesics. For less severe pain, doctors often prescribe NSAIDs rather than opiate painkillers like morphine.
What effects do analgesics have on the body?
A family of medications called analgesics is used to treat analgesia (pain). They function by preventing the brain from receiving pain signals or by interfering with the brain's perception of those signals. The two main types of analgesics are non-opioid (non-narcotic) and opioid (narcotic) pain medicines.
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twenty minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is initiated, a client reports shivering, headache, and lower back pain. the vital signs show a normal temperature and increased pulse and respiratory rate. what should be the first nursing actions?
Stop the transfusion, continue with saline infusion, and notify the physician regarding a suspected hemolytic reaction.
One of the most serious blood reactions is a hemolytic reaction, so stopping the transfusion as soon as possible and maintaining I.V. access are crucial.
A red blood cell transfusion may be given to a patient who has anemia, a condition in which the body lacks adequate red blood cells, or iron deficiency.
This kind of transfusion improves the body's oxygenation while raising the patient's hemoglobin and iron levels.
The usual lifespan of red blood cells (RBCs) in a healthy adult is about 120 days, and their normal daily production is about 0.25 mL/kg. In contrast, the lifespan of transfused RBCs is roughly 50–60 days and can be drastically shortened in the presence of conditions lowering their viability.
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anna’s father tried a low-carb diet for a while but stopped when he became aware of a new diet called ""paleo."" this is an example of
After a while, Anna's father tried a low-carb diet, but he gave it up when he learned about the "paleo" diet. This is a fad illustration.
A fad diet is a diet that becomes popular for a short time, similar to fads in fashion, without being a standard dietary recommendation, and often making unreasonable claims for fast weight loss or health improvements. There is no single definition of what is a fad diet.
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a client with severe peptic ulcer disease has undergone surgery and is several hours postoperative. during assessment, the nurse notes that the client has developed cool skin, tachycardia, labored breathing, and appears to be confused. which complication has the client most likely developed?
According to the given statement Hemorrhage complication has the client most likely developed.
Is a tachycardia life-threatening?But if you have organ damage or other heart issues, atrial and ventricular tachycardia (SVT) is typically not life-threatening. However, in rare circumstances, an SVT episode could result in cardiac arrest or coma. Tachycardia is frequently brought on by: diseases that affect the heart, such excessive blood pressure (hypertension) Heart muscle not getting enough blood because of coronary artery (atherosclerosis).
What could cause a tachycardia?Alcohol withdrawal or binge drinking. high caffeine content. Blood pressure may be high or low. electrolyte imbalances in the blood, including those of potassium, sodium, calcium, or magnesium.
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a patient has received epinephrine for treatment of anaphylaxis. which additional drug may be helpful to prevent recurrent anaphylaxis?
Although evidence are limited to case studies, glucose may be helpful for patients with severe anaphylaxis who are on beta-blockers (it should be taken in addition to epinephrine, not as a substitute). Bronchospasm can also be treated with glucagon.
Which drugs are effective in preventing anaphylaxis?The only medication that effectively cures anaphylactic responses is epinephrine. When administered quickly, before symptoms worsen, it works best.
Can anti-allergy medications stop anaphylaxis?Antihistamine therapy does not alleviate or prevent all of the pathophysiological symptoms of anaphylaxis, including the more serious side effects like airway obstruction, hypotension, and shock, despite the fact that histamine is involved in the condition.
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before giving digoxin, the nurse discovers that the patient's pulse is 52 beats per minute. what will be the nurse's best action?
Checking the apical pulse for 1 minute will be the nurse's best action.
Accuracy is typically checked by measuring the apical pulse rate for a full minute; this is crucial in newborns and young children due to the potential of sinus arrhythmia. You can count on hearing the noises "lub dup," which denote one beat, when auscultating the apical pulse. one minute's worth of apical pulse counting.
Prior to giving, wait a full minute to observe the apical pulse. If the pulse rate is greater than 60 beats per minute in an adult, 70 beats per minute in a kid, or 90 beats per minute in a baby, the dose should be withheld and a healthcare provider should be informed. Any major changes in the rhythm, rate, or nature of the pulse must be immediately reported to a medical expert.
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A client on the behavioral health unit tells the nurse that she experiences palpitations, trembling, and nausea while traveling alone, outside her home. These symptoms have severely limited her ability to function and have caused her to avoid leaving home whenever possible. The nurse recognizes that this client has symptoms of what disorder?
1. Thanatophobia
2. Aerophobia
3. Hodophobia
4. Agoraphobia
His symptoms severely limited his ability to function and caused him to avoid leaving the house, so the nurses recognized that this client had symptoms of 4. agoraphobia.
What is agoraphobia?Agoraphobia is a type of anxiety disorder. This disorder causes excessive feelings of fear and worry when in a place that makes it difficult for the sufferer to leave or feels unable to ask for help from anyone.
The causes of agoraphobia are still not known with certainty. However, this phobia is more prone to occur in people with a history of recurrent panic attacks. Although rare, agoraphobia can also occur in people who don't have a history of panic attacks.
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the nurse is conducting a community education program on allergies and anaphylactic reactions. the nurse determines that the participants understand the education when they make which statement about anaphylaxis?
The participants are required to mention : " The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin ".
What are the effects of penicillin on anaphylaxyis ?Although aspirin, morphine (an opioid) and radiocontrast agents such as iodine can cause anaphylaxis, penicillin is the most comon cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the United States each year.
A past exposure to penicillin causes preformed IgE responses, which lead to acute reactions. Mast cells release histamine and other mediators as a result, which causes the classic signs and symptoms of a real anaphylactic reaction.
Anaphylaxis can occasionally occur as a result of a penicillin allergy. It is a potentially fatal illness that can include dizziness or lightheadedness, breathing issues, throat or tongue swelling, seizures, extremely low blood pressure, vomiting, diarrhea, and cramps in the abdomen.
Penicillin causes anaphylaxis in between 0.02% and 0.04% of cases, and type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are the primary mediator.
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a nurse assesses a client in the health care provider's office. which assessment findings support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (sle)?
Facial erythema, pleuritis, pericarditis, fever, weight loss, etc., are some assessment findings that support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a medical condition associated with the most common lupus class, which is a well known autoimmune disease that may lead to different symptoms such as facial erythema, pleuritis, pericarditis and weight loss.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is the most widely known class of autoimmune disease lupus class and this disease is associated with diverse symptoms,
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a client is prescribed montelukast as part of a treatment plan for an allergic disorder. the nurse understands that this drug belongs to which class?
Montelukast is the drug which belongs to the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist that is prescribed to the patient for an allergic disorder.
What is Montelukast?Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction which can develop rapidly in an individual. It is also called as anaphylactic shock. Common signs of anaphylaxis include itchy skin or a red skin rash.
Montelukast is a leukotriene-receptor antagonist class drug. It is generally prescribed when the asthma is mild and can prevent this condition from getting worse. Montelukast can also help people with asthma who are facing breathing difficulties when they perform any physical activity and anaphylaxis, seasonal allergies, such as sneezing, itchiness and a blocked or runny nose.
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a client is diagnosed with right-sided bell's palsy. what instructions should the nurse give this client for care at home? select all that apply.
Due to facial nerve irritation, which manifests as asymmetry in the grin or frown, facial droop, alterations in tear production, and inability to completely close the afflicted eye.
Bell's palsy on the right side is what?Bell's palsy is a condition that causes the muscles on one side of the face to suddenly deteriorate. Most often, the weakness is momentary and becomes much better over a few weeks. The weakening seems to make the lower half of the face droop. It's challenging for the affected eye to close during one-sided smiles.
Be explicit about the cause of Bell's palsy?Although the exact cause of Bell's palsy is uncertain, it is believed that immune system dysfunction brought on by inflammation is to blame. Other diseases like diabetes are connected to it.
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