Consider this equation: c - 45 = 60. Which sentence describes the equation?

A. 45 is less than an unknown number, which is 60.
B. An unknown number less than 45 is 60
C. When an unknown number is taken away from 45, the result is 60.
D. 45 less than an unknown number is 60.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

22+15x−11=0

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

22+15x−11=0

22+15x+−11=0

(15x)+(22+−11)=0(Combine Like Terms)

15x+11=0

15x+11=0

Step 2: Subtract 11 from both sides.

15x+11−11=0−11

15x=−11

Step 3: Divide both sides by 15.

15x

15

=

−11

15

x=

−11

15

Answer:

x=

−11

15

Answer:

7.

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope of a line perpendicular to a line of slope m is -1/m.

So the answer is  -1 / -1/7

= -1 * 7/-1

= 7.

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

120+80=200 the total number of tickets

120(student tickets) ÷ 200 (total tickets)= .6 =60%

Answer:

bin

Step-by-step explanation:

bghgghhshshsbabbsnajswjjegvrjrjrhrbrhrriritt

Answer:

2x+3 times 5 - x +8=13

Step-by-step explanation:

off ion know

Answer:

its the second option thats the answer

Answer:

The answer is "[tex]\bold{1.5\ in^3}[/tex]"

Step-by-step explanation:

Please find the complete question in the attached file.

Given:

[tex]l=1.5 \ in\\\\ w=1.5 \ in\\\\h= 2 \ in\\\\[/tex]

The formula for calculating volume:

[tex]\to V=\frac{lwh}{3}[/tex]

        [tex]= \frac{2 \times 1.5 \times 1.5}{3}\\\\=\frac{4.5}{3}\\\\=1.5 \ in^3[/tex]

Answer:

x=20

y=70/3 which is about 23.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Write a proportion of all similar sides

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Parent function:

Translation 6 units up:

or

True

Even though it landed on heads 8/10 times, ther's still a 50% chance that it will land on tails. It doesn't change the percentage of it landing on either side. So in that case, it is true.

Hope this helps!

The statement, A coin is flipped 10 times and lands on heads 8 times. The theoretical probability that the next coin flip will be heads is 50% is True.

The probability of an occurrence is a figure that represents how likely it is that the event will take place. In terms of percentage notation, it is expressed as a number between 0 and 1, or between 0% and 100%.

here, we have,

we know that,

The higher the likelihood, the more likely it is that the event will take place. A definite occurrence has a chance of 1 while an impossible event has a probability of 0.

we have,

When a coin is flipped the probability of getting a heads and a tail is 50%.

Hence, without the consideration of the flips and the result the theoretical probability that the next coin flip will be heads is 50%.

The statement, A coin is flipped 10 times and lands on heads 8 times. The theoretical probability that the next coin flip will be heads is 50% is True.

Learn more about probability here:

brainly.com/question/30034780

#SPJ2

Answer:

Kym is wrong because instead of 25% it would be 50 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Sample Response: The ratio of boys to total students was 25:50. Written as a fraction, this is 25/50. Rewrite the fraction with a denominator of 100 to 50/100. So 50% of the students were boys.

You might wanna change up some words so the teacher doesn't know your cheating lol

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

3x+9=12

3x=21

x=7

Answer:

[tex] - 5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]3(x + 9) = 12[/tex]

Answer:

360 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: 120 miles*3 hours

Step 2: 360 miles far.

Answer:

P=15

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

P=15

Step-by-step explanation:

first:

98-38=60

4p=60

60÷4=15

P=15

hope that helped :)

Answer:

7.5 x 2

4 + 4

Step-by-step explanation:

7.5 x 2 = 15

4 + 4 = 8

hope i helped you!

Answer: 59 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

First the sea turtle descended 28 feet.

It then ascends 5 feet which means it is now:

= 28 - 5

= 23 feet below surface

It then descends 9 feet and repeats that descent 4 time:

= 9 * 4

= 36 feet below the surface

Total distance below the surface:

= 23 + 36

= 59 feet

Answer:

its 4 :)

Step-by-step explanation:

heyyy please give me brain i really am thankfull if you do and

also have a nice day hope this help and thank you very much.

Answer:

$0.33 per ball

Step-by-step explanation:

haha we meet again.

Divide 1.33 by 4

1.33/4=0.3325

Round to the nearest tenth

0.33

Answer:

2a²

Step-by-step explanation:

Pair 'like' terms with 'like' terms, ie numbers go with numbers, and 'a's go with 'a's.

Lets deal with the top of the fraction first:

4ax3a³

Rearrange it so you have numbers beside numbers and 'a's beside 'a's:

(4x3)x(axa³)

12x(a⁴) (because nᵃxnᵇ=nᵃ⁺ᵇ)

12a⁴

Now, instead of (4ax3a³)/6a², we have 12a⁴/6a²

First divide the numbers: 12/6 =2

Now divide the 'a' parts: a⁴/a²=a² (because nᵃ/nᵇ=nᵃ⁻ᵇ)

Now we have 2a²

Answer:

The true statement is C because between -4 and 14 is 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Plz mark brainliest

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

(-5)-12=17

6-(-3)=9

(-4)-14=18

hope this helps have a great day :)

Answer:

the clerk will make $8.65 an hour

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

P is the dependent variable, H is the independent variable

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x^2 -8x + 5 = (x-4)^2 - 11

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we want to write the given expression in the form

x^2-8x + 5 can be written as follows;

(x-4)^2 = x^2 - 8x + 16

All we have to do is to subtract 11

Thus, we have it that;

x^2-8x + 5 = (x-4)^2 - 11

Answer:

Option C should be the answer.

Answer:

I think it's C but I might be

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution :

We have to prove that [tex]$\overline{A \cup B} = \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$[/tex]   (De-Morgan's law)

Let  [tex]$x \in \bar{A} \cap \bar{B}, $[/tex] then [tex]$x \in \bar{A}$[/tex] and [tex]$x \in \bar{B} $[/tex]

and so [tex]$x \notin \bar{A}$[/tex] and [tex]$x \notin \bar{B} $[/tex].

Thus, [tex]$x \notin A \cup B$[/tex] and so [tex]$x \in \overline{A \cup B}$[/tex]

Hence, [tex]$\bar{A} \cap \bar{B} \subset \overline{A \cup B}$[/tex]   .........(1)

Now we will show that [tex]$\overline{A \cup B} \subset \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$[/tex]

Let [tex]$x \in \overline{A \cup B}$[/tex] ⇒ [tex]$x \notin A \cup B$[/tex]

Thus x is present neither in the set A nor in the set B, so by definition of the union of the sets, by definition of the complement.

[tex]$x \in \overline{A}$[/tex] and  [tex]$x \in \overline{B}$[/tex]

Therefore, [tex]$x \in \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$[/tex] and we have [tex]$\overline{A \cup B} \subset \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$[/tex]  .............(2)

From (1) and (2),

[tex]$\overline{A \cup B} = \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$[/tex]

Hence proved.