Calculate the ideal banking angle in degrees for a gentle turn of 1.88 km radius on a highway with a 136.3 km/hr speed limit, assuming everyone travels at the speed limit.

Answer:

ΔU = 2.25 x 10⁸ J

t = 104.17 s

Explanation:

The change in internal energy of the engine can be given by the following formula:

ΔU = (Mass of Gasoline)(Energy Content of Gasoline)

ΔU = (1.5 x 10⁶ J/gallon)(15 gallon)

ΔU = 2.25 x 10⁸ J

Now, for the time of operation, we use the following formula of power.

P = W/t = ΔU/t

t = ΔU/P

where,

t = time of operation = ?

ΔU = Change in internal energy = 2.25 x 10⁸ J

P = Power of motor = 600 W

Therefore,

t = (2.25 x 10⁸ J)/(600 W)

t = (375000 s)(1 h/3600 s)

t = 104.17 s

Answer:

Explanation:

v= u + at

v is final velocity , u is initial velocity . a is acceleration and t is time

Initial velocity u = 0 . Putting the given values in the equation

v = 0 + g sin 18 x 3.5

= 10.6 m /s

For a skateboarder who starts from the rest, the speed when he reaches the bottom of the ramp will be 10.6 m/s.

The term "velocity" refers to a vector measurement of the rate and direction of motion. Velocity is the rate of movement in a single direction, to put it simply. Velocity can be used to determine how fast a rocket is heading into space and how fast a car is moving north on a congested motorway.

There are several types of velocity :

The pace at which a person's velocity changes is known as acceleration. This implies that an object is accelerating if its velocity is rising or falling. An object that is accelerating won't have a steady change in location every second like an item moving at a constant speed does.

According to the question, the given values are :

Time, t = 3.50 sec

Initial Velocity, u = 0 m/s

Use equation of motion :

v = u+at

v = 0+ g sin 18 × 3.5

v = 10.6 m/s.

So, the final velocity will be 10.6 m/s.

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Complete question:

A solid conducting sphere is placed in an external uniform electric field. With regard to the electric field on the sphere's interior, which statement is correct?

A. the interior field points in a direction parallel to the exterior field

B. There is no electric field on the interior of the conducting sphere.

C. The interior field points in a direction perpendicular to the exterior field.

D. the interior field points in a direction opposite to the exterior field.

Answer:

B. There is no electric field on the interior of the conducting sphere.

Explanation:

Conductors are said to have free charges that move around easily. When the conductor is now placed in a static electric field, the free charges react to attain electrostatic equilibrium (steady state).

Here, a solid conducting sphere is placed in an external uniform electric field. Until the lines of the electric field are perpendicular to the surface, the free charges will move around the spherical conductor, causing polarization. There would be no electric field in the interior of the spherical conductor because there would be movement of  free charges in the spherical conductor in response to any field until its neutralization.

Option B is correct.

There is no electric field on the interior of the conducting sphere.

Answer and Explanation:

There is no probability of obtaining such a circuit of closed track current carrying wire whose field of magnitude displays i.e.  [tex]B \alpha \frac{1}{r^2}[/tex]

The magnetic field is a volume of vectors

And [tex]\phi\ bds = 0[/tex]. This ensures isolated magnetic poles or magnetic charges would not exit

Therefore for a closed path,  we never received magnetic field that followed the [tex]B \alpha \frac{1}{r^2}[/tex] it is only for the simple current-carrying wire for both finite or infinite length.

Answer:

superscript

Explanation:

When looking at the chemical symbol, the charge of the ion is displayed as the Superscript. This is because the charge of ions is usually written up on the chemical symbol while the atom/molecule is usually written down the chemical symbol. The superscript refers to what is written up on the formula while the subscript is written down on the formula.

An example is H2O . The 2 present represents two molecule of oxygen and its written as the subscript while Fe2+ in which the 2+ is written up is known as the superscript.

Answer:

superscript

Explanation:

Answer:

Acceleration of the asteroid relative to the spacecraft = 2ε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]A/m

Explanation:

The maximum electric field in the beam = 2E

cross-sectional area of beam = A

The intensity of an electromagnetic wave with electric field is

I = cε[tex]E_{0} ^{2}[/tex]/2

for [tex]E_{0}[/tex] = 2E

I = 2cε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]    ....equ 1

where

I is the intensity

c is the speed of light

ε is the permeability of free space

[tex]E_{0}[/tex]  is electric field

Radiation pressure of an electromagnetic wave on an absorbing surface is given as

P = I/c

substituting for I from above equ 1. we have

P = 2cε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]/c = 2ε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]    ....equ 2

Also, pressure P = F/A

therefore,

F = PA    ....equ 3

where

F is the force

P is pressure

A is cross-sectional area

substitute equ 2 into equ 3, we have

F = 2ε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]A

force on a body = mass x acceleration.

that is

F = ma

therefore,

a = F/m

acceleration of the asteroid will then be

a = 2ε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]A/m

where m is the mass of the asteroid.

Answer:

5

Explanation:

Answer:

94.248 g/sec

Explanation:

For solving the total current of the blood passing first we have to solve the cross sectional area which is given below:

[tex]A_1 = \pi R^2\\\\A_1 = \pi (1)^2\\\\A_1 = 3.1416 cm^2[/tex]

And, the velocity of blood pumping is 30 cm^2

Now apply the following formula to solve the total current

[tex]Q = \rho A_1V_1\\\\Q = (1)(3.1416)(30)\\\\[/tex]

Q =  94.248 g/sec

Basically we applied the above formula So, that the total current could come

Answer:

a)  v_correcaminos = 22.95 m / s ,  b)  x = 512.4 m ,

c) v = (45.83 i ^ -109.56 j ^) m / s

Explanation:

We can solve this exercise using the kinematics equations

a) Let's find the time or the coyote takes to reach the cliff, let's start by finding the speed on the cliff

         v² = v₀² + 2 a x

they tell us that the coyote starts from rest v₀ = 0 and its acceleration is a=15 m / s²

         v = √ (2 15 70)

         v = 45.83 m / s

with this value calculate the time it takes to arrive

        v = v₀ + a t

        t = v / a

        t = 45.83 / 15

        t = 3.05 s

having the distance to the cliff and the time, we can find the constant speed of the roadrunner

         v_ roadrunner = x / t

         v_correcaminos = 70 / 3,05

         v_correcaminos = 22.95 m / s

b) if the coyote leaves the cliff with the horizontal velocity v₀ₓ = 45.83 m / s, they ask how far it reaches.

Let's start by looking for the time to reach the cliff floor

            y = y₀ + [tex]v_{oy}[/tex] t - ½ g t²

in this case y = 0 and the height of the cliff is y₀ = 100 m

          0 = 100 + 45.83 t - ½ 9.8 t²

          t² - 9,353 t - 20,408 = 0

we solve the quadratic equation

         t = [9,353 ±√ (9,353² + 4 20,408)] / 2

         t = [9,353 ± 13] / 2

         t₁ = 11.18 s

        t₂ = -1.8 s

Since time must be a positive quantity, the answer is t = 11.18 s

we calculate the horizontal distance traveled

        x = v₀ₓ t

        x = 45.83 11.18

        x = 512.4 m

c) speed when it hits the ground

         vₓ = v₀ₓ = 45.83 m / s

we look for vertical speed

         v_{y} = [tex]v_{oy}[/tex] - gt

         v_{y} = 0 - 9.8 11.18

         v_{y} = - 109.56 m / s

         v = (45.83 i ^ -109.56 j ^) m / s

Answer:

  θ₁ = 85.5º       θ₂ = 12.98º

Explanation:

Let's analyze this projectile launch problem, the catapults are 100 m from the wall 15 m high, the objective is for the walls, let's look for the angles for which the rock stops touching the wall.

Let's write the equations for motion for this point

X axis

          x = v₀ₓ t

          x = v₀ cos θ t

Y axis

         y = [tex]v_{oy}[/tex] t - ½ g t2

         y = v_{o} sin θ t - ½ g t²

let's substitute the values

         100 = 80 cos θ t

           15 = 80 sin θ t - ½ 9.8 t²

we have two equations with two unknowns, so the system can be solved

let's clear the time in the first equation

           t = 100/80 cos θ

         15 = 80 sin θ (10/8 cos θ) - 4.9 (10/8 cos θ)²

         15 = 100  tan θ - 7.656 sec² θ

we can use the trigonometric relationship

         sec² θ = 1- tan² θ

we substitute

       15 = 100 tan θ - 7,656 (1- tan² θ)

       15 = 100 tan θ - 7,656 + 7,656 tan² θ

        7,656 tan² θ + 100 tan θ -22,656=0

let's change variables

       tan θ = u

        u² + 13.06 u + 2,959 = 0

let's solve the quadratic equation

       u = [-13.06 ±√(13.06² - 4  2,959)] / 2

       u = [13.06 ± 12.599] / 2

        u₁ = 12.8295

        u₂ = 0.2305

now we can find the angles

         u = tan θ

         θ = tan⁻¹ u

        θ₁ = 85.5º

         θ₂ = 12.98º

Answer:

[tex]\frac{50}{\pi }[/tex]Hz

Explanation:

In alternating current (AC) circuits, voltage (V) oscillates in a sine wave pattern and has a general equation as a function of time (t) as follows;

V(t) = V sin (ωt + Ф)            -----------------(i)

Where;

V = amplitude value of the voltage

ω = angular frequency = 2 π f        [f = cyclic frequency or simply, frequency]

Ф = phase difference between voltage and current.

Now,

From the question,

V(t) = 230 sin (100t)              ---------------(ii)

By comparing equations (i) and (ii) the following holds;

V = 230

ω = 100

Ф = 0

But;

ω = 2 π f = 100

2 π f = 100             [divide both sides by 2]

π f = 50

f = [tex]\frac{50}{\pi }[/tex]Hz

Therefore, the frequency of the voltage is [tex]\frac{50}{\pi }[/tex]Hz

Answer:

q/6Eo

Explanation:

See attached file pls

Answer:

0.85c

Explanation:

Rest mass of Kaon [tex]M_{0K}[/tex] = 494 MeV/c²

Rest mass of proton [tex]M_{0P}[/tex]  = 938 MeV/c²

The rest energy is gotten by multiplying the rest mass by the square of the speed of light c²

for the kaon, rest energy [tex]E_{0K}[/tex] = 494c² MeV

for the proton, rest energy [tex]E_{0P}[/tex] = 938c² MeV

Recall that the rest energy, and the total energy are related by..

[tex]E[/tex] = γ[tex]E_{0}[/tex]

which can be written in this case as

[tex]E_{K}[/tex] = γ[tex]E_{0K}[/tex] ...... equ 1

where [tex]E[/tex] = total energy of the kaon, and

[tex]E_{0}[/tex] = rest energy of the kaon

γ = relativistic factor = [tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - \beta ^{2} } }[/tex]

where [tex]\beta = \frac{v}{c}[/tex]

But, it is stated that the total energy of the kaon is equal to the rest mass of the proton or its equivalent rest energy, therefore...

[tex]E_{K}[/tex] = [tex]E_{0P}[/tex] ......equ 2

where [tex]E_{K}[/tex] is the total energy of the kaon, and

[tex]E_{0P}[/tex] is the rest energy of the proton.

From [tex]E_{K}[/tex] = [tex]E_{0P}[/tex] = 938c²    

equ 1 becomes

938c² = γ494c²

γ = 938c²/494c² = 1.89

γ = [tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - \beta ^{2} } }[/tex] = 1.89

1.89[tex]\sqrt{1 - \beta ^{2} }[/tex] = 1

squaring both sides, we get

3.57( 1 - [tex]\beta^{2}[/tex]) = 1

3.57 - 3.57[tex]\beta^{2}[/tex] = 1

2.57 = 3.57[tex]\beta^{2}[/tex]

[tex]\beta^{2}[/tex] = 2.57/3.57 = 0.72

[tex]\beta = \sqrt{0.72}[/tex] = 0.85

but, [tex]\beta = \frac{v}{c}[/tex]

v/c = 0.85

v = 0.85c

Answer:

  K_{f} / K₀ =1.12

Explanation:

This problem must work using the conservation of angular momentum (L), so that the moment is conserved in the system all the forces must be internal and therefore the torque is internal and the moment is conserved.

Initial moment. With arms outstretched

         L₀ = I₀ w₀

the wo value is 5.0 rad / s

final moment. After he shrugs his arms

         [tex]L_{f}[/tex] = I_{f}  w_{f}

indicate that the moment of inertia decreases by 11%

        I_{f} = I₀ - 0.11 I₀ = 0.89 I₀

        L_{f} = L₀

        I_{f} w_{f}  = I₀ w₀

        w_{f} = I₀ /I_{f}    w₀

let's calculate

        w_{f} = I₀ / 0.89 I₀   5.0

        w_{f} = 5.62 rad / s

Having these values ​​we can calculate the change in kinetic energy

         [tex]K_{f}[/tex] / K₀ = ½ I_{f} w_{f}² (½ I₀ w₀²)

         K_{f} / K₀ = 0.89 I₀ / I₀ (5.62 / 5)²

         K_{f} / K₀ =1.12

Answer:

16 years.

Explanation:

Using Kepler's third Law.

P2=D^3

P=√d^3

Where P is the orbital period and d is the distance from the sun.

From the question the semi major axis of the asteroid is 4 AU= distance. The distance is always express in astronomical units.

P=?

P= √4^3

P= √256

P= 16 years.

Orbital period is 16 years.

Answer:

Coulomb's law is:

[tex]F = \frac{1}{4*pi*e0} *(q1*q2)/r^2[/tex]

First, force has units of Newtons, the charges have units of Coulombs, and r, the distance, has units of meters, then, working only with the units we have:

N = (1/{e0})*C^2/m^2

then we have:

{e0} = C^2/(m^2*N)

And we know that N = kg*m/s^2

then the dimensions of e0 are:

{e0} = C^2*s^2/(m^3)

(current square per time square over cubed distance)

And knowing that a Faraday is:

F = C^2*S^2/m^2

The units of e0 are:

{e0} = F/m.

Answer:

the correct answer is d Beats

Explanation:

when two sound waves interfere time has different frequencies, the result is the sum of the waves is

       y = 2A cos 2π (f₁-f₂)/2    cos 2π (f₁ + f₂)/2

where in this expression the first part represents the envelope and the second part represents the pulse or beatings of the wave.

When examining the correct answer is d Beats

Answer:

v(t) = s′(t) = −9sin(t)+9cos(t)

a(t) = v′(t) = −9cos(t) −9sin(t)

Explanation:

Given that

s = 9 cos(t) + 9 sin(t), t ≥ 0

Then acceleration and velocity is

v(t) = s′(t) = −9sin(t)+9cos(t)

a(t) = v′(t) = −9cos(t) −9sin(t)

Answer:

The new angular speed is [tex]w = 6 \ rev/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the  question we are told that

      The angular velocity of the spin is  [tex]w_o = 3 \ rev/s[/tex]

       The  original moment of inertia is  [tex]I_o[/tex]

        The new moment of inertia is  [tex]I =\frac{I_o}{2}[/tex]    

Generally angular momentum is mathematically represented as

      [tex]L = I * w[/tex]

Now according to the law of conservation of momentum, the initial momentum is equal to the final momentum hence the angular momentum is constant so

         [tex]I * w = constant[/tex]

=>       [tex]I_o * w _o = I * w[/tex]

where w is the new angular speed  

  So  

          [tex]I_o * 3 = \frac{I_o}{2} * w[/tex]

=>        [tex]w = \frac{3 * I_o}{\frac{I_o}{2} }[/tex]

=>         [tex]w = 6 \ rev/s[/tex]

Answer:

335.79cm/s

Explanation:

When a transverse wave of wavelength λ is produced during the vibration of a wire, the frequency(f), and the speed(v) of the wave pulses are related to the wavelength as follows;

v = fλ        ------------------(ii)

From the question;

f = 6.3Hz

λ = 53.3cm

Substitute these values into equation (i) as follows;

v = 6.3 x 53.3

v = 335.79cm/s

Therefore, the speed of the wave pulses along the wire is 335.79cm/s

Answer:

a) yes

b) no

c) yes

d)Cart 2 with mass [tex]\frac{M}{3}[/tex]   is expected to be more faster

e) u₂ = 48 m/s

Explanation:

a) the all out linear momentum of an arrangement of particles of Cart 1 not followed up on by external forces is constant.

b) the linear momentum of Cart 2 will be acted upon by external force by Cart 1 with mass M, thereby it's variable and the momentum is not conserved

c) yes, the momentum is conserved because no external force acted upon it and both Carts share the same velocity after the reaction

note: m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = (m₁ + m₂)v

d) Cart 2 with mass [tex]\frac{M}{3}[/tex] will be faster than Cart 1 because Cart 2 is three times lighter than Cart 1.

e) Given

m₁=  M

u₁ = 16m/s

m₂ =[tex]\frac{M}{3}[/tex]

u₂ = ?

from law of conservation of momentum

m₁u₁= m₂u₂

M× 16 = [tex]\frac{M}{3}[/tex] × u₂(multiply both sides by 3)

therefore, u₂ = [tex]\frac{3(M .16)}{M}[/tex] ("." means multiplication)

∴u₂ = 3×16 = 48 m/s

Answer:

Towards the west.

Explanation:

The direction of a magnetic field lines is the direction north end of a compass needle points. The magnetic field exert force on positive charge.

Using the magnetic rule,which indicate that in order to find the direction of magnetic force on a moving charge, the thumb of the right hand point in the direction of force, the index finger in the direction of velocity charge and the middle finger in the direction of magnetic field.

According to the right hand rule, the electron moving moving west which is the thumb, the direction of the electron is west which is the middle finger and it is upward

Answer:

the answers are provided in the attachments below

Explanation:

Gauss law state that the net electric field coming out of a closed surface is directly proportional to the charge enclosed inside the closed surface

Applying Gauss law to the long solid cylinder

A) E ( electric field ) = p*r / 2 * [tex]e_{0}[/tex]

B) E = 2K λ / r

C) Answers from parts a and b are the same

D) attached below

Applying Gauss's law which states that the net electric field in an enclosed surface is directly ∝ to the charge found in the enclosed surface.

A ) The expression for the electric field inside the volume at a distance r

Gauss law :  E. A = [tex]\frac{q}{e_{0} }[/tex]  ----- ( 1 )

where : A = surface area = 2πrL ,  q = p(πr²L)

back to equation ( 1 )

E ( electric field ) = p*r / 2 * [tex]e_{0}[/tex]

B) Electric field at point Outside the volume in terms of charge per unit length  λ

Given that:  linear charge density = area * volume charge density

                                            λ    =  πR²P

from Gauss's law : E ( 2πrL) = [tex]\frac{q}{e_{0} }[/tex]

∴ E = [tex]\frac{\pi R^{2}P }{2e_{0}r\pi }[/tex]    ----- ( 2 )

where : πR²P = λ

Back to equation ( 2 )

E = λ  / 2e₀π*r              where : k = 1 / 4πe₀

∴ The electric field ( E ) at point outside the volume in terms of charge per unit Length λ

E = 2K λ / r

C) Comparing answers A and B

Answers to part A and B are similar

Hence we can conclude that Applying Gauss law to the long solid cylinder

E ( electric field ) = p*r / 2 * [tex]e_{0}[/tex], E = 2K λ / r also Answers from parts a and b are the same.

Learn more about Gauss's Law : https://brainly.com/question/15175106

Answer:

Q = 23.49 C

Explanation:

We have,

Electric current drawn by the air conditioner is 16.2 A

Time, t = 1.45 s

It is required to find the electric charge passes through the circuit during this period. We know that electric current is defined as the electric charge flowing per unit time. So,

[tex]I=\dfrac{q}{t}\\\\q=It\\\\q=16.2\times 1.45\\\\q=23.49\ C[/tex]

So, the charge of 23.49 C is passing through the circuit during this period.

Answer:

The potential at the center of the sphere is -924 V

Explanation:

Given;

radius of the sphere, R = 0.22 m

electric field at the surface of the sphere, E = 4200 N/C

Since the electric field is directed towards the center of the sphere, the charge is negative.

The Potential is the same at every point in the sphere, and it is given as;

[tex]V = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_o} \frac{q}{R}[/tex] -------equation (1)

The electric field on the sphere is also given as;

[tex]E = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon _o} \frac{|q|}{R^2}[/tex]

[tex]|q |= 4 \pi \epsilon _o} R^2E[/tex]

Substitute in the value of q in equation (1)

[tex]V = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_o} \frac{-(4 \pi \epsilon _o R^2E)}{R} \ \ \ \ q \ is \ negative\ because \ E \ is\ directed \ toward \ the \ center\\\\V = -RE\\\\V = -(0.22* 4200)\\\\V = -924 \ V[/tex]

Therefore, the potential at the center of the sphere is -924 V

Answer:

The two masses are 3.39 Kg and 1.75 Kg

Explanation:

The gravitational force of attraction between two bodies is given by the formula;

F = Gm₁m₂/d²

where G is the gravitational force constant = 6.67 * 10⁻¹¹ Nm²Kg⁻²

m₁ = mass of first object; m₂ = mass of second object; d = distance of separation between the objects

Further calculations are provided in the attachment below

Answer:

for the first interference m = 1   y = 2,839 10-3 m

for the second interference m = 2   y = 5,678 10-3 m

Explanation:

The double slit interference phenomenon, for constructive interference is described by the expression

                d sin θ = m λ

where d is the separation between the slits, λ the wavelength and m an integer that corresponds to the interference we see.

In these experiments in general the observation screen is L >> d, let's use trigonometry to find the angles

           tan θ = y / L

with the angle it is small,

          tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ

we substitute

         sin θ = y / L

         d y / L = m λ

the distance between the central maximum and an interference line is

        y = m λ L / d

let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

     λ = 546 nm = 546 10⁻⁹ m

     d = 0.25 mm = 0.25 10⁻³ m

let's substitute the values

      y = m 546 10⁻⁹ 1.3 / 0.25 10⁻³

      y =  m 2,839 10⁻³

the explicit value for a line depends on the value of the integer m, for example

for the first interference m = 1

the distance from the central maximum to the first line is y = 2,839 10-3 m

for the second interference m = 2

the distance from the central maximum to the second line is y = 5,678 10-3 m

Answer:

a

  [tex]B = 0.0533 \ T[/tex]

b

  [tex]B = 0.04 \ T[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The inner radius is [tex]r = 1.2 \ cm = 0.012 \ m[/tex]

   The  outer radius is  [tex]r_o = 2.4 \ cm = \frac{2.4}{100} = 0.024 \ m[/tex]

    The nu umber of turns is  [tex]N = 960[/tex]

    The current it is carrying is  [tex]I = 2. 5 A[/tex]

Generally the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

      [tex]B = \frac{\mu_o * N* I }{2 * \pi * r }[/tex]

Where  [tex]\mu_o[/tex] is the permeability of free space with a constant value    

            [tex]\mu = 4\pi * 10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

And the given distance where the magnetic field is felt is  r =  0.9 cm  =  0.009 m

Now  substituting values

     [tex]B = \frac{ 4\pi * 10^{-7} * 960* 2.5 }{2 * 3.142 * 0.009 }[/tex]

    [tex]B = 0.0533 \ T[/tex]

    Fro the second question the distance of the position considered from the center is  r =  1.2 cm  =  0.012 m

So the  magnetic field is  

        [tex]B = \frac{ 4\pi * 10^{-7} * 960* 2.5 }{2 * 3.142 * 0.012 }[/tex]

        [tex]B = 0.04 \ T[/tex]

The magnetic field at a distance of 0.9 cm from the center of the toroid is 0.053 T.

The magnetic field at a distance of 1.2 cm from the center of the toroid is 0.04 T.

The given parameters;

The magnetic field at a distance of 0.9 cm from the center of the toroid is calculated as follows;

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_o NI}{2\pi r} \\\\B = \frac{(4\pi \times 10^{-7})\times (960) \times (2.5)}{2\pi \times 0.009} \\\\B = 0.053 \ T[/tex]

The magnetic field at a distance of 1.2 cm from the center of the toroid is calculated as follows;

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_o NI}{2\pi r} \\\\B = \frac{(4\pi \times 10^{-7})\times (960) \times (2.5)}{2\pi \times 0.012} \\\\B = 0.04 \ T[/tex]

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Answer:

The minimum angular velocity necessary to assure that the riders will not slide down the wall is 1.58 rad/second.

Explanation:

The riders will experience a centripetal force from the cylinder

[tex]F_{C}[/tex] = mrω^2    .... equ 1

where

m is the mass of the rider

r is the inner radius of the cylinder = 3.4 m

ω is the angular speed of of the rider

For the riders not to slide downwards, this centripetal force is balanced by the friction between the riders and the cylinder. The frictional force is given as

[tex]F_{f}[/tex] = μR       ....equ 2

where

μ = coefficient of friction = 0.87

R is the normal force from the rider = mg

where

m is the rider's mass

g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s

substitute mg for R in equ 2, we'll have

[tex]F_{f}[/tex] = μmg     ....equ 3

Equating centripetal force of equ 1 and frictional force of equ 3, we'll get

mrω^2 = μmg

the mass of the rider cancels out, and we are left with

rω^2 = μg

ω^2 = μg/r

ω = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{ug}{r} }[/tex]

ω = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{0.87*9.81}{3.4} }[/tex]

ω = 1.58 rad/second

The minimum angular velocity necessary so that the riders will not slide down the wall is 1.58 rad/s

The riders will experience a  centripetal force from the cylinder

[tex]F = mrw^2[/tex]

where  m is the mass of the rider

r is the inner radius of the cylinder = 3.4 m

ω is the angular speed of the rider

For the riders not to slide downwards, this centripetal force must be balanced by friction. The frictional force is given as

f = μN

where

μ = coefficient of friction = 0.87

N is the normal force = mg

f = μmg  

Equating centripetal force of and frictional force of we'll get

[tex]mrw^2 = umg[/tex]

[tex]rw^2 = ug[/tex]

[tex]w^2 = ug/r[/tex]

[tex]w= \sqrt{ug/r}[/tex]

[tex]w= \sqrt{0.87*9.8/3.4}[/tex]  

ω = 1.58 rad/s is the minimum angular velocity needed to prevent the rider from sliding.

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