complete the proof given: AB x BE =CB x BD prove: triangle ABC triangle DBE

Answer:

-8 i think

Hope you get it right

Answer:

the absolute value of -l8| is 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Absolute value means the opposite

suppose that number is ( x ).

three time of it means : 3 × x

six more means : + 6

So;

Six more three times a number means :

3x + 6

Thus, f ( x ) = 3x + 6

Answer:

Y=3x-17

Step-by-step explanation:

I graphed it

Answer:

Is this high school math or middle school?.

Step-by-step explanation:

a²+b² = c²

8²+2²

↓    ↓

64+4

   ↓

square root 68 and it should give you 8.24 and then you round.

Answer:

Answer and work is in the pdf

Step-by-step explanation:

75+75+80+80+80+80+80+80+85+85+90+90+90+90+90+90+95+95+95+100+100+100+100+100+100

=2,425

2+6+2+6+3+8

=27

2,425/27=89.81

The mean is 89.81

Both the stores together donated 65.5 dozen cookies.

Answer:

He should have done 8^2 + 15^2= x^2 because the hypotenuse is always the longest side and in Pythagorean theorem C represents the longest side

[tex] {x}^{2} = {(8)}^{2} + {(15)}^{2} [/tex]

[tex] {x}^{2} = 64 + 225[/tex]

[tex] {x}^{2} = 289[/tex]

[tex]x = \sqrt{289} [/tex]

[tex]x = 17[/tex]

Answer:

x = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

hi there!

im not sure if the x between the 2's is a x as in a variable or if it is multiplication sign. im going to solve the problem as if it is a multiplication sign but if that is wrong then please let me know!

2 * 2 + x - 4 = 0

is our equation that we are working with ^

first step is, following the pemdas we multiply *2 with its self

( ^ parentheses, exponents, multiplication/ division making sure to solve it left to right, addition and subtraction still making sure to follow the left to right rule )

2 * 2 + x - 4 = 0

2 * 2

= 4 + x - 4 + 0

then we add positive 4 and negative 4 together, canceling eachother out the giving us the answer of  x = 0

4 + x - 4 + 0

4 + - 4 = 0

x = 0

i hope this helps you! have a good rest of your day :)

Answer:

If rounded to the nearest tenth of a cubic foot, would be: 927587.2

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of finding the equation of the volume of a sphere is "4π[tex]\frac{radius^{3} }{3}[/tex]"

If values are inserted in for radius as 60.5, the answer will be 927587.2 when rounded to the nearest tenths.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

volume of cone formula: V = 1/3 πr²h

r = 1/2 d

r = 1/2 (17.5)

r = 8.75 in

V = 1/3 (π8.75²)(18.5)

V = 1483.26 in²

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Second One-

[tex] {5}^{14}. {5}^{ - 2} [/tex]

Fifth One-

[tex] {5}^{6} \: . \: {5}^{6} [/tex]

Sixth One-

[tex] \sqrt{ {5}^{24} } [/tex]

Seventh One-

[tex] {5}^{11} \: . \: 5 [/tex]

Answer:

the last one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is G. 5/3

Step-by-step explanation:

I used the elimination process and multiplied the second equation by three which allowed me to cancel out the positive and negative three y's.

6x+3y=13

(3x-y=4)*3

6x+3y=13

9x-3y=12

6x+9x=15x

13+12=25

15x=25

15x/15=25/15

By dividing, the fifteens on the left cancel out leaving:

x=1.66667 or 1 2/3 = 5/3

I hope this helps. :)

Answer:

. the area decreased by 7 is 14

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

List out the factors of each

36: 1,2,3,4,6,9,12,18,36

60: 1,2,3,4,5,6,10,12,15,20,30,60

the highest number they both have in common is 12

Answer:

the answer is B on USA Prep

Step-by-step explanation:

"A potential outlier at (50, 12)" is the statement that best describes the data shown in the scatter plot.

A straight line that minimizes the gap between it and certain data is called a line of best fit. In a scatter plot containing several data points, a relationship is expressed using the line of best fit. It is a result of regression analysis and a tool for forecasting indicators and price changes.

Given:

The scatter plot shows the relationship between backpack weight and student weight.

From the given choices:

An outlier is a value that nowhere near the range of the data set.

From the scatter plot:

A potential outlier at (50, 12).

Therefore, a potential outlier at (50, 12).

To learn more about the line of the best fit;

https://brainly.com/question/14279419

#SPJ6

Answer: 175 ft

Step-by-step explanation: Lateral surface area of a cube with dimensions a, b, c is 2ab+2ac+2bc, and then when you plug in the values and solve you get 175!

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

Sue in 5 years would 20, meaning Mike would be 10. Subtract 5 from Mike to get their current age.

Answer:

Mike= 10 years old

Sue= 25 years old

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the present age of Sue be s years old, while that of Mike be m years old.

Present

s= m +15 -----(1)

In 5 years

Sue's age= s +5

Mike's age= m +5

Given that Mike would be ½ of Sue's age in 5 years,

m +5= ½(s +5)

Multiply both sides by 2:

2(m +5)= s +5

Expand:

2m +10= s +5

2m +10 -5= s

s= 2m +5 -----(2)

Substitute (1) into (2):

m +15= 2m +5

2m -m= 15 -5

m= 10

Substitute m= 10 into (1):

s= 10 +15

s= 25

Thus, the present age of Mike is 10 years old and the present age of Sue is 25 years old.

Answer:

divide 7/100 which is 0.07

multiply that by 13.75, and you get 0.96

13.75+0.96= $13.20

(this is including sales tax)

Answer:

$12.78

Step-by-step explanation:

I THINK you are supposed to multiply the original price (13.75) by the sales tax as a decimal (0.07) and then subtract that answer from, the original, amount.

Answer:

I think the answer is 1/2 but dont take my word

Answer:

402.1 in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the area of the circle with the 18 in. radius first.

Formula for a circle is πr^2

So the area of the circle with the 8 in. radius is 1017.9 in^2

Now do the same for the 14 in. radius circle.

The area for the 14 in. radius circle is 615.8

Now subtract:

1017.9 - 615.8 =

402.1 in^2

hope this helped!

Answer:

The probability of selection of chocolate candy from bag A is ( 10%) bigger than from the bag B

Step-by-step explanation:

From bag A the probability (p₁ ) of selection  ( in a random sample) of one chocolate candy is

p₁ = 9/15       p₁  = 0,6

From bag B the probability ( p₂ ) of selection ( in a random sample) of one chocolate candy is:

p₂ = 5/10       p₂ = 0,5

Then the probability of selection of chocolate candy from bag A is bigger than from the bag B

p₁ > p₂      p₁ - p₂  = 0,6 - 0,5       p₁ - p₂ = 0,1    p₁ - p₂ = 10%

p

Answer: 608

Step-by-step explanation: multiply by 2

Answer:

the answer is minus 2 ( -2)

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

This involves reading the coordinates of points from the graph

When x = 3 then y = - 2 , that is the point (3, - 2 )

im not smart enough lol

Answer:

y=-1/2x+4 Is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

y=mx+b

3=2x+4

-1=2x

x=-1/2

You already know y is 4 so y=-1/2x+4