Charlie will rent a car for the weekend. He can choose one of two plans. The first plan has an initial fee of $48 and costs an additional $0.19 per mile driven. The second plan has an initial fee of $57 and costs an additional $0.14 per mile driven.

For what amount of driving do the two plans cost the same?
miles
What is the cost when the two plans cost the same?
$

Answer:

2lw + 2lh+2hw

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

If Im right you had to multiple 1 by 10 and 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Your answer will be 30 but dont forget to add the centimeter at the end

30cm

Hope this helps (:

Answer:

decimal: 2.22 mixed number: 2 2/9

Answer:

Jul 25, 2019 — Click here to get an answer to your question ✍️ 3. Simplify 32 • 35 ... 3. Simplify 32 • 35. (4 points) 37 310 97 910. 2. See answers. Log in to ...

2 answers

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4/35

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Find 7 1/2

15/2

2. Flip 15/2

2/15

3. Multiply

12/105

4. Simplify

4/35

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

because 3x4 is 12

Answer: b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its c

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=3.5*

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

because the value of 3 is 45

Answer:

Newton realized that the reason the planets orbit the Sun is related to why objects fall to Earth when we drop them. The Sun's gravity pulls on the planets, just as Earth's gravity pulls down anything that is not held up by some other force and keeps you and me on the ground.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C = 0.475

Step-by-step explanation:

you divide 5.70 by 12 and get that one bagel costs 0.475 cents. hope this helps!

c=40 is the answer

6x55=330 cents

$570-570 cents (570-330)÷(12-)

=240÷6 (division)

=40 cents

Thus, c=40

The unitary method is a method for solving a problem by first finding the value of a single unit and then multiplying the value of a single unit to find the required value.

The unitary method is a procedure that calculates the value of a single unit from the value of multiple units and the value of multiple units from the value of a single unit.

Simply put, the unitary method is used to find the value of a single unit from a given plural. For example, if the price of 40 pens is 400 rupees, the price of one pen would be: This can be done using a uniform method

Learn more about unitary method here:https://brainly.com/question/24587372

#SPJ2

Answer:

$552.50

Step-by-step explanation:

To find how much she will make, find 6.5% of 8500

8500(0.065)

= 552.5

So, she will make $552.50

Answer:

$552.50

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula we'll use for this is the simple interest formula, or:

[tex]I=P*R[/tex]

Where:

P is the principal amount, $8500.00.

R is the interest rate, 6.5% per year, or in decimal form, 6.5/100=0.065.

To find the simple interest, we multiply 8500 × 0.065 to get that:

The interest is: $552.50

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  [tex]\dfrac{2}{5}\times\left(\dfrac{5}{8}\times 16\right)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

In this context, "of" means "times". A product of two numbers is computed by taking one "times" the other. In short, the operations being described by the words are two uses of "times". That shows up in only one answer choice.

Answer:

[tex]\frac{\sqrt{3}x}{2y^{\frac{2}{3} } }[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

√3x^6/√2x^4y^3

~Factor

(√3)x^3/(√2)x²y√y

~Cancel

(√3)x/(√2)y√y

~Rationalize

(√6)x/2y^(2/3)

Best of Luck!

Answer:

Area of triangle is 1 inches²

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given:

Base of triangle = 16 inches

Height of triangle = [tex]\frac{1}{8} \:[/tex] inches

We need to find:

Area of triangle

The formula used to find Area of triangle is:

[tex]Area \:of\: triangle=\frac{1}{2}\times b \times h[/tex]

where b is base and h is height.

Putting values and finding area:

[tex]Area \:of\: triangle=\frac{1}{2}\times 16 \times \frac{1}{8}\\ Area \:of\: triangle=\frac{16}{16}\\ Area \:of\: triangle=1\:inches^2[/tex]

So,  Area of triangle is 1 inches²

Answer:

8 ft 8 in

Step-by-step explanation:

104/12 = 8.666...

This shows that there are 8 total feet because there are 12 inches in a foot

Then, multiply 8*12 to get 96 in order to get the remainder of the inches left that do not make up one whole foot.

Then subtract 96 from 104 (104-96) to get the remainder which is 8 inches.

Answer:

y - 0 = -⅔(x - 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given a point, (a, b) and slope, m, equation of the line in point-slope form can be written.

Thus:

Substitute (a b) = (3, 0), and m = -⅔ into y - b = m(x - a).

y - 0 = -⅔(x - 3) (the equation in point-slope form)

Answer:

it's the first one and the third one

Step-by-step explanation:

cause 6 (X - 4) multiply by 6 by X and 4

and same for the third expression.

Answer:

1st and 3rd

Step-by-step explanation:

6(x - 4) = 6x - 24

3(2x - 8) = 6x - 24

Answer:

$6

Step-by-step explanation:

50 x 1.08 = 54

60-54=6

Answer:

dy/dx= -4x+16/y+2

Step-by-step explanation:

just cause also if you need to classify then it's ellipse (this is to find the first derative)

do you need it in standard form

Answer:

6.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Theres a formula to figure this out. If you know two sides of a right angle triangle you can find the third.

Use the formula a²=b²+c², where a is the side opposite the right angle and b and c are the other sides.

a²=b²+c²

7²=2²+c²

49=4+c²

49-4=c²

c=√45 or 6.7082039325

Answer:

6p=$13.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

1 inch=400 miles

x =200 miles

200 is half of 400, so the measurement should be halved as well.

Answer:

n = -1.825

Step-by-step explanation:

8n + 16.2 = 1.6 (Given)

8n = -14.6 (Subtract 16.2 on both sides)

n = -1.825 (Divide 8 on both sides)

Step-by-step explanation:

Move all terms not containing  

n

to the right side of the equation.

Tap for fewer steps...

Subtract  

16.2

from both sides of the equation.

8

n

=

1.6

−

16.2

Subtract  

16.2

from  

1.6

.

8

n

=

−

14.6

Divide each term by  

8

and simplify.

Tap for fewer steps...

Divide each term in  

8

n

=

−

14.6

by  

8

.

8

n

8

=

−

14.6

8

Cancel the common factor of  

8

.

Tap for more steps...

n

=

−

14.6

8

Divide  

−

14.6

by  

8

.

n

=

−

1.825

Answer:

5/6 is the probability

Step-by-step explanation:

Factors of 24 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24 and rolling a 6-sided die you can get 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 so 5 is the only thing you can roll that isn't a factor of 24 so

Answer:

I think Its k x (4 - 17)

You're Welcome =D

Answer:

7 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

convert mixed numbers to fractions to get 1/2 and 15/1

then, multiply the two to get 15/2

then simplify for the answer 7 1/2

answer 7.5

Step-by-step explanation:

convert the fraction to a decimal by dividing the numerator by the denominator